Phy Sec

Question 1

How system approach can be defined

Answer 1

System approach can be defined as a logical method for problem solving in which a comprehensive solution is developed in relation to a problem having several dimensions

Question 2

What do you understand by Design Basis Threat

Answer 2

The Design Basis Threat (DBT) as the adversary against which the utility must be protected (Patterson, 2007). Determining the DBT required consideration of the threat type, tactics and mode or operations, capabilities, threat level, and likelihood of occurrence

Question 3

Define risk management

Answer 3

Risk Management is coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk

Question 4

After the threats and assets are defined what is generally performed to establish a baseline of PPS effectiveness in meeting goals and objectives

Answer 4

Vulnerabilities assessment

Question 5

What is vulnerability? What are the differences between vulnerability assessment and vulnerability analysis

Answer 5

Vulnerability assessment is the process of identifying and quantifying vulnerabilities. The term vulnerability analysis which is a method of identifying the weak points of a facility, entity, venue or person (ASIS, 2012) has also been used to describe this process. Vulnerability has been defined as intrinsic properties of something that create susceptibility to a source of risk that can lead to consequence (ISO/IEC 2009).Garcia. Vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by an adversary.

Question 6

How residual risk is calculated

Answer 6

For now it is sufficient to note that risk captures the relationship among threats, asset value, and system effectiveness, and is often shown in this form, R = T x A x VT = threat, a combination of threat definition and like of attack A = assets to be protected V = vulnerability, represented by system effectiveness

Question 7

What are the goals of a vulnerability assessment

Answer 7

The goal of VA is to identify PPS components in the functional areas of detection, delay and response and gather data to estimate their performance against particular threats

Question 8

When the time for assessment is begin

Answer 8

Once an alarm is initiated and reported, it is time for assessment to begin

Question 9

What is the principle of probability theory

Answer 9

It is a principle of probability theory that the larger the number of actual cases or events of the kind that includes the predicted event, the greater the agreement between the predicted pattern and the actual pattern of occurence

Question 10

What are the key concepts must be understood before it is possible to design a system that meets the identified goals and objectives

Answer 10

These concepts are
1. System
2. Integration
3. System approach and
4. Risk Management

Question 11

What is the basis of risk management

Answer 11

Informed decision making is the basis of risk management

Question 12

As a security professional, when you say that the risk is conditional

Answer 12

Where there is no data to support an estimate, another approach is to assume that there will be an attack and then evaluate risk on this basis. In this case, the risk is conditional i.e the condition is that there will be an attack

Question 13

While conducting vulnerability assessment what security systems engineer needs to understand

Answer 13

Security systems engineer needs to understand detection, delay and response technologies and security system integration

Question 14

What are the key measures of effectiveness for the detection function

Answer 14

Key measures of effectiveness for the detection function are

1. the probability of sending adversary action
2. the time required for reporting and assessing the alarm

Question 15

What is the primary job of a vulnerability assessment team

Answer 15

The VA teams primary job is to determine security system effectiveness

Question 16

What is the difference between a system and integration

Answer 16

A system is a collection of products, process, or both, combined to provide a solution to a problem or goal. Integration is the combination of a variety of components (such as people, procedures and technology) to form a system

Question 17

Write down the difference between compliance based VA and performance based VA

Answer 17

Compliance based approaches depend on conformance to specified policies or regulation, the metric for this analysis is the presence of the specified equipment and procedures. Performance bases approaches, on the other hand, actually evaluate how each element of the PPS operates and what it contributes to overall system effectiveness

Question 18

What are the key to the vulnerability assessment

Answer 18

The key to the vulnerability assessment is to thoroughly evaluate the site PPS so that all paths to the assets are equally protected, and to consider what vulnerabilities exist given the defined threats, considering their motivation, tools, competence and knowledge

Question 19

After the residual risk is calculated and then start the process for establishing PPS goals and objectives. The objective included what are the elements

Answer 19

This section described the process for establishing PPS goals and objectives. These objectives include threat definition, asset identification, and establishing acceptable risk levels to facilitate system design or before equipment is purchased.

Question 20

How threat can be defined

Answer 20

Threat is combination of adversary capabilities, equipment, motivation or intent and likelihood of attack

Question 21

What is threat spectrum

Answer 21

Threat spectrum is one of the methods of defining threats to a facility which uses categories or labels to describe the threat characteristics for various levels of threats

Question 22

What do you mean by annualized loss expectancy

Answer 22

Annualized loss expectancy, is the product of the potential loss from an event and the likelihood of the event

Question 23

What do you mean by risk

Answer 23

In general risk refers to the all the adverse outcomes that an organization wishes to avoid and is a function of the probability that such consequences will occur, the in magnitude, and their imminence

Question 24

In risk assessment, that analyst attempts to answers what three questions

Answer 24

1. What can go wrong
2. What is the likelihood that it would go wrong
3. What are the consequences

Question 25

How to determine the baseline risk

Answer 25

System effectiveness, which is a measure of system vulnerability, is combined with threat and asset value to determine the baseline risk

Question 26

What is the difference between false acceptance and false rejection

Answer 26

The false acceptance rate is the rate at which false identities or credentials are allowed entry, while the false rejection rate is the frequency of denying access to authorized personnel.

Question 27

A type of systems approach follows three general steps, what are these steps

Answer 27

Assessment of vulnerability, implementation of countermeasures and evaluation of effectiveness

Question 28

When a site is likely to be more vulnerable

Answer 28

If a sites PPS deviates from the functional integration of detection, delay and response, the site is likely to be more vulnerable

Question 29

How general risk can be reduced

Answer 29

General risk can be reduced in three way
1. preventing an attack by detecting it before it is underway
2. protecting against attack
3. reducing mitigating consequences

Question 30

What are the elements a risk management program should include? What are the approaches of risk management.

Answer 30

Risk management programs should include both risk financing (insurance) and risk control tools. Approaches include avoidance, reduction, spreading, transfer and acceptance

Question 31

What do you mean by system effectivenss

Answer 31

System effectiveness is the ability of the PPS to prevent a successful attack once it has been initiated. Vulnerabilities are PPS weaknesses that can be exploited by adversaries.

Question 32

What are the basis for vulnerability assessment

Answer 32

Verifying systems performance against the defined threats is the basis of vulnerability assessment

Question 33

What can be the most useful information kept by an enterprise to determine probability of occurrence

Answer 33

Accurate historical information about losses or loss events can be among the most useful information kept by an enterprise.

Question 34

A distribution curve based on what elements

Answer 34

A distribution curve based on the number of times various kind of events have occurred among other similar events indicates which events have a high probability of occurring again

Question 35

What are the ways loss impact can be measures? What is the most way to measure loss impact

Answer 35

Loss impact can be measured in a variety of ways. One measure is the effect on employee morale, another is the effect on community relations. The most important measure overall is in dollars

Question 36

Who are generally included in vulnerability assessment team

Answer 36

The team should also include a security systems engineer, response expert, data analyst, operations representatives, and subject matter experts (such as technical writers, locksmiths, explosives personnel, and legal and information systems experts)

Question 37

What is the biggest mistake made when conducting a vulnerability assessment

Answer 37

The biggest mistake made when conducting a vulnerability assessment is to concentrate on individual PPS components and address upgrades only at the level, not at the level of overall system.

Question 38

What is the foundation of a true analysis of the PPS ability to meet its defined objectives

Answer 38

Data collection is essential, as accurate data are the foundation for a true analysis of the PPS ability to meet its defined objectives

Question 39

How effectiveness of delay is measured

Answer 39

Delay effectiveness is measured by the time required by the adversary (after detection) to bypass each delay element

Question 40

How effectiveness of response is measured

Answer 40

Response effectiveness is measured by the time between receipt of a communication of adversary action and the interruption of the adversary action

Question 41

How effectiveness of deployment is measured

Answer 41

Deployments effectiveness is measured in terms of the probability of deployment to the correct location (the adversary location) and the time required doing so

Question 42

What is lumen

Answer 42

The quantity of light emitted by a lamp is measure in lumens

Question 43

How to define lamps efficienty

Answer 43

The energy efficiency of the lighting is know as a lamps efficacy and is measured by the lamps output in lumens divided by the lamps power draw in watts

Question 44

How CCT is measured

Answer 44

Corrected Color Temperature (CCT) is a measure of the warmth of coolness of a light

Question 45

What component make a lamp

Answer 45

The lamp, also know as a light bulb is the manufactured light source that includes the filament or an arc tube, its glass casing, and its electrical connectors

Question 46

What do you mean by illuminance

Answer 46

Illuminance is a the concentration of light over a particular area. Illuminance is measured in lux, representing the number of lumens per square meter or in foot candles (fc). the number of lumens per square foot. One foot candle is equal to 10.76 lux (often approximated to a ratio of 1:10)

Question 47

What types of lights fall under the group of high intensity discharge lamps

Answer 47

In particular the high intensity discharge (HID) family of lamps (metal halide, mercury vapor and high pressure sodium)

Question 48

What do you mean by uniformity

Answer 48

Achieving a uniform distribution of light, particularly outdoors, is expensive. Some variation in light levels is considered acceptable and is measured as uniformity, the ration between the average light level and the minimum light level

Question 49

What is color rendition

Answer 49

The ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object is know an rendition and is measured as a color rendition index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100

Question 50

What is white balance

Answer 50

White balance is the automatic adjustment within a camera for the color temperature of the light source. This parameter can range from 2200 degree K to 7000 degree K

Question 51

What do you understand by luminaire

Answer 51

The luminaire, also know as the fixture, is the complete lighting unit, consisting of the lamp, its holder, and the reflectors and diffuses used to distribute and focus the light.

Question 52

What is the secondary function of Physical Protection System (PPS)

Answer 52

The secondary function of PPS is deterrence

Question 53

What are the factors can be considered in designing deterrence

Answer 53

Certain factors in deterrence which are
1. the perceived likelihood of detection
2. the expected severity of punishment
3. deterrence may same as a first line of defense

Question 54

What are the characteristics of PPS

Answer 54

The characteristics of PPS are
1. protection in depth
2. minimum consequences of component failures
3. balanced protection

Question 55

What is the primary function of PPS

Answer 55

The primary function of PPS is
1. detection
2. delay
3. response

Question 56

How to measure detection performance

Answer 56

Detection performance measure includes

1. Probability of detection
2. Time for communication and assessment
3. Frequency of nuisance alarms

Question 57

What are the considerations to be undertaken in designing balance protection

Answer 57

Consideration to design balanced protection

1. minimum time to penetrate each barrier would be equal
2. minimum probability of detecting penetration should be equal
3. features design need to provide adequate protection against all threats on all possible paths.
4. features also need to maintain balance with other consideration such as costs, safety and structural integrity

Question 58

How the factors of vulnerabilities are exacerbated in a PPS

Answer 58

The factors of vulnerabilities in a PPS design is exacerbated by

1. improper or limited training of operations or maintenance personnel
2. ineffective or non existent procedures

Question 59

What are the elements that the PPS design consideration specifically based

Answer 59

The physical protection system design consideration specifically based on the treat and asset at a site

Question 60

What are the difference between protection in depth and balance protection

Answer 60

In protection in depth an adversary should be required to avoid or defeat a number of protective devices in sequence and an adversary will require a separate and distinct act for moving along the path. Balanced protection means that no matter how an adversary attempts to accomplish the goal, effective elements of the PPS will be encountered

Question 61

How to measure response performance

Answer 61

Response performance measures includes

1. probability of accurate communication to response force
2. time to communicate
3. probability of deployment to adversary location
4. time to deploy
5. response force effectiveness

Question 62

How system effectiveness of PPS can be ensured

Answer 62

The importance of system effectiveness are

1. hardware elements of the system must be installed maintained and operated properly
2. training of personnel in policies, procedures and operation of equipment
3. security safety and operational objectives must be accomplished at all times

Question 63

What are the causes of vulnerabilities in PPS

Answer 63

The causes of vulnerabilities in physical protection system are

1. improper component selection and installation
2. maintenance
3. operations
4. system integration

Question 64

What are the design principles and concepts are used in physical protection system

Answer 64

The design principle and concepts in physical protection system are

1. deterrence (CPTED)
2. detection (sensors, video sub systems and alarm assessment, lighting, alarm communication and display, entry control)
3. delay (barriers)
4. response

Question 65

What are the elements need to be considered in designing PPS based on performance criteria

Answer 65

Considerations on performance criteria which are

1. select elements and procedures according to the contribution they make to overall system performance
2. values may be compared for existing (baseline) system and upgraded systems
3. cost benefit analysis

Question 66

What are the elements an integrated security system consists

Answer 66

Integrated system is consisting of

1. people
2. procedure
3. equipment

Question 67

What are the differences between Type 1 error and Type 2 error in biometric entry control system

Answer 67

A Type 1 error also called a false reject, is the improper rejection of a valid user
A Type 2 error or a false accept is the improper acceptance of an unauthorized person

Question 68

What signature verification can best be used

Answer 68

Are best used in applications where signatures are already used to authorize transactions

Question 69

What is the difference between entry control and access conrol

Answer 69

Entry control refers to the physical equipment used to control the movement of people or material into an area. Access control refers to the process of managing databases or other records and determining the parameters of authorized entry, such as who or what will be granted access, when they may enter, and where access will occur.

Question 70

How the performance of entry control subsystems is measured

Answer 70

The performance measures of entry control subsystems include throughput and error rates

Question 71

What is the difference between coercivity and oersted

Answer 71

The coercivity is defined as the magnetic intensity of an applied field required to change the information. The unit of magnetic intensity used to describe the coercivity is the oersted

Question 72

What are the elements on which the verification of any entry control system are based on

Answer 72

This verification decision is usually based on determining whether the person

1. is carrying a valid credential
2. .know a valid personal identification number
3. possesses the proper unique physical characteristic that matches the person characteristic recorded at enrollment (biometrics, such as fingerprint hand geometry, etc.)

Question 73

When it is relatively easy to duplicate bar code

Answer 73

Unless the bar code is covered with an opaque covering. It is relatively easy to duplicate. This opaque covering is becoming more commonplace as the bar code badge moves into the security credential market

Question 74

What is the name of the common credential used for personnel entry control

Answer 74

The photo identification badge is a common credential used for personnel entry control. But it is not always effective

Question 75

What are the objectives of entry control system

Answer 75

The objectives of an entry control system used for physical protection are as follows

1. to permit only authorized person to enter and exit
2. to detect and prevent the entry or exit of contraband material (weapons, explosives)
3. unauthorized tools. or critical assets
4. to provide information to security personnel to facilitate assessment and response

Question 76

How proximity badges can be classified

Answer 76

Proximity badges can be classified by the method of powering the badge, operating frequency range of the badge, and read only or read/write capability

Question 77

What is the main advantage of smart card

Answer 77

The main advantage of smart card are its large memory and its high degree of resistance to forgery or compromise

Question 78

Why 2% of population cannot be enrolled eye pattern recognition system

Answer 78

Approximately 2% of the population cannot be enrolled due to blindness or other iris damage, extremely dilated eyes, or very dark irises, so they require another method of granting secure access

Question 79

In which places face recognition technology could be used

Answer 79

Face technology does have the appeal of non contact, and the potential to provide face in the crowd identification for identifying know or wanted criminals. This latter application could be useful in casinos, shopping malls, or other places where large crowds gather

Question 80

What are the types of token is used in personnel entry control

Answer 80

Many types of tokens also called credentials are used in personnel entry control. They include the following

1. photo identification badge
2. exchange badge
3. stored image badge
4. coded credential

Question 81

What is throughput

Answer 81

Throughput is a measure of the time it takes for an authorized person or material to successfully pass on entry or exit point

Question 82

Coded credential systems, also called key card systems. Many techniques are available for coding a badge. What are the common techniques exist for coding a badge

Answer 82

The most common techniques include magnetic stripe, Wiegand wire, bar codes, proximity and smart cards

Question 83

While doing explosive detection why bulk techniques should not be used on people

Answer 83

Usually the bulk techniques use ionizing radiation that is not suitable for use on people due to safety considerations

Question 84

The lever lock is inherently susceptible to what

Answer 84

Although the level lock is inherently susceptible to picking, it can be designed to provide a high degree of lock security through resistance to picking.

Question 85

Why making routine duplication of keys of a high security cylinder lock is quite difficult

Answer 85

In both types of high security locks, the keys are specially cut at specific angles, making routine duplication of keys quite difficult, except on special equipment used by the manufacturer

Question 86

While doing package search, which method of search is not safe for use on personnel

Answer 86

In general, active interrogation methods are not safe for use on personnel

Question 87

What is the most widely used method of controlling physical access

Answer 87

The locks is the most widely used method of controlling physical access

Question 88

Which technology is most commonly used for package search

Answer 88

Using backscatter technologies, people can be safely imaged, although X ray technologies are most commonly used for package searches.

Question 89

Write down the functional assemblies of components of a mechanical lock

Answer 89

In such a lock the functional assemblies of components are

1. The bolt or latch that actually hold the movable part (door, window etc.) to the immovable part (jamb, frame etc.)
2. The keeper or strike into which the bold or latch fits. the keeper is not an integral part of the lock mechanism that provides a secure housing for the bolt when in a locked position
3. The tumbler array that constitutes the barrier or labyrinth that must be passed to move the bolt
4. The key or unlocking device which is specifically designed to pass the barrier and operate the bolt.

Question 90

What is the greatest weakness of warded lock

Answer 90

Technologies for standoff detection of explosives are in great demand because of the need to detect explosive devices from a safe distance

Question 91

What are the basic elements of pin tumbler lock

Answer 91

The pin tumbler consists of the same basic elements as all mechanical locks, the bolt moving device, the maze or labyrinth and the keyway

Question 92

What are the elements the locking policy should contain

Answer 92

Require that a systematic approach be taken to the use of locks for security purposes
1. Assign specific responsibility for the development of the lock program
2. Make all persons who will use or have access to keys, locks or access devices or combination information, responsible for compliance with program requirements.

Question 93

What is the serious concern when designing an entry control system

Answer 93

Serious concern when designing an entry control system is the impact of fire codes

Question 94

How maintenance of secure entry control can be achieved while addressing the fire code requirements simultaneously

Answer 94

An additional method of addressing fire code requirements while maintaining secure control includes the use of delayed exit hardware in which the door can be opened only after short period

Question 95

What are the differences between a failsafe lock and fail secure lock

Answer 95

A fail safe locking mechanism is one that will unlock under any failure condition. The failure mode most commonly considered is loss of power but failure of the mechanism itself and any connected control device need to be considered also. A fail secure lock is one that will remain locked when power is lost of another failure occurs

Question 96

Why system testing under normal, abnormal, and malevolent conditions should be performed to verify system performance when selecting a fully integrated locking system

Answer 96

Care must be taken when selecting a fully integrated system to ensure that system AC&D performance is not degraded by the entry control function. This is why system testing under normal, abnormal, and malevolent conditions should be performed to verify system performance.

Question 97

Which type of locks are claimed to be immune from all the typical defeat modes or a regular mechanical combination lock as well as from electrical and magnetic attacks

Answer 97

Wafer tumbler lock claimed to be immune from all the typical defeat modes of a regular mechanical combination lock as well as from electrical and magnetic attacks

Question 98

Electromagnetic lock is fail safe or fail secure

Answer 98

Electromagnetic locks are intrinsically fail safe because removal of power releases the strike plate.

Question 99

What are the major security difficulties are presented by the master key technique

Answer 99

Three major security difficulties are presented by the master keying technique

1. very effective master key accountability must be maintained
2. in any manipulation of the lock additional positions or possibilities are presented for surreptitious unlocking by the creation of multiple shear liens or gate opening
3. for cylinder locks the additional parts required in the lock core create the need for additional maintenance.

Question 100

Where are the electric deadbolt lock typically mounted

Answer 100

The electric deadbolt is the oldest and simplest of all electrical locking devices. A solenoid (electro magnet) moves a deadbolt, typically mounted on a door frame, either into or out of a strike plate on a door. The mechanism can be either fail safe, automatically unlocking on the removal of power, or fail secure, remaining locked on the removal of power.

Question 101

What types of security vulnerabilities exits for mechanical locks

Answer 101

Attack by force surreptitious attack and attack by impression making and try keys

Question 102

Locking systems are coordinate arrays of mutually supportive and complimentary locking elements. They are based upon design plans which consider what are the elements

Answer 102

1. The need for different concurrent levels of security control for locked spaces
2. The likelihood that such levels will change with time. The probability that some or many users will require common access in some spaces and exclusive access in others
3. The possibility that access devices (keys, cards or tokens) may be lost, compromised or damaged and
4. The requirement that there be effective means for adapting the system to planned, as well as unanticipated changes

Question 103

What is the typical application of the electric strike lock

Answer 103

In apartment houses, business offices, commercial installations and occupancies, what type of lock is used? A typical application of the electric strike is to control passage in one or both directions. Such devices have been used for many years in apartment houses, business officers, commercial installations and occupancies in general

Question 104

In the path of egress what type of lock may be used

Answer 104

As noted above, a fail secure lock may be used on a door in the path of egress provided that free egress is available regardless of the state of the locks power or other control mechanisms

Question 105

Why electric latch lock has advantage over the electric deadbolt lock

Answer 105

It has an advantage over the deadbolt because the latch does not need to be withdrawn for the door to close.

Question 106

When PIR sensors are more effective

Answer 106

A PIR is most effective if

1. if the target is forced to cross the detection pattern
2. entering and exiting multiple detection segments

Question 107

Where pyro electric detector is generally used

Answer 107

To protect corridors long pyro electric infrared single segment sensors are used. To protect large open areas multi segment pyro electric sensors are used

Question 108

How microwave sensors can be defeated

Answer 108

The vulnerabilities of microwave sensor include

1. slow moving targets
2. absorption or reflection of microwave energy
3. blockage of the field of view (such as by stacking boxes or moving furniture around in room)
4. motion along the circumstances of the detection pattern

Question 109

Where mono static sensors are generally used

Answer 109

Mono static microwave sensors are often used in the automatic door openers (supermarket, airports etc)

Question 110

When detection level of microwave sensor is optimum and maximum

Answer 110

The detection level of microwave sensor is
1. optimum (when target is moving toward or away from the sensor)
2. maximum (when across the detection zone)

Question 111

How continuity or breaking sensor can be defeated

Answer 111

Continuity or breaking sensor can be defeated through

1.the use of a jumper around a cut or
2. by movement of the wire to allow penetration

Question 112

Where continuity or breaking sensors generally used

Answer 112

Continuity or breaking sensor generally to or enclosed in walls, ceiling or floor to detect penetration

Question 113

Describe the working principles of Hall Effect switch function

Answer 113

Relying on the Hall Effect, devices in the switch unit measure and monitor the magnetic field strength of the magnetic unit. In a Hall Effect switch, if the Hall Effect devices measure enough magnetic field change, an alarm is generated. A Hall Effect switch is harder to tamper and defeat than a BMS

Question 114

Where generally glass break sensors are mounted

Answer 114

Glass break sensors are mounted directly on the glass they are protecting and generate alarm when detect the frequencies associated with break glass (normally above 20 KHz)

Question 115

Ceiling, floors of rooms, and walls and doors can be best protected by which type interior intrusion sensors

Answer 115

Interior areas such as ceiling, floors of rooms and walls and doors can be best protected by boundary penetration intrusion sensor

Question 116

To detect what free standing infrared sensor often installed

Answer 116

Freestanding infrared sensor often installed to detect a human crawling and rolling on the ground across the microwave beam, keeping the body parallel to the beam.

Question 117

As we know exterior sensors are exposed to electrical storms at most site, as a security practitioner what types of precautions needed to be undertaken to reduce lightning damage

Answer 117

Exterior sensors are exposed to electrical storm at most site. The precautions to lightning damage can be

1. signal cables should be shielded, whether by their internal cable construction or by using metal conduit
2. a good ground system is need which requires elimination of ground loops and use of grounds at a single point
3. at the ends of the cables, passive transient suppression devices can be installed

Question 118

What do you mean by sensor access mode

Answer 118

An access mode means the sensor alarms are temporarily masked so that alarms are not display at the alarm monitoring station

Question 119

What is the another name of mono static sensors

Answer 119

Mono static microwave devices can serve as point sensors to provide limited coverage of a pencil or area

Question 120

What is the difference between bypass and spoof

Answer 120

Bypass : any sensor can be defeated by going around its detection volume.
Spoof : is a technique that allows the target to pass through the sensors normal detection zone without generating an alarm.

Question 121

How electric field or capacitance sensors detect an intrudre

Answer 121

Electric field or capacitance sensor

1. active, visible and terrain following
2. detect, a change in capacitive coupling among a set of wire attached to
3. may be triggered by lightning, rain, fence motion and small animals
4. difficult to defeat because the detection volume extends beyond the fence plane

Question 122

How intruder can defeat VMD

Answer 122

Very slow movement through the detection zone can defeat most VMDs

Question 123

The entire volume or a portion of the volume of a room or building can be protected by which type of intrusion detection system

Answer 123

Volumetric intrusion detection sensor can protect the entire volume or a portion of the volume of a room or building

Question 124

Describe working principle of passive infrared sensor

Answer 124

The principle of passive infrared sensors are

1. intruder must through the field of view of detector
2. sensors can detect changes in the background thermal energy by someone moving through the detector field of view and hiding in the energy emanating from objects in the background

Question 125

How shadow zones and incomplete coverage of microwave sensor occur

Answer 125

Shadow zones are incomplete coverage of microwave sensor can be created by metal objects (large bookcases, desk, computer monitor or fencing) in the protected area

Question 126

What are the cause of nuisance alarms of freestanding infrared sensors

Answer 126

While using freestanding infrared sensors, causes of nuisance alarms are

1. vegetaion is higher than 1.2 in (2.5 - 5.0 cm)
2. nearby parallel chain link fence with loose mesh that flexes in the wind
3. heavy blowing snow
4. snow accumulation

Question 127

How sensor can be classified

Answer 127

The method of sensor classification are

1. passive or active
2. covert or visible
3. line of sight or terrain following
4. volumetric or line of detection and
5. application

Question 128

What is recommended to achieve a high probability of detection at all times and under all expected weather conditions

Answer 128

To achieve a high probability of detection (PD) at all times and under all expected weather conditions, it is recommended to use of multiple sensors and to make contingency plan and procedures are needed.

Question 129

How nuisance alarm of fence disturbance sensor can be reduced

Answer 129

Nuisance alarm of fence disturbance sensor can be reduced by using of rigid posts and tight fence fabric

Question 130

What is the difference between bi static and mono static active intrusion sensor

Answer 130

Bi static active intrusion sensor is an active sensor installation, when transmitter and the receiver are installed separately. Mon static active intrusion sensor is an active sensor installation, when transmitter and the receiver are installed together

Question 131

Write down the characteristics of intrusion sensor performance

Answer 131

The characteristics of Intrusion Sensor Performance are

1. probability of detection (PD)
2. nuisance alarm rate
3. vulnerability to defeat

Question 132

How ported coaxial cable sensor is affected

Answer 132

Ported coaxial cable sensor is affected by

1. processor settings
2. orientation of the intruder
3. soil characteristics and
4. the presence of meta

Question 133

What are the determining factors for the performance of buried seismic sensor

Answer 133

For buried seismic sensors the conductivity of the medium is the determining factor. Wet soil generally has good seismic conduction, a characteristics that can lead to nuisance alarms from distant sources of seismic activity. Highly conductive soil reduces the detection volume of the sensor

Question 134

Which types of sensor helps to achieve absolute alarm confirmation and a high probability of detection

Answer 134

Absolute alarm confirmation and a high probability of detection can be achieved by using dual technology sensors

Question 135

What should be the installation procedures of infrared sensor

Answer 135

The installation procedures of infrared sensor are

1. it should be installed away from heat source
2. an infrared detector should not be mounted over or near radiators, heater, hot pipes or other heating elements
3. radiant energy from those can produce thermal gradients and could cause nuisance alarms

Question 136

Passive sensors are likely safer to use in which environment? Why active sensors create fewer nuisance alarms

Answer 136

Passive or active sensors may detect vibration, heat sound or capacitance
Active sensor include microwave, infrared and other radio frequency (RF) devices
Passive sensors is likely safer to use in environment containing explosive vapors or materials
Active sensors have the advantages of creating fewer nuisance alarms because of their stronger signals.

Question 137

What are the disadvantages of microwave sensors

Answer 137

The disadvantages of microware sensor are

1. can detect someone or something moving outside the protected areas or even outside the building
2. requirement for completely rigid mounting
3. susceptibility to pattern drift
4. tendency to reflect off metallic objects
5. need for special consideration in areas with light construction (e.g., glass, plasters, board, wood)

Question 138

Write the defeat method of fence disturbance sensor

Answer 138

Defeat Methods of fence disturbance sensors are

tunneling under the fence
crossing above the fence without touching it.

Question 139

How many electromechanical sensors can be defeated? Where generally this type of sensor installed

Answer 139

Electromechanical sensors are passive, visible. The most common type is a simple switch and generally installed on doors and windows. These units can be defeated easily by placing a strong magnet near the switch unit

Question 140

What do you understand by maturity model

Answer 140

Maturity model is an approach for the decision makers and designers of security systems to select appropriate security technologies which will provide enhanced security within a finite budget

Question 141

What types of sensor is called application based intrusion detection sensor

Answer 141

Application based intrusion detection sensor can be classified as

1. boundary penetration sensor
2. interior motions sensor
3. proximity sensor

Question 142

What are the common sources of nuisance alarms of microwave sensors

Answer 142

Common sources of nuisance alarms of microware sensors are
‘
1. movement of objects (non human) within and outside the detection zone
2. movement of small animals or birds
3. vibration allowed by poor sensors installation and mounting
4. ionized gas is fluorescent lights (60 hz rate of the ionization)

Question 143

What should be importantly done before installing VMD in a facility

Answer 143

Before installing VMD in a facility it is important to perform tests on

1. low profile target such as crawler and faster moving higher profile targets (such as people walking or running)
2. under the lowest contrast lighting condition expected

Question 144

What is the limitation of line detection sensor

Answer 144

Line detection sensors only detect an intruder if he or she violates a particular entry point of a detection zone

Question 145

Who has the greatest opportunity to compromise sensors or the system

Answer 145

Insider among maintenance personnel has the greatest opportunity to compromise sensors or the system.

Question 146

How video motion detectors can be defeated

Answer 146

Video motion detectors can be defeated

1. by taking advantages of poor visibility conditions
2. blending into the background
3. increased sensitivity results in increase in the number of nuisance alarms.

Question 147

How the probability of sensor fence is affected

Answer 147

The probability of detection of sensor fence is affected by

1. tension of the wires.
2. wire friction
3. wire spacing

Question 148

Which type of sensor and intruder can easily identify

Answer 148

Volumetric or line detection sensors

1. a volumetric sensor generates alarms when an intruder enter the detection volume
2. the detection zone is of a line detection sensor is usually easy for an intruder to identify

Question 149

What are the factors that affect the probability of detection of intrusion detection system

Answer 149

The factors affect the probability of detection which are

1. target to be detected
2. sensor hardware design
3. installation conditions
4. sensitivity

Question 150

What is the basic building block of an intrusion detection system

Answer 150

Sensors are the basic building blocks of an intrusion detection system

Question 151

What is the most common measurement of the quality or detail in an analog image

Answer 151

Horizontal resolution

Question 152

What we can refer a camera is megapixel

Answer 152

An imager that is made up of millions of pixel points

Question 153

Based on which ability a lens should be chosed

Answer 153

For its ability to produce the desired identification information

Question 154

When AGC is extremely useful

Answer 154

When the camera swings into an area that is just below minimum light requirement

Question 155

What are the revolutions took place at the advent of digital video technology in relation to analog system

Answer 155

2:1 interlace was dropped, the real time video is no more 30 frames by second and it no longer held to NTSC or PAL standards

Question 156

What lens formats would be suitable for a camera with chip size of 1/4 inch

Answer 156

1/4 inch of larger

Question 157

Define sensitivity, resolution and camera’s feature

Answer 157

Sensitivity :Minimum amount of light required by the camera to produce an image
Resolution : Measure of the camera quality, specifically number of horizontal scan lines or digital pixel arrays
Cameras feature : AGC, electronic shuttering backlight compensation

Question 158

What is the function of electronic iris

Answer 158

It de amplifies the super bright and amplifies the sub blacks, creating an equal 1Vpp video image

Question 159

It is common to use different models within the same system. However what is important to verify when using cameras that were produced by different manufacturers within the same system

Answer 159

Need to verify compatibility of language and format

Question 160

What is the function of electronic shuttering

Answer 160

To compensate for light changes without the use of automatic or manual iris lenses

Question 161

What are the factors should be considered while determining the lens for a camera

Answer 161

Camera format, distance from the camera to the scene, and field of view.

Question 162

When auto iris lens installed properly what it ensures

Answer 162

The video image remains at an average of one volt peak to peak (vpp) under optimal lighting conditions and as the video signal increases or decreases, the auto iris lens closes or open in direct proportion

Question 163

What is the hardest task for a CCTV camera

Answer 163

To view a subject in front of a bright background

Question 164

What is the common tool for controlling the brightness of an image focused onto a chip

Answer 164

Auto iris lens

Question 165

What is the difference between NTSC and PAL

Answer 165

NTSC is 60 fields per second and 525 vertical lines
PAL 50 and 625

Question 166

How is camera sensitivity expressed

Answer 166

Full light
Lower light
Low light

Question 167

What is the function of automatic gain control (AGC)

Answer 167

To maintain the video signal at a specific level

Question 168

In NTC the viewer sees 30 complete frames each second and all analog CCTC monitors and cameras employ a 2:1 interlace pattern. How many completed frames each person can see while viewing PAL

Answer 168

Usually 25 frames per second

Question 169

What is the term given in dividing the CCTV image into a grid, and imposing different activation parameters on each grid

Answer 169

Masking

Question 170

When most often phasing and sequencing problems arise

Answer 170

When cameras from different manufacturers are used on one system

Question 171

The camera should be chosen before what

Answer 171

Lens

Question 172

Why good video system is often waylaid

Answer 172

By expecting too much from a single unit or installing fewer cameras than are actually needed

Question 173

What basically determines the amount and type of image will ultimately appear on the monitor

Answer 173

Lenses

Question 174

When tunnel vision results occure

Answer 174

If the lens format size is too small the lens will not fill the imager with a picture

Question 175

In your own way, explain what are the differences between subject, action and scene idenfitication

Answer 175

Subject identification is the ability to identify something or someone within the scene beyond a shadow of the doubt where action identification captures of what happens and scene identification recognizes a situation and its localization

Question 176

If a camera will be mounted on the side of a building, 40 ft from the ground and the center of the scene is 30 ft from the building, what is the distance from the camera to the scene

Answer 176

Explain using the Pythagorean formula. Using Pythagorean theorem which states that A2=B2+C2 where B=40 ft and C=30 Ft, A2=[40x40] + [30x30] = 16000 + 900 = 2500 Sq Ft. A=50ft

Question 177

In your own words explain the difference between AC/EC (video) or DC/LC lenses. (you may have to cross reference with other sources as the POA is a little confusing in this area)

Answer 177

AC/EC (video) : Uses the antiquated auto iris lens design. Auto iris increase cost of lens used for older cameras
DC/LC (lens) : Has no electronics into for the auto iris control but rather depends on the camera to supply it with the necessary positive or negative motor voltages to operate the iris, absence of auto iris reduced cost and enhance efficiency, currently in vogue

Question 178

What basically determine the appropriate focal length for the lens

Answer 178

The field of view (height or width of the area being viewed)

Question 179

For what reason you might use varifocal lens

Answer 179

Sometimes it is difficult to determine the exact field of view that a camera/lens match will produce. Other times there may be no standard fixed focal length lens available to get the desired field of view. A varifocal lens is a smaller version of a manual zoom lens that allows the installer to make fine adjustment on site to get the exact field of view. It also means that the installer has to carry around a smaller selection of lenses.

Question 180

If required view is a narrow area at long distance which can be compared to a telescope, as it enables the user to look at objects far away as they are close. Long range considered anything over 50 ft (15.25 m). It is which type of lens

Answer 180

Telephoto Lens

Question 181

It is important to note, that the more area the camera views, the less details it picks up. In that case by using which type of technology larger area of view may be obtained without losing the required details of image

Answer 181

Working with megapixel technology

Question 182

How varifocal lenses differ from zoom lenses

Answer 182

They do not cover a full range from wide angle to telephoto but only a slight range on either side of a fixed local length standard lens. They do not have a tracking mechanism and must be refocused each time their range is changed.

Question 183

An auto iris lens use a motor to open or close the iris. The need for more or less light is determined automatically by what

Answer 183

By the video sampling circuit in the lens or camera

Question 184

The final size of the image determined by what

Answer 184

By the focal length of the lens

Question 185

The selection of lens depends on what

Answer 185

The selection mainly depends on the size of the scene and the degree of visual identification required

Question 186

What is the effective and fastest growing compression standard in the digital imaging market

Answer 186

H264

Question 187

Regardless of the type of camera for transmitting the video signal from the camera to the monitor at distance of 1000 ft (305m) or more, which type of cable best to use

Answer 187

Fiber optic cable

Question 188

What is the primary difference between a standard lens and megapixel lens

Answer 188

Megapixel lens is considered to be much higher quality lens

Question 189

For an average scene at medium distance, a standard lens is needed. If you were sing a 1/3 inch lens with a 1/3 inch chip. what would be the focal length of the lends (measured in mm)

Answer 189

8.333 mm rounded down to 8 mm

Question 190

The field of view is the final size of the viewing area as measured in width and height. analog systems create rectangular images that are four parts wide by three parts high (4*3). If the range is 12ft and then what must be height of the image

Answer 190

9ft

Question 191

How IP cameras measure their resolution

Answer 191

As a multiple of the Common Intermediate Format (CIF), which is solution of 350*240. This means 352 pixels on a horizontal basis with 240 pixels on a vertical

Question 192

What do you mean by 4 CIF

Answer 192

4 CIF means the user will have twice as many horizontal and twice as many vertical pixels to a single image or 707*480

Question 193

After choosing a camera, what is the second most important decision of the video subsystem project

Answer 193

Choosing a lens

Question 194

What is the primary factor in determining the resolution of an image

Answer 194

By the camera

Question 195

The resolution of image can be determined by what

Answer 195

By the camera, by the transmission method, by the weakest link in the video system interface, by the reproduction capability of the image storage system.

Question 196

How a digital image can be made smaller in both bandwidth and storage requirements

Answer 196

Through compression algorithms

Question 197

Which type of camera work well in all indoor applications

Answer 197

Standard analog CCD cameras

Question 198

What is basically IP camera

Answer 198

An IP camera is an IP addressable internet protocol digital camera, in effect a true digital camera that leverages the advantages of building a CCTV system around IT architecture. It can typically transmit also in analog format. It is a smart camera that performs multi functions such as digital video motion detection, facial recognition, privacy blocking and more.

Question 199

If the video information is to be used in the courtroom, its admissibility may be determined by what

Answer 199

Quality of the recorded information, the way it was obtained, proof of originality, number of images per second/per camera that are best for the situation.

Question 200

Where manufacturers equipment documentation should be preserved

Answer 200

At the using site as well as at a central document storage location

Question 201

What are the parameters determine the effectiveness of a video assessment subsystem

Answer 201

1. Minimum time between sensor alarm and video display to complete video coverage of the detection zone
2. Ability to classify a 1ft target at the far edge of the assessment zone
3. Vertical field of view at the far edge of exterior detection zone to account for the height of a fence and a person climbing on top of it
4. Continuous operation, 24/7
5. Minimal sensitivity to environmental conditions of minimal obstruction of the assessment zone
6. Camera field of view and video recording system integration that display the alarm source to an operator

Question 202

Camera selection primarily based on what

Answer 202

Sensitivity required for a full video output signal in the lighting environment in the area to be assessed

Question 203

What is the important consideration in the camera selection process

Answer 203

Camera format

Question 204

What affect the field of view, which dictates the number of lenses available in a variety of focal lengths

Answer 204

Camera format size

Question 205

To support resting of video subsystem test targets can be used to verify video image quality. What should be geometric shapes of the target

Answer 205

That included a 1ft (0.3 m) diameter circle, a 1ft, square, and a 1ft high triangle

Question 206

What is the use of simple method of checking for camera resolution

Answer 206

To use appropriately sized targets in the assessment zones and verify that they can be classified

Question 207

What is test bench

Answer 207

Camera performance can also be verified in a laboratory using a test bench. This allows measurement of resolution, focus and sensitivity and can be more cost effective than performing testing.

Question 208

BSK-W Solutions

Answer 208

Provide support to CPP, through systematic mentoring with help of Question Bank, Flashcards and Important notes

Question 209

When it can be considered that a safe within a safe passes the test

Answer 209

The safe passe the test if the information loss after the fire does not exceed 1 percent

Question 210

What can downfall the best designed vaults

Answer 210

Inadequate policies and procedures for opening and closing vaults are often the downfall of even the best designed vaults

Question 211

How the fire and impact endurance test is carried out the safe within a safe

Answer 211

In the fire endurance test, the container is loaded with recorded tapes, discs, and microfilm. Two temperature limits are employed, 150 deg F (66 deg C) for magnetic tape and microfilm, and 125 deg F (52 deg C) for diskettes. The container is placed in a test furnace that starts with an interior temperature of 70 deg F (21 deg C). During the cooling cycle, the interior temperature and relative humidity are recorded until a temperature of 120 deg F(49 deg C) is reached. A second unit is also subjected to the fire impact test - a 30 ft (9 m) drop after heating

Question 212

BSK W What is lifeblood of every organization

Answer 212

Records are the lifeblood of every organization

Question 213

Where more often wire glass is used

Answer 213

Wire glass is used often in fire doors and fire windows

Question 214

What is the time to penetrate most unenhanced windows with and tools

Answer 214

Most unenhanced windows can be penetrated with hand tools in less than 30 seconds

Question 215

How to upgrade a panic bar equipped door

Answer 215

One way to upgrade the panic bar equipped door is to install a bent metal plate with a drill resistant steel sections fastened to it.

Question 216

How the penetration resistance of windows and utility ports may be increased

Answer 216

The penetration resistance of windows and utility ports may be increased with grilles, a bards, expanded metal mesh or screens

Question 217

Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing contains a tough core of polycarbonate between two layers of a glass. Where can glazing be used?

Answer 217

Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing contains a tough core or polycarbonate between two layers of glass. The glazing was developed for use in prisons.

Question 218

How to define laminate glass

Answer 218

Laminated glass is made of two or more panes of annealed float, sheet or place glass bonded to a layer or layers of plastic

Question 219

What is the optimum distance between the roof and secondary barrier

Answer 219

The optimum distance between the roof and the secondary barrier is 10 to 12 in (254 mm to 305 mm)

Question 220

Where dispensable barriers are usually deployed

Answer 220

Dispensable barriers are usually deployed very near the assets being protected.

Question 221

Which type of safe is not burglary resistant

Answer 221

A safe on wheels is not burglary resistant

Question 222

By which organization a labelling service has been established to define the level of protection each safe can be expected to provide

Answer 222

A labelling service has been established by Underwriters Laboratories Inc (UL) to define the level of protection each safe can be expected to provide

Question 223

What can be best path of an adversary to achieve forcible entry

Answer 223

In fact as wall may be an adversary’s path for forcible entry

Question 224

When are picking tools and pipe wrench is used by a penetrator to open a lock

Answer 224

Picking tools work only if a keyway is available and a pipe wrench works only on exposed locking hardware

Question 225

What is the average picking time for a skilled locksmith to pick a lock

Answer 225

The packing time depends on the type and condition of the lock but averages about one minute for a skilled locksmith.

Question 226

Why light gauge vertical reinforcement channels are sometimes used inside hollow core doors

Answer 226

Light gauge vertical reinforcement channels are sometimes used inside hollow core doors to add strength and rigidity.

Question 227

What are the elements that the delay provided by barriers greatly depends

Answer 227

The delay they provide depends greatly on the adversary’s tools and techniques

Question 228

How the tasks of adversary can be made complicated

Answer 228

Delay in depth is analogous to protection in depth for detection systems. Placing several layers of varying barrier types along all possible path the adversary could take complicates the adversary task

Question 229

How to determine the barriers ultimate value

Answer 229

The weakest portion of a barrier determines the barriers ultimate value

Question 230

When a barrier is considered to be penetrated

Answer 230

A barrier is considered penetrated when a person passed through, over, under or around it

Question 231

What is the first step in upgrading a facility’s resistance to penetration

Answer 231

Eliminated unnecessary door is the first step in upgrading a facility’s resistance to penetration

Question 232

The penetration time depend on what? What types of attach tool can be used to penetrate a barrier

Answer 232

Barrier penetration time depends in part on the method of attack, including the necessary equipment. Attack tools considered in this chapter are

1. Hand tools
2. Power hand tools
3. Abrasive water jets
4. Vehicles

Question 233

How response time can be shortened

Answer 233

Response time can be shortened by minimizing the time needed to assess the situation

Question 234

On what element the selection and placement of barriers depends

Answer 234

The selection and placement of barriers depends on the adversarys objective

Question 235

What is the disadvantage of using rolls of barbed tapes

Answer 235

Rolls of barbed tape tend to obscure CCTV views in the clear zone, thereby increasing assessment time

Question 236

What concepts eyes on the street speaks about

Answer 236

Urban planner, Jane Jacobs developed concepts about eyes on the street, and proper land use to the creation of defensible space theory

Question 237

How defensible space can be designed

Answer 237

Defensible space design link territoriality and surveillance by created design that leads people

1. to consider the area as being within their sphere of influence
2. a place where they have a responsibility to prevent crime.

Question 238

According to the CPTED approach, when a design can be considered proper

Answer 238

In the CPTED approach, a design is proper if

1. it recognized the designated use of the space
2. defines the crime problem incidental
3. defines the solution to problem compatible with the designated use
4. incorporates the crime prevention strategies that enhance the effective use of the space

Question 239

What do you understand by Capacity Threshold Theory

Answer 239

Capacity Threshold theory is also known as tipping point theory. This strategy balance land uses and urban. For example

1. too many abandoned properties can tip an area into crime
2. whereas balance of legitimate commercial properties can enhance livability

Question 240

According to the CPTED approach, when a design can be considered proper

Answer 240

In the CPTED approach, a design is proper if

1. it recognizes the designated use of the space
2. defines the crime problem incidental
3. defines the solution to problem compatible with the designated use
4. incorporates the crime prevention strategies that enhance the effective use of the space

Question 241

How CPTED strategies can be implemented

Answer 241

CPTED strategies can be implemented through

1. organized method (staffing)
2. mechanical methods (technology products)
3. natural methods (site planning, design, landscaping and signage)

Question 242

What is the most vulnerable asset to be protected

Answer 242

People are the most vulnerable asset to be protected

Question 243

What approaches are adopted in situational crime prevention

Answer 243

Approaches to situational crime prevention are

1. increasing the effort
2. increasing the risks
3. reducing anticipated rewards
4. removing excuses

Question 244

What are the purposes of security zoning

Answer 244

Purposes of security zoning are

1. to allow employees, visitors, vendors and other to reach their destination
2. to prevent them from entering areas whereas they have no business

Question 245

Define natural access control, natural surveillance and natural territorial reinforcement

Answer 245

Natural access control means the idea is to employ both real and symbolic barriers including doors, fences and bushes to define and limit access to a building or other space. Natural surveillance means increasing visibility by occupants and casual observers increases the detection of trespassers or misconduct at a facility, Natural Territorial reinforcement means this is the process of establishing a sense of ownership, responsibility and accountability in property owners, managers or occupants to increase vigilance in identifying tress passers.

Question 246

Basing on what categories architects and engineers are called to implement security measures

Answer 246

The standards call on architects and engineers to implement security measures in four different categories which are

1. perimeter and exterior security
2. entry security
3. interior security
4. security planning

Question 247

To apply CPTED what needs to be understood

Answer 247

Applying CPTED requires an understanding of basis crime prevention theory practice

Question 248

What do you understand by crime prevention assumptions

Answer 248

Crime prevention assumption emphasis must be given to the environment of the potential victim rather than that of the potential criminal, crime prevention is practical, not moralistic, reducing criminal motivation by reducing opportunities to commit crime and crime prevention strategies should focus on the act not the perpetrator.

Question 249

According to the CPTED theory what do you mean by natural measures

Answer 249

Natural measures include such as

1. good space planning
2. well defined building entrance
3. arranging courtyards, patios and porches for unobstructed lines of sight
4. provide specific guidance for the use of space
5. provide architectural landscaping
6. enhance visibility actions

Question 250

What are the strategies included in situational crime prevention approaches

Answer 250

Situational crime prevention includes strategies

1. to reduce crime motives and opportunities
2. simulating the conscience of potential offenders

Question 251

When likelihood of crime increase

Answer 251

The likelihood of crime increase when a potential criminal feels that

1. the chances of detection and identification are low
2. the chances of escape are high

Question 252

Write down the components of Newmans study

Answer 252

The four components of Newman’s study were to

1. define perceived zones of territorial influence
2. provide surveillance opportunities for residents and their guests
3. place residential structures close to safe areas
4. design sites and buildings to these occupants are not perceived as stigmatized or vulnerable

Question 253

According to the exploration of Newman, by implementing what are the elements crimes can be reduced

Answer 253

Newman explored human territoriality, natural surveillance and the modification of existing structures to reduce crime

Question 254

What are the components in 3 D concepts

Answer 254

CPTED strategy is also now as 3 D concepts which are

defined
designated
designed

Question 255

What is the ultimate purpose of CPTED

Answer 255

To reduce crime opportunity and fear of crime

Question 256

What is important to choose first for the right physical security measures and apply them appropriately?

Answer 256

To choose the right physical security measures and apply them appropriately, it is important to first conduct a risk assessment

Question 257

CPTED relies on what?

Answer 257

Crime prevention design solutions should be integrated into the design and function of the buildings, or at least the location where they are being implemented. CPTED relies on an awareness of how people use space for legitimate and illegitimate purpose

Question 258

What is building envelope and what it serve?

Answer 258

Building envelope: The separation between the interior and the exterior environments of a building. It serves as the outer shell to protect the indoor environment as well as to facilitate its climate control.

Question 259

What is risk assessment?

Answer 259

The process of assessing security‐related risks from internal and external threats‐to an entity, its assets, or personnel

Question 260

What is risk management

Answer 260

A business discipline consisting of three major functions: loss prevention, loss control and loss indemnificatory

Question 261

What routine activity theory suggests

Answer 261

Routinely activity theory suggests that a suitable guardian will prevent criminal activity from occurring. Criminals will generally avoid targets or victims when police, security, door staff, neighbors or others are in position to observe and react

Question 262

What is CCT rating

Answer 262

Corrected Colour Temperature (CCT) is a measure of the warmth or coolness of a light. It is measured in degrees Kelvin which is the Centigrade (Celsius) absolute temperature scale where 0OK is approximately 272OC

Question 263

What is security survey

Answer 263

A thorough physical examination of a facility and its systems and procedures, conducted to assess the current level of security, locate deficiencies and gauge of protection needed

Question 264

What is stand‐off distance or set back

Answer 264

Stand‐off distance/ set back: The distance between the asset and the threat, typically regarding an explosive threat.

Question 265

What is tailgating

Answer 265

To follow closely. In access control, the attempt by more than one individual to enter a controlled area by immediately follows an individual with proper access. Also called piggybacking.

Question 266

When a space will naturally have less opportunity for criminal activity

Answer 266

Natural or Architectural measures Designing of space to ensure the overall environment works more effectively for the intended users; while at the same time deterring crime. A space will naturally have less opportunity for criminal activity when it is effectively used. Poor layout reduces the ability of intended users to apply appropriate measures.

Question 267

Explain progressive collapse

Answer 267

Progressive collapse: Occurs when the failure of a primary structural element results in the failure of adjoining structural elements, which in turn causes further structural failure. The resulting damage progresses to other parts of the structure, resulting in a partial or total collapse of the building.

Question 268

What is risk

Answer 268

The likelihood of loss resulting from a threat, security incident, or event

Question 269

What is threat

Answer 269

An action or event that could result in a loss; an indication that such an action or event might take place.

Question 270

What is throughput

Answer 270

The average rate of flow of people or vehicles through an access point

Question 271

What is token

Answer 271

An electronically encoded device (i.e. a card, key‐fob, etc.) that contains information being read by electronic devices placed within or at the entry and exit points of a protected facility.

Question 272

Based on CPTED, explain organizational measures

Answer 272

Focus on policies activities that encourage observation, reporting and where appropriate intervention this would include education for individuals and groups of strategies they can take to protect themselves and the space they occupy. It would also entail routine patrol and enforcement by security, law enforcement or others.

Question 273

Explain natural territorial reinforcement boundary definition

Answer 273

Natural territorial reinforcement boundary definition: Establishing a sense of ownership by facility owners or building occupants to define territory to potential aggressors and to assist legitimate occupants or users to increase vigilance in identifying who belongs on the property and who does not. The theory holds that people will pay more attention to and defend a particular space or territory from trespass if they feel a form of “psychological ownership” in the area. Thus, it is possible‐through real or symbolic markers‐to encourage tenants or employees to defend property from incursion

Question 274

Wooden fences are used for(a)……………………..Wooden fence’s effectiveness can be enhanced by adding(b)………………………… When utilizing a wood and fence to delay entry, the vertical picket sections must be (c)……………………. and the horizontal sections should be (d),…………………….. located on the(e)………………………..

Answer 274

(a) low‐security applications,
(b) barbed wire, razor wire, or metal spikes,
(c) no wider than 1‐3/4 inches,
(d) 50 inches apart
(e) protected side of the building.

Question 275

The width of the clear zone depends on what? When exception can be made in relation to the clear zone

Answer 275

Wherever possible and practical, a clear zone should separate a perimeter barrier from structures inside the protected area. The width of the clear zone will depend upon the threat that is being protected against. An exception can be made when a building wall constitutes part of the perimeter barrier

Question 276

Explain four design features of chain‐link fence

Answer 276

1‐Height: The higher the barrier, the more difficult and time‐ consuming it is to breach. For low security requirements, a 5‐6 ft. (1.5‐1.8 meter) fence may be sufficient; for medium security, a 7 ft. (2.1meter) fence may be appropriate; and for high security (such as a prison), an 18‐20 ft. (5.4‐6.0 meter) fence maybe required,
2-Barbed wire: Barbed wires vary in gauge, coating weight, number of barbs, and spacing of barbs. If chain link or expanded metal fences are intended to discourage human trespassing, barbed wire should be installed atop the fence on an outward facing top guard at a45 degree angle,
3‐Bottom rail: Properly anchored, this prevents an intruder from forcing the mesh up to crawl under it,
4‐ Top rail: A horizontal member of a fence top to which fabric is attached with ties or clips at intervals not exceeding two feet. A top rail generally improves the appearance of a fence, but it also offers a handhold to those installed.

Question 277

What broken windows theory speaks about

Answer 277

The “broken windows” theory suggests that an abandoned building or car can remain Unmolested indefinitely, but once the first window is broken, the building or car is quickly vandalized. Maintenance of building and its physical elements (such as lighting, landscaping, paint, signage, fencing and walkways) is critical for defining territoriality

Question 278

In relation to chain‐link fence what prevents an intruder from forcing the mesh up?

Answer 278

Burying / Mow strip: Burying or installing a mow strip (concrete), in addition to a chain‐ link fabric 1 ft. (0.3 meters) or more, prevents an intruder from forcing the mesh up.

Question 279

What fence or wall can do?

Answer 279

Fence or wall can do the following:
1‐Give notice of the legal boundary of the premises,
2-Help channel entry through a secured area by deterring entry elsewhere along the boundary,
3‐Provide a zone for installing intrusion detection equipment and video surveillance system,
4‐Deter casual intruders from penetrating a secured area,
5‐’Force an intruder to demonstrate his or her intent to enter the property,
6‐ Cause a delay in access, thereby increasing the possibility of detection,
7‐Create a psychological deterrent,
8‐ Reduce the number of security officers required,
9‐Demonstrate a facility’s concern for security

Question 280

Explain the concept of compartmentalization

Answer 280

One of the basic CPTED strategies is to design multiple or concentric layers of security measures so that highly protected assets are behind multiple barriers. Layers of security strategies or elements start from the outer perimeter and move inward to the area of the building with the greatest need for protection. Each layer is designed to delay an attacker as much as possible. This strategy is also known as protection‐in‐depth (Fay, 1993, p672). If properly planned, the delay should either discourage a penetration or assist in controlling it by providing time for an adequate response

Question 281

Explain double fencing

Answer 281

An additional line of security fencing a minimum of10 ft. to 20 ft. (3 meters to 6 meters) inside the perimeter fence creates a controlled area and room for sensors or a perimeter patrol road between the fences

Question 282

Where welded wire fabric is generally used

Answer 282

Welded wire fabric, which is cheaper than expanded metal, is generally used for lower risk applications.

Question 283

What affects the amount of protection required

Answer 283

The value of an asset being protected affects the amount of protection required.

Question 284

Which strategy should be used while selecting physical barriers and the barriers designed to address the specific threats?

Answer 284

A threat basis design strategy should be used when selecting physical barriers and the barriers designed to address the specific threats.

Question 285

What is the most common perimeter barrier

Answer 285

The most common perimeter barriers are fencing and walls. However, fences and walls usually only deter or delay entry‐they do not prevent it entirely

Question 286

Against what Chain‐link fence effective

Answer 286

Chain‐link fences are quick to install, can be effective against pedestrian trespassers and animals and provide visibility to both sides of the fence.

Question 287

By using which types of tools chain‐link fence can be breached easily?

Answer 287

Chain‐link fence fabric is made from steel or aluminum wire (which may be coated), which is wound and interwoven to provide a continuous mesh. It can be breached easily with a blanket, wire cutter, or bolt cutter.

Question 288

What types of protection window film can provide

Answer 288

Window film can be designed, tested, and applied to:
1‐Provide varying degrees of protection from intrusion or “smash and grab”. It can generally be defeated with repeated attacks,
2‐Reduce injury from projectile shards of glass in case of an explosion or blast force,
3‐Reduceinjury form projectile penetration in case of extreme weather (i.e., hurricane or tornado

Question 289

Electric security fences consist of (a)……………… supported by posts fitted with insulators. These fences can be (b) ………………for wall top security, or (c) ………….. for high security sites. Most industrial applications are 8ft (2.4m) high with (d) ………

Answer 289

a) a close wire grid,
(b) simple 5 wire systems,
(c) multi‐zoned systems with up to 50 wires,
(d) 20 wires and are fitted to the inside of the chain link perimeter fence.

Question 290

What is the difference between deterrent fence and monitored fence

Answer 290

Electric security fences come in two forms:
1) the all live wire “deterrent” fence that relies on the human fear of electric shock; or more commonly
2) the “monitored” fence, where in addition to the fear factor, the fence will detect cutting or climbing of the wires and trigger an alarm. Monitored fences are usually integrated with intruder alarm or access control systems and‐increasingly‐with surveillance cameras

Question 291

Most building intrusions are effected through what.

Answer 291

Most building intrusions are effected through doors and windows

Question 292

Annealed or plate glass has been manufactured to control (a) ……………. such that it can be subjected to fabrication. Regular plate, float, sheet, rolled, and some patterned surface glasses are examples of (b)…………………… Annealed glass breaks into large shards that can cause (c)…………………..and building codes may restrict its use in places where (d) ……………………………………….such as door panels and fire exits.

Answer 292

(a) residual stresses
(b) annealed glass.
(c) serious injury,
(d) there is a high risk of breakage and injury

Question 293

What types of measures can be taken to strengthen the doors

Answer 293

Measures can be taken to strengthen the doors by adding steel plate for reinforcement anchoring frames, and adding kick plates, using set screws in hinges or spot welding hinges.

Question 294

(a) ……………. is composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to a middle layer or layers of plastic sheeting material. When laminated glass is stressed or struck, it may crack and break but the pieces of glass tend to adhere to the plastic materials. It is also the preferred glass type (b) …………………………. It will aid in the protection of building occupants from (c) …………………………………. in the event of an explosion.

Answer 294

(a) Laminated glass,
(b) for mitigating blast forces,
(c) glass shattering

Question 295

(a)……………….. or burglar resistant provides stronger resistance to attack. It is laminated and consists of multiple plies of glass, polycarbonate, and other plastic films to provide (b) ……………………

Answer 295

(a) Bullet‐resistant
(b) many levels of ballistic resistance

Question 296

Describe working principle of credential‐operated locks

Answer 296

Credential‐operated locks rely on a unique card or other device being presented to a card reader at a location where the access is being controlled. The system electronically checks the information (including the identification of the cardholder and the time period when access is permitted) on the card and compares it with the information already entry or denies access.

Question 297

What are the key factors to be considered in hardening a facility

Answer 297

Key factors in hardening a facility include:
1‐ stand‐off distance,
2‐structural integrity of the premises against attack,
3‐ prevention of progressive collapse,
4‐ redundancy of operating systems.

Question 298

………………………. , a single key operates a series of mechanical locks, and each of those locks is also operated with another key specific to that lock. Since the compromise of a master key can compromise an entire facility, the use of any master key must be strictly controlled.

Answer 298

In a master key system

Question 299

What type of curtains provides protection from flying materials in an explosion?

Answer 299

Blast curtains are made of reinforced fabrics that provide protection from flying materials in an explosion.

Question 300

What are the measures needed to consider to decide whom to let into a facility and whom to keep out, it is necessary to?

Answer 300

Measures such as:

1‐Tokens or other items in the person’s possession(such as a metal key; a proximity, insertion, or swipe card or a photo identification card),
2‐Private information known by the individual (such as a password or personal identification number,
3‐ Biometric features of the person (such as fingerprint, hand geometry, iris and retinal patterns, signatures or speech patterns)

Question 301

What types of attack an adversary might adopt to defeat an access control point?

Answer 301

An adversary may use several types of attacks to defeat an access control point:
1‐Deceit: employee to permit entry,
2‐ Direct physical attack: The adversary uses tools to force entry into an area,
3‐Technicalattack: The adversary forges a credential, guesses a personal identification number, or obtains another person’s credential.

Question 302

Typically what are the purposes of security lighting

Answer 302

Typically, the purposes of security lighting‐discouraging unauthorized entry, protecting employees and visitors on site, and detecting intruders‐are served both outdoor and indoor

Question 303

Electronic access control systems validate (a) ……………………….. which can be in the form of something you know, (b) ……………………… or something you carry. Components of central database, software, supplementary interfaces to external systems, and (d)…………………………………

Answer 303

(a) one or more credentials
(b) something that is inherent to you,
(c) communication cabling distributed processor,
(d) applications for request‐to‐exit devices for applicable doors.

Question 304

How progressive collapse can be prevented?

Answer 304

Prevention of progressive collapse, accomplished by structural design that prevents the loss a primary structural member from causing the further failure of primary structural members beyond the local damage zone.

Question 305

Mechanical locks – such as door locks, cabinet locks and padlock use an arrangement of physical parts to prevent the opening of the bolt or latch. The two major components in most mechanical locks are the……………………………………….

Answer 305

a) architecturally significant
b) mechanical latching otherwise ©with safety codes.

Question 306

Which types of lamps are the least efficient, the most expensive to operate, and have a short life span?

Answer 306

Incandescent lamps are the least efficient, the most expensive to operate, and have a short life span

Question 307

The quality of IDS and its components greatly affects its usefulness. How deficiencies in IDS can harm a security program?

Answer 307

The quality of IDS and its components greatly affects its usefulness. Deficiencies can harm a security program by causing the system to:
1‐Fail to detect an intruder,
2‐Falsely report breaches(nuisance and unintentional) which generate costly and repeated deployment of security or law enforcement and maintenance personnel,
3‐Create excessive false activations so that alarms are ignored or security and law enforcement officers are called unnecessarily. (Many jurisdictions levy fines for excessive numbers of false alarm calls to police,
4‐Provide a false sense of security

Question 308

The right level or intensity of lighting depends on what?

Answer 308

How intensity of lighting can be measured? The right level or intensity of lighting depends on a site’s overall security requirements. Lighting intensity can be measured within instruments in lux and foot‐candles

Question 309

Which light projects a downward circular pattern illumination?

Answer 309

Streetlight

Question 310

Where generally floodlights are used

Answer 310

Floodlight projects a medium to wide beam on a larger area. It is used in a variety of setting including the perimeters of commercial, industrial, and residential areas

Question 311

What are the advantages of dual technology motion detectors?

Answer 311

Dual technology motion detectors are selectable to employ or both micro waves and inferred technologies in a single package. Selecting both technologies reduces the false alarm rate and detection sensitivity

Question 312

Which type of lamps are energy efficient and have a long life span, but poor colour rendition for video surveillance system. They are often applied on streets and parking lots, and their particular quality of light enables people to see more detail at greater distances in fog?

Answer 312

High‐pressure sodium

Question 313

Fresnel: This lighting typically projects a narrow, horizontal beam. Unlike a floodlight, which illuminates a large area, the Fresnel can be used to (a) …………………….. while leaving security personnel concealed. It is often used(b)……………………………

Answer 313

(a) illuminate potential intruders
(b) at the perimeters of industrial sites.

Question 314

Where capacitance devices generally are used

Answer 314

Capacitance devices are often used with various metallic products such as safes and vaults, these devices detect changes in electrical capacitance) low voltage is applied to the protected items. If an object or person approaches or touched the protected item, the voltage (non‐harmful) discharges, altering the capacitance level and causing an alarm

Question 315

Which type of lamps are more efficient than incandescent lamps but are not used extensively outdoors, except for underpasses, tunnels, and signs?

Answer 315

Fluorescent

Question 316

Which type of lamps take several minutes to produce full light output and have poor colour rendition for video surveillance, but they have a long life?

Answer 316

Colour rendition for video surveillance, but they have a long life

Question 317

Which type of lamp used at sport stadium, work well with video surveillance and can provide accurate colour rendition?

Answer 317

Metal halide

Question 318

Which types of lamps have a long life and, similar to fluorescent lamps, are utilized mainly indoors, except for parking structures underpasses, and tunnels?

Answer 318

Induction lamps

Question 319

Name the different types of duress/panic alarms? When these alarms should be used?

Answer 319

Wired switches, person‐down devices, wireless pushbutton transmitters, “Lack of Motion” devices, emergency notification call boxes, etc., are some of the device types which are employed to protect personnel by transmitting assistance alarms. These alarms should be of the highest priority level

Question 320

What should be the functional requirements for a camera?

Answer 320

Different functions require different fields of view. For camera functional requirement one most considers three factors:
1‐ target,
2‐activity,
3‐ purpose

Question 321

What are the functions of network video recorders

Answer 321

A NVR is an internet protocol based device that sits on a network. Because they are IP based, NVR scan be managed remotely via a LAN WAN, GAN, or over the Internet

Question 322

By using which type of lens it is possible to expand or narrow the field of view providing enhanced viewing flexibility?

Answer 322

A motorized vari‐focal lens is used to expand or narrow the field of view providing enhanced viewing flexibility

Question 323

Define time‐lapse (analog) recorder

Answer 323

These recorders are designed to make a two‐hour cassette record up to 900 hours by allowing‐time to lapse between recorded images. Instead of a full 25 frames (FAL) or 30frames (NTSC) of video information being recorded each second, a time‐lapse recorder may capture only a fraction as many frames. The strongest market for the time‐lapse machine is retail, industrial, and long-term surveillance.

Question 324

What is the potential drawback to PTZ camera applications?

Answer 324

A potential drawback to PTZ camera applications is that the camera is out of position, unable to capture an event as it is happening. Most PTZ camera applications are used for assessment or video patrol purpose

Question 325

Coaxial cable is generally sufficient (a)……………. , but it does not work for IP‐based systems (B)………………….

Answer 325

(a) for analog cameras
(b) without media transformer

Question 326

Where intelligent video analytics are used?

Answer 326

Intelligent video analytics can used for the the recognition of certain events and conditions, such as an unattended package or vehicle, or movement by an animal versus a human being

Question 327

When selecting video surveillance system equipment, it is important to use a systems approach as opposed to a components approach. What do you mean by system approach?

Answer 327

Approach as opposed to a components approach. A systems approach examines how equipment will work with other elements of the video surveillance system, with other workplace systems, and with the environment in which it is needed. This approach results in a video surveillance system that operates effectively and satisfies a facility’s needs

Question 328

What are the elements affect the image quality?

Answer 328

Image quality is also affected by excessive shadows (light to dark ratio), lens glare and backlighting

Question 329

What is the fundamental tool to most security officer positions

Answer 329

Keys.
Care should be taken to ensure that all keys are accounted for at the beginning and end of shift. Additionally, proper care should be taken so that damage to keys does not occur

Question 330

What do you mean by frames per seconds

Answer 330

Recorders may discard image frames to save storage space. If too many are discarded – that is, if the system records only one or two frames per second then fast moving action may not be captured or items in the scene may seem simply to appear or disappear.

Question 331

Explain focal length of a lens

Answer 331

The focal length of the lens determines the size (width and height) of the scene viewed measured in millimeters and are characterized as telephoto standard or wide angle Varifocal lenses are often used in applications that require a zoom capability. The lens’s iris, which opens and close to controls the quantity of light that reaches the camera’s sensing element, may be manual or automatic.

Question 332

Name the major types of video surveillance cameras

Answer 332

The major types of video surveillance cameras are:
1‐ analog,
2‐IP (Internet protocol),
3‐ Infrared,
4‐ thermal.

Question 333

What can greatly affect a video surveillance system budget

Answer 333

The availability of power can greatly affect a video surveillance system budget

Question 334

What do you mean by security convergence

Answer 334

It is recognized that many security systems are increasingly being equipped with network connectivity to enable them to share a facility’s network infrastructure. Planning for, implementation, and management of converged security solutions often requires partnerships between physical security, IT security, IT, and other corporate or organizational stakeholders.

Question 335

A concerted effort to address security issues on policy level shows ……………. and that management was aware of such issues and attempted to address them

Answer 335

due‐diligence

Question 336

In a broad sense, (a) ………………. should be considered part of the security program. Through a (b)……………………… employees should be taught to understand the relationship between security and the organization’s success, learn their obligations under the security program, understand how various security measures support security program objectives, and become familiar with available resources to help with security concerns.

Answer 336

(a) every employee
(b) security awareness program

Question 337

What is post orders

Answer 337

Post orders, which are sometimes called standard operating procedures, state the essential elements of security officers’ work assignment

Question 338

What form the basis for corrective action in the event of inappropriate behavior or underperformance

Answer 338

Policies and procedures can also form the basis for corrective action in the event of inappropriate behavior or underperformance.

Question 339

Policies are generally reviewed, approved, and issued (a) ……………………. of an organization. Once established, they tend to remain in place for an extended period. Therefore they should be aligned with the (b)…………………. of the organization.

Answer 339

(a) at the executive level
(b) overall business objectives

Question 340

What are the differences between compliance based vulnerability assessment and performance‐ based vulnerability assessment?

Answer 340

Compliance‐based approaches depend on conformance to specified policies or regulations; the metric for this analysis is the presence of specified equipment and procedures. Performance‐based approaches, on the other hand, evaluate how each element of the PPS operates and what it contributes to overall system effectiveness. The use of compliance‐based (or feature‐based) systems is only effective against low threats, when assets have a low consequence of loss, or when cost‐benefit analyses show that physical protection measures are not the most cost‐effective risk management alternative. A compliance‐based analysis is easier to perform because the measure of system effectiveness is the presence of prescribed PPS equipment, procedures, and people

Question 341

System effectiveness is a result of proper implementation of principles of physical security. What are these principles

Answer 341

System effectiveness is a result of proper implementation of these principles:
1‐Detect an adversary attack while there is still enough time to respond as desired (timely detection).,
2‐ Provide a timely and accurate assessment of alarms to separate valid intrusions from nuisance alarms.
3‐Communicate alarm information to a response force in a timely manner, or record all required information for after‐the‐event response,
4‐ Establish performance measures for each PPS function—detection, delay, and response—for each defined threat category or level.,
5‐ Ensure detection occurs before delay.,
6‐ Delay the adversary long enough for alarm recording and storage or for immediate response to interrupt the adversary,
7‐Use protection‐in‐depth (multiple layers),
8‐Ensure balanced protection.,
9‐Engage and neutralize the adversaries, using force if appropriate,
10‐Conduct path and scenario analyses, and use analysis tools to predict system effectiveness, using interruption alone, or in combination with neutralization, as the overall performance measure.

Question 342

What is the difference between video surveillance and video assessment

Answer 342

The difference between video surveillance and video assessment was also described, the major difference being the use of sensors to trigger an event and the immediate presentation of pre‐and post‐alarm video to a human operator for immediate action

Question 343

What is the best technique to objectively assess security elements and systems?

Answer 343

However, characterizing technology by testing to statistical standards is still the best technique to objectively assess security elements and systems

Question 344

What is required to make the alarm monitoring system as effective as possible?

Answer 344

The alarm monitoring system must communicate sensor activation to a central monitoring point, and then appropriate data is displayed to the operator. Tight integration of technology, human factors, procedures, and training is required to make the alarm monitoring system as effective as possible.

Question 345

When conducting either a qualitative or quantitative performance‐based analysis, the same six‐step process is used. What are these steps?

Answer 345

These are the steps used when conducting either a qualitative or quantitative performance‐based analysis,
(1)‐Create an adversary sequence diagram (ASD) for all asset locations,
(2)‐Conduct a path analysis,
(3)‐ Perform a scenario analysis,
(4)‐Complete a neutralization analysis, if appropriate,
(5)‐Determine system effectiveness,
(6)‐If system effectiveness (or risk) is not acceptable, develop and analyze upgrades.

Question 346

To protect what type of asset, immediate on‐site response is required? When delay response is considered as appropriate?

Answer 346

An immediate on‐site response is required to protect critical assets, while a delayed response may be more appropriate for lower‐value assets.

Question 347

After completion of PPS design, what is the next step?

Answer 347

After a PPS is designed, the next step is to evaluate the design for its effectiveness in meeting protection goals and objectives

Question 348

What are the components of detection subsystem which provide notification of a potential security event?

Answer 348

The components of each detection subsystem combine people, procedures, and technology to provide notification of a potential security event.

Question 349

What could be response strategies?

Answer 349

Response strategies including containment, denial, and occasionally, assault (or force) were described

Question 350

When quantitative analysis of risk assessment is essential?

Answer 350

For assets with unacceptably high consequence of loss, it is necessary to conduct a rigorous quantitative analysis, even if the probability of attack is low.

Question 351

What is the key principle of PPS analysis?

Answer 351

A key principle of analysis is that an initial baseline must first be established; upgrades are then considered if the baseline shows that the PPS does not meet goals and objectives.

Question 352

How to define interruption?

Answer 352

Interruption is defined as arrival of responders at a deployed location to halt adversary progress

Question 353

What do you understand by response storyboard?

Answer 353

Creation of a response storyboard allows the analyst and tactical experts to get a sense of how long it will take for the response force to fully engage with the adversary and what tactics are appropriate at different stages of the attack and response. Often, the response storyboard is used for neutralization analysis and scenario development

Question 354

What is adversary path?

Answer 354

An adversary path is an ordered series of actions against a facility, which, if completed, results in successful theft, sabotage, or other malevolent outcome.

Question 355

Why an adversary sequence diagram is used?

Answer 355

An adversary sequence diagram (ASD) is a functional representation of the PPS at a facility that is used to describe the specific protection elements present.

Question 356

When neutralization analysis can be performed?

Answer 356

After weak paths and suitable attack scenarios have been determined, a neutralization analysis can be performed

Question 357

What are the steps to be followed to conduct a scenario analysis?

Answer 357

The steps to conduct a scenario analysis as follows:
1‐Develop attacks and tactics designed to exploit weak paths. Consider attacks during different facility states using the defined threat and capability,
2‐Modify performance estimates for path elements using these tactics or under these states,
3‐Document the assumptions used and the results of the scenario analysis

Question 358

What features should be considered while upgrading options in PPS

Answer 358

The upgrade options generally consider the interaction of detection, delay, and response features, as well as operational effects, life‐cycle performance‐cost trade‐offs, single‐point failures, reliability, quality, and maintenance of the security system.

Question 359

Why path analysis is carried out

Answer 359

A path analysis determines whether a system has sufficient detection and delay to result in interruption, it is conducted first

Question 360

What are the three basic steps need to be followed in creating an Adversary Sequence Diagram (ASD)?

Answer 360

1‐Describing the facility by separating it into adjacent physical areas,
2‐Defining protection layers and path elements between the adjacent areas,
3‐Recording detection and delay values for each path element

Question 361

Why scenario analysis is required to be conducted

Answer 361

A scenario analysis is conducted to determine whether the system has vulnerabilities that could be exploited by adversaries using varying tactics, resulting in lower effectiveness of the PPS.

Question 362

What is the key point in developing ASDs

Answer 362

A key point in developing ASDs is that one ASD must be created for each asset (target location), unless the assets are co‐located

Question 363

What is the formula to calculate physical protection system effectiveness

Answer 363

In this case, physical protection system effectiveness (PE) is calculated by this formula: PE = PI x PN

Question 364

What is the key objective of path analysis

Answer 364

The key objective of path analysis is to evaluate the PPS at a facility at a high level and determine how well protected all assets are at all times

Question 365

What is the important aspect of scenario analysis

Answer 365

As in path analysis, an important aspect of scenario analysis is consideration of different operating states at the facility or near the asset. There are usually at least two facility states—open and closed.

Question 366

Communications transmitted over copper wire in the telephone network can be intercepted at any point in the circuit. What type of tool can be used for disguising information?

Answer 366

A scrambler is a tool for disguising information so that it is unintelligible to those who are eavesdropping.

Question 367

What are the elements in every communication, security professionals should be concerned with ?

Answer 367

In every communication, security professionals are concerned with the following:
1‐integrity of the communications medium (availability of the message path),
2‐integrity of the message (complete and errorless transmission of the data),
3‐ timeliness of the transmission (data communication within an appropriate time frame),
4‐message security (accessibility of the communication to authorized persons only)

Question 368

Individual signals in the multiplexing process share a common transmission path but must be separated so they do not interfere with each other. What types of methods can be used?

Answer 368

The two methods generally used are
(1) time separation or time division multiplexing (TDM), and
(2) frequency separation or frequency division multiplexing (FDM).

Question 369

What are the characteristics of alarm communication systems that drive the design?

Answer 369

Alarm communication systems have several characteristics that drive the design. These characteristics include the quantity of alarm data, high reliability needed for the system, and speed at which data must be delivered

Question 370

What are the factors should be considered while designing work area for console operator?

Answer 370

Thus, the work area design must consider these factors:
1‐What the operator needs to see: people, equipment, displays, and controls,
2‐What the operator needs to hear: other operators, communications equipment, and warning indicators,
3‐What the operator needs to reach and manipulate: hand or foot controls and communications equipment.

Question 371

What is the overriding design philosophy for AC&D console? What are the rules a designer should follow while designing a console?

Answer 371

The overriding design philosophy is “operator first.” Designers should follow these rules:
1‐The number of actions required to perform a command should be minimized. For a major command, an operator should only have to click the mouse once or depress a single key,
2 Only operations that are valid in the current context should be available,
3‐ The system should guide the operator through complex operations,
4‐ Annunciator systems should not override operations in progress,
5‐Systems should not be annoying and should avoid loud, continuous alarms or bright, flashing displays,
6‐A given command should be performable in several ways. Making commands available,
7‐As menu items, buttons, and keystrokes creates a friendlier system, enabling users to select their preferred methods.

Question 372

What drive alarm reporting speeds

Answer 372

Both human‐factor considerations and interactions between the AC&D and assessment systems drive alarm reporting speeds

Question 373

What is the major advantage of private automatic board exchange (PABX)?

Answer 373

A wireless private automatic board exchange (PABX) uses a low‐power transmitter to communicate with handheld telephones within a limited range. The major advantage is that two‐way communication can be established with an employee whose duties require roaming throughout the facility

Question 374

How the range of the microwave system can be extended? When microwave can be cost‐effect in electronic protection system?

Answer 374

A repeater also can be used to extend the range of the microwave system. Where short distances are involved, microwave can be cost‐effective in electronic protection systems

Question 375

What is multiplexing?

Answer 375

Multiplexing is a technique to transmit several messages simultaneously on the same medium. A multiplex installation can be more cost‐ effective than a loop or point‐to‐point installation, as multiple signals are transmitted over longer distances to a control center.

Question 376

How a measure of security can be added in digital cellular systems

Answer 376

As in digital cellular systems, the signal can be intercepted using a receiver tuned to the transmission frequency. The use of transmission compression technology, such as TDMA, adds a measure of security to the system.

Question 377

While designing the alarm display console (the operator’s console), what are the concerns that needs to be addressed?

Answer 377

The alarm display equipment (the operator’s console) receives information from alarm sensors. Several concerns must be addressed in console design:
1‐what information is shown to the operator,
2‐ how it is presented,
3‐how the operator communicates with the system,
4‐how to arrange the equipment at the operator’s workstation.

Question 378

What are the methods of line security may be taken to ensure where the value of the assets being protected or the information being transmitted is high?

Answer 378

Where the value of the assets being protected or the information being transmitted is high, other methods of line security may be required, such as these:
1‐minimizing the permissible variance in circuit value,
2‐using quasi‐random pulses, which must be recognized by the control equipment,
3‐using shifts in the transmission frequency.

Question 379

What is difference between frequency modulator scramblers and phase modulator scramblers

Answer 379

Frequency modulator scramblers cause the voice spectrum to be inverted and continuously changed in frequency in accordance with a predetermined pattern. Phase modulators operate in a similar manner, but it is the phase rather than the frequency of the voice wave that is changed. These devices are similar to a rolling band splitter but usually have a higher level of security since the pattern can be changed more frequently

Question 380

What is masking

Answer 380

Masking is a technique for modifying the amplitude of the voice by adding another signal into the voice band. This masking signal is removed at the receiving unit to restore the original voice. The mask may be a single tone, a combination of switched tones, or RF noise. This is a very effective technique for destroying some syllabic content of the voice. Used alone, its security is not very good because a clear voice can be read through the mask fairly easily. Used in conjunction with a band splitter or frequency or phase modulator, masking provides a high degree of security.

Question 381

What is the goal of the AC&D subsystem

Answer 381

The subsystem’s goal is to support the rapid evaluation of alarms

Question 382

The control and display subsystem should be designed to serve what

Answer 382

The control and display subsystem should be designed to serve the human operator.

Question 383

How it is possible to create an environment suitable for console operator to work effectively and reduces frustration and fatigue

Answer 383

Ensuring normal temperature, humidity, noise, and general comfort factors creates an environment suitable for operator effectiveness and reduces frustration and fatigue

Question 384

What is band splitter

Answer 384

Band splitters are extensions of the frequency inverter, in which the single speech band is broken up into a number of smaller frequency bands. These bands are inverted and interchanged prior to transmission . A five‐band band splitter theoretically may scramble the frequency bands in exactly 3,080 different ways, of which 90 percent provide no better security than a frequency inverter. A trained listener can obtain a surprising amount of information by listening to the scrambled transmission

Question 385

What can be used to distinguish classes of alarms

Answer 385

Different pitches and volumes can be used to distinguish classes of alarms, such as security, safety, or maintenance

Question 386

Where displays should be installed in the console

Answer 386

Displays are usually installed in the center of the console, with readily identifiable controls placed on, below, or around the displays

Question 387

How it is possible to improve the display of security alarm information

Answer 387

Well‐designed graphical user interfaces (GUIS) can improve the display of security alarm information, and poorly designed GUIs can quickly overwhelm an operator

Question 388

What is the difference between time division multiplexing and frequency division multiplexing?

Answer 388

With TDM, each sensor or data source is assigned a time segment and each may transmit only during its assigned segment. In FDM, signals from a number of sensors on a common transmission line occupy different portions of the frequency spectrum. Even though transmitted simultaneously, their different frequencies keep them individually identifiable at the receiver

Question 389

BSK-W Solutions

Answer 389

Provide support to CPP through overall systematic mentoring with help of Question Bank And Flashcards & important notes

Question 390

Based on what a facility should decide in advance which type of response will be used?

Answer 390

Depending on the needs and objectives of a facility, it is prudent to decide in advance which type of response will be used at the site under various conditions.

Question 391

What is fundamental to the performance of the response function?

Answer 391

Staffing of the response force is fundamental to the performance of the response function

Question 392

What is an important part of a facility’s ability to successfully resolve an incident?

Answer 392

Contingency planning is an important part of a facility’s ability to successfully resolve an incident

Question 393

What is a critical part of the design and analysis process of a PPS

Answer 393

A critical part of the design and analysis process of a PPS is the identification of assets

Question 394

What is a key factor in the interaction between facility personnel and other agencies?

Answer 394

Communication will be a key factor in the interaction between facility personnel and other agencies

Question 395

Depending on what factors the response force of a particular facility decide either prevents

Answer 395

Depending on the threat, consequence of loss of the asset, and the particular facility, the response force must either prevent adversaries from accomplishing their objective or work to recover the asset

Question 396

What helps a facility manager identify potential targets, respond to different threats, interact with outside agencies, and determine what level of force guards can use in various situations?

Answer 396

Prior planning helps a facility manager identify potential targets, respond to different threats, interact with outside agencies, and determine what level of force guards can use in various situations.

Question 397

When it can be considered that a denial strategy expected to be successful?

Answer 397

It should be apparent that for a denial strategy to be successful, the response force must be present at the location and time of the sabotage or attack

Question 398

When containment strategy can be used?

Answer 398

Containment is the strategy used against an adversary with theft as the goal.

Question 399

What may reveal weaknesses in the security protection at a facility and provide an opportunity to improve asset protection?

Answer 399

Abnormal conditions may reveal weaknesses in the security protection at a facility and provide an opportunity to improve asset protection

Question 400

What is the key to effective guard regardless of which type of guard force?

Answer 400

Regardless of which type of guard force is used at a facility, the key to effective guard use is training

Question 401

When a denial strategy may be used

Answer 401

A denial strategy is used when the adversary goal is sabotage or violent attack

Question 402

On what elements interruption depends

Answer 402

Interruption depends on reliable, accurate, fast alarm reporting and assessment, along with reliable communication and effective deployment to the proper location.

Question 403

Based on the adversary goal and the consequence of loss of the asset, different response force strategies will be used. Name the types of strategies are used?

Answer 403

Based on the adversary goal and the consequence of loss of the asset, different response force strategies will be used. These strategies include containment, denial, and occasionally assault

Question 404

What is major part of contingency planning?

Answer 404

Well‐documented procedures should be developed in advance as a major part of contingency planning.

Question 405

What are the primary uses of video surveillance systems

Answer 405

Detection, recording, and assessment

Question 405

Which of the following is NOT one of the systems design processes

Answer 405

Delivery and maintenance

Question 406

Which of the following drawing types are chart-like representations of complete subsystems, such as CCTV or access control?

Answer 406

Riser

Question 407

In general, how much more light do color cameras require than black and white cameras?

Answer 407

Twice as much

Question 408

The quality of assets protection is a direct function of _________ and ____________.

Answer 408

Local training and supervision

Question 409

An entry control subsystem is part of the…

Answer 409

Detection system

Question 410

Of the three main characteristics of intrusion sensor performance, which of the following is NOT one?

Answer 410

False Alarm Rate (FAR)

Question 411

Interior application sensors are divided into three categories. Which of the following is NOT one of these categories?

Answer 411

Perimeter sensing

Question 412

When selecting a video system, use a ________ approach instead of a components approach

Answer 412

System

Question 413

What are the two classes of locks

Answer 413

Mechanical and electromechanical

Question 414

Which of the following is NOT one of the biggest causes of vulnerabilities in a Physical Protection System (PPS)?

Answer 414

Improper repair

Question 415

An effective PPS combines the following into an integrated system

Answer 415

People, technology, and procedures

Question 416

CPTED is the design or redesign of a venue to reduce crime opportunity and fear of crime through what three methods?

Answer 416

Natural, mechanical, and organizational means

Question 417

What are the three main components of an analog video system?

Answer 417

Camera, transmission cable, and monitor

Question 418

Which camera can see in perfect darkness with no light source?

Answer 418

Thermal imaging

Question 419

Which type of system test is conducted in alternating phases of testing and evaluation to allow for validation of the tests and corrective actions?

Answer 419

Reliability or availability tests

Question 420

What is the most important measure of an Alarm Communication and Display (AC&D) system?

Answer 420

How well it quickly and clearly communicates alarm data from sensors to the system operator

Question 421

A security officer post is any location or combination of activities for which a trained human being is necessary. Which of the following is NOT one of the three key concepts of this approach?

Answer 421

Necessary equipment

Question 422

The efficiency of the security force depends on…

Answer 422

The adequacy and skill of its supervisors

Question 423

Which camera can see in perfect darkness but requires a light source outside the visible spectrum?

Answer 423

IR

Question 424

What are the three main components of a digital video system?

Answer 424

Camera, digital transmission medium, and PC/software

Question 425

Safes less than what weight are considered “portable?

Answer 425

750 lbs

Question 426

The process of assessing security-related risks from internal and external threats to an entity, its assets, and its personnel is called a

Answer 426

Risk Assessment

Question 427

A weakness or organizational practice that may facilitate or allow a threat to be implemented or increase the magnitude of a loss event”, is a definition of which of the following?

Answer 427

Vulnerability

Question 428

This detector absorbs invisible light energy comparing actual energy to established background energy. What type of detector is this?

Answer 428

Passive Infrared

Question 429

There is a serious threat to security and fear of attack in a college, what security measures would be necessary to address that situation

Answer 429

Design and redesign space to encourage activity and witness potentials by legitimate users

Question 430

In an account department, what would be the best practice to ensure proper accounting practices

Answer 430

Adopt a two persons rule/separation of duties

Question 431

Which sensor is designed to detect a change in capacitive coupling among a set of wires attached to an object

Answer 431

Capacitance

Question 432

A colour rendition index of 70 to 80 is considered what

Answer 432

Good

Question 433

When you decide to keep a critical asset of the company at a remote location, what is this called

Answer 433

Risk Spreading

Question 434

What is the technique of transmitting several messages simultaneously on the same medium called

Answer 434

Multiplexing

Question 435

Disguising information so that it is unintelligible to protect proprietary information is called

Answer 435

Scrambling

Question 436

When preparing an initial budget, what percentage of the final bid price is generally allowed as a margin of error

Answer 436

15-20 percent

Question 437

What requires a sufficient amplitude change and duration to cause an alarm in a microwave

Answer 437

Doppler principle

Question 438

The reliability of this locks accounts for its popularity, which lock is being referred

Answer 438

Pin tumbler locks

Question 439

Gathering information on the layout of the facility, the location of key assets, facility operations and production capability and location types of PPS components by the VA team is referred to as what

Answer 439

Facility characterization

Question 440

A logical method of problem solving in which a comprehensive solution is developed in relation to a problem having several dimensions is a definition of

Answer 440

System approach

Question 441

What is the recommended spacing distance between pillars in a chain link fencing

Answer 441

10 feet

Question 442

Access delay barriers may take which forms

Answer 442

 Passive barriers
 Security officers
 Dispensable barriers

Question 443

How many trials combinations can a four digits PIN allow

Answer 443

10000

Question 444

For resolution that is clearer and can see larger range of colours and high sensitivity what would be best recommended for observation or assessment

Answer 444

Digital cameras

Question 445

What is a major difference between emergency lights and other forms of lights

Answer 445

It has alternative power source

Question 446

Which type of lighting would best serve for video surveillance if colour rendition is a major consideration

Answer 446

Metal halide

Question 447

The verification that a PPS component is able to do what it is expected to and is suitable for the use it is selected is called

Answer 447

Validate

Question 448

An alarm that terminates at police or the headquarters is called

Answer 448

Auxiliary alarm

Question 449

Which type of structural barriers is best in providing an extended penetration delay even after an explosive attack

Answer 449

Thick reinforced concrete

Question 450

Testing a PPS component to verify whether the device is on and performing as expected is called

Answer 450

Functional testing

Question 451

Which are the HID family of lamps

Answer 451

 Metal halide
 Mercury vapour
 High pressure sodium

Question 452

A line transmission technique in which the installation is connected directly to a control by a pair of wires is referred to as what

Answer 452

Point-to-point

Question 453

A wire alarm system designed to check the circuit automatically and immediately signal a fault on the circuit is known as

Answer 453

Line Supervision

Question 454

The designer always considers expansion capacity of the design from the very beginning, what is typically the range added in percentage

Answer 454

10-15 percent

Question 455

A good design always strikes a balance between what

Answer 455

Quality components and cost

Question 456

Two of the main cost drivers for security design are the design fees and what else

Answer 456

Projected system construction cost

Question 457

When events are independent of each other, the probability of their, simultaneous occurrence is the product of their separate probabilities, is known as what

Answer 457

Redundant security scheme

Question 458

For security professionals, CPTED is a set of management tools targeting what

Answer 458

 Places
 Behaviour
 Design and use of space

Question 459

The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as

Answer 459

Image and milieu

Question 460

The quantity of light emitted by a lamp is measured in what

Answer 460

Lumen

Question 461

To show the displays from several cameras on one or more monitors, what does a system generally require

Answer 461

Switcher

Question 462

The principal security strategies identified by most security designers as the important functional requirements of a security design are

Answer 462

 Prevention
 Detection
 Control

Question 463

The biggest mistake made when conducting a vulnerability assessment is

Answer 463

Concentrating on individual PPS components and addressing upgrades only on that level, not of the overall system level

Question 464

CPTED solution follow which methods

Answer 464

 Natural access control
 Natural surveillance
 Natural territorial reinforcement

Question 465

After analysing facility data and vulnerabilities and the VA report is written, what is the next response

Answer 465

Baseline risk is determined

Question 466

If a light burns for 15,000hrs, how much lumen per watts is its efficacy

Answer 466

150 watts

Question 467

The general purpose of undertaking a vulnerability assessment is

Answer 467

To establish a baseline of the PPS effectiveness in meeting goals and objectives

Question 468

Any delay before detection serves primarily as what

Answer 468

Deterrence

Question 469

The amount of protection required by any asset within an organization is a function of which of the following

Answer 469

The value of the asset and the risk tolerance of the enterprise

Question 470

Response force personnel if deployed in a fixed and well protected position are considered what element of the PPS

Answer 470

Delay

Question 471

What is the sole purposes of using locks in security applications

Answer 471

 Eliminate the need of posting guards to every access point
 Serves as a method of controlling physical access
 As a delay mechanism

Question 472

What are major determinants of a security system solutions

Answer 472

 Capacity
 Size
 Space requirements

Question 473

What is used to detect any attack or defeat on communication lines

Answer 473

Line supervision

Question 474

What is associated with immediate image capture with a sensor alarm to determine the response

Answer 474

Assessment system

Question 475

Rings or layers in an assets safe guide in relation to protection-in-depth is referred to as

Answer 475

Redundant security scheme

Question 476

List what are HID family of light

Answer 476

 Metal halide
 High pressure sodium
 Mercury vapour

Question 477

At what point should future expansion be considered in the design of the PPS

Answer 477

At the site selection

Question 478

A rational and orderly approach as well as a comprehensive solution to problem identification and probability determination is

Answer 478

Risk assessment

Question 479

The percentage of light reflected from a surface is referred to as

Answer 479

Reflectance

Question 480

The principle strategy considered as the most important functional requirements of a security design are

Answer 480

 Prevention
 Detection
 Control

Question 481

What is referred to as time period a switcher automatically switches from camera to camera

Answer 481

Dwell-time

Question 482

What is referred to as the dividing of video images into grid selections

Answer 482

Masking

Question 483

The most common type of sensors generally installed on doors and windows is

Answer 483

Simple switch

Question 484

The concentration of light over a particular area is called

Answer 484

Illuminance

Question 485

Which are an integral parts of a mechanical lock

Answer 485

 Bolt or latch
 Tumbler array
 Key

Question 486

Which locks greatest weakness is its vulnerability to spring manipulation due to corrosion, weathering and age

Answer 486

Warded

Question 487

If an area required to be illuminated by a light level of 55FC (foot candle) what is the equivalent in lux

Answer 487

550 lux

Question 488

Verification decision for personnel entry control is usually based on the determination of what concepts

Answer 488

 What you have
 What you know
 What you are

Question 489

Which is the most widely used encoded card used in commercial credit card system

Answer 489

Magnetic stripe

Question 490

What is the main advantage of the smart card is

Answer 490

Has large memory and high degree of resistance to compromise

Question 491

Which of the following is an easy going entry control card technology

Answer 491

Proximity card

Question 492

The first phase of the implementation PPS is planning and

Answer 492

Assessment

Question 493

From an eavesdropper perspective which of the following are popular means to obtain information from a phone line

Answer 493

Inductive/direct coupling

Question 494

What are the types of metal detectors

Answer 494

Passive/active

Question 495

A good design always strikes a balance between which two factors

Answer 495

Quality components and overall cost

Question 496

Systems in PPS designs will be evaluated on which parameters

Answer 496

 Quality
 Reliability
 Cost

Question 497

What determines how security is designed, defined and implemented in an organization

Answer 497

Organizational culture

Question 498

The first task of the first phase in the design and implementation of the PPS includes what

Answer 498

 Identification of critical assets
 Potential threats
 Functional requirements

Question 499

A significant factor in the design and implementation of security system and programs is

Answer 499

Corporate culture

Question 500

Along with specification which of the following is the cornerstone of any construction project

Answer 500

Drawings

Question 501

What in security system shows a top-down, map-like view of an area where security devices and system

Answer 501

Plan

Question 502

Considering the operation of the PPS which of the following drives the system design

Answer 502

 Security programs need to have minimum negative impact on productivity
 Security programs as a source of convenience to employees

Question 503

An organization is constantly experiencing break-ins, with most of it targeted at night, which sensor type would be the best recommendation to address this issues

Answer 503

Vibration

Question 504

A safe used to store records what would be a major interior constituents

Answer 504

 Scientifically insulated
 Moisture incorporation
 Reinforced steel

Question 505

A type of alarm transmission installation which involves devices being installed on a pair of wires throughout an area on facility, and then connected to a control centre is

Answer 505

Loop

Question 506

The measure of effectiveness of entry control is

Answer 506

 Thorough put
 False acceptance rate
 False rejection rate

Question 507

The final size of the viewing area as measured in width and height is referred to as

Answer 507

Field of view

Question 508

Resolution of a digital camera is measured in terms of what

Answer 508

Common intermediate format

Question 509

Which sensor causes an alarm when an intruder is made to go either towards or away from the field of view

Answer 509

Microwave

Question 510

A detailed in-depth examination of all revealing security defences and defensive activity, measured against current and projected risk is

Answer 510

Security survey

Question 511

Which are the primary function of the PPS

Answer 511

 Detection
 Delay
 Response

Question 512

What is VSAT

Answer 512

Vulnerability self assessment tool

Question 513

List lights that have instant re-strike

Answer 513

Incandescent
Halogen
Fluorescent

Question 514

Sensors are generally categorized into which classes

Answer 514

 Perimeter,
 Space,
 Object

Question 515

What views shows vertical surfaces and mounting heights and locations of security devices in a security design document

Answer 515

Elevation drawings

Question 516

A type of procurement method recommended where the security owner has the capability to perform the security needs analysis and has a good prior knowledge of systems and prices is

Answer 516

Invitation for bids

Question 517

A type of procurement where the security manager knows the requirements and specification the system to meet but does not have any knowledge of the equipment or how it will be met is

Answer 517

Request for proposal

Question 518

What is the required height of an impact drop test for a safe

Answer 518

30 ft

Question 519

Which concept is generally applied when applying CPTED measures

Answer 519

 Natural access control
 Natural surveillance
 Natural territoriality

Question 520

An alarm caused due to an equipment failure is

Answer 520

False alarm

Question 521

The human perception of the amount of light that reaches the eye is referred to as what

Answer 521

Brightness

Question 522

As a general rule what are the lighting levels for detection, recognition and identification listed in sequence

Answer 522

0.5FC, 1.0FC, 2.0FC

Question 523

Which lamps requires time to reach full output especially in cold weather

Answer 523

Fluorescence

Question 524

Which are the advantages of smart card over proximity card

Answer 524

 Large memory
 High degree resistance to forgery
 Low degree of compromise

Question 525

For security and safety reasons what should be the recommended distance between a door and window

Answer 525

40 inch

Question 526

A before the incident preparation for an after-the-incident continuation of business refers to what

Answer 526

Risk management

Question 527

A method of identifying the weak points of a facility is

Answer 527

Vulnerability analysis

Question 528

The most common interior motion sensor is

Answer 528

PIR

Question 529

What is the most common type of sensor generally installed on doors and windows

Answer 529

Simple switch

Question 530

What testing repeats a given test enough times to establish a measure of device capability against different threats

Answer 530

Performance testing

Question 531

What is the major goal of vulnerability assessment

Answer 531

Identify PPS components in the functional area of detection, delay and response

Question 532

The use of multiple lines of detection is referred to as

Answer 532

Protection-in-depth

Question 533

The second most important decision in the application of CCTV in an asset protection program is

Answer 533

Choice of lens

Question 534

If a camera is mounted on the site of a building 40ft from the ground and the centre of the scene to be watched is 30ft from the building. What would be the distance from the camera to the scene

Answer 534

50 ft

Question 535

The output of the first phase of the design and evaluation process of the PPS is

Answer 535

Threat spectrum

Question 536

The first phase of the design and evaluation process is

Answer 536

Determining system goals and objectives

Question 537

When the failure of a primary structural element results in the failure of adjoining structural element, this is

Answer 537

Progressive collapse

Question 538

What describes the action of the response force from the time it receives a communication until it is in position to interrupt the adversary

Answer 538

Deployment

Question 539

An analysis approach which evaluates how each element of the PPS operates and its contribution to the overall system effectiveness is referred to

Answer 539

Performance based analysis

Question 540

The key distinction between safety and security is

Answer 540

Their cause

Question 541

In risk analysis, reducing consequences given the event is called

Answer 541

Mitigation

Question 542

After assessment of vulnerability, and the implementation of countermeasures what is next

Answer 542

Evaluation/Review of effectiveness

Question 543

An uncertain situation in which a number of possible outcome might occur, one or more of which is undesirable describes what

Answer 543

Risk

Question 544

What type of analysis would be most appropriate for a petro-chemical industrial location

Answer 544

Quantitative

Question 545

The statement ‘‘volumetric sensor shall detect an individual moving at a rate of 1 foot per second’’ or faster within a total field of view of the sensor ‘‘is an example of what

Answer 545

Performance based criteria

Question 546

What type of sensors is recommended for deployment in an environment with explosive vapour materials

Answer 546

Passive

Question 547

When installing a glass break sensor what is a major consideration

Answer 547

Installed directly opposite the protected glass

Question 548

A technique that allows the target to pass through the sensor’s normal detection zone without generating an alarm is

Answer 548

Spoofing

Question 549

When two sensors are logically combined, the probability of detection of the combined detectors is what

Answer 549

Is less than the probability of detection of the individual detector

Question 550

In designing a CCTV application, for an asset protection program, security manager should keep what in mind

Answer 550

CCTV is a visual tool of security and should be applied accordingly
The application should dictate the equipment
No matter what, the equipment of the system will become obsolete
If a system is obsolete but still performing it is because the original application was correctly designed

Question 551

What is the correct sequence of choosing cameras

Answer 551

Sensitivity, resolution and features

Question 552

The three theoretical identification views of a CCTV system are

Answer 552

Subject identification
Action identification
Scene identification

Question 553

When a master key is lost, what is the recommended key replacement approach

Answer 553

Replace from outer perimeter first

Question 554

What is the most common reason for using mechanical locks and key

Answer 554

Eliminate the need for posting guards to every access
Used for restricting access to corporate and institutional facilities/ assets
As a delay mechanism

Question 555

Fire resistance document safes are designated in what way

Answer 555

350-1
350-4
350-2

Question 556

An alarm that goes to the fire and police station is

Answer 556

Auxiliary alarm

Question 557

List what are external security lighting

Answer 557

Search light
Frensel
Street light
Flood light

Question 558

What light is good for video surveillance

Answer 558

Incandescent

Question 559

Which sensor is used to protect filling cabinets and safes

Answer 559

Capacitance

Question 560

Which surfaces have the highest reflectance

Answer 560

Snow

Question 561

When bid prices have been considered for a project, which drawing in particular does contractors use for device count

Answer 561

Riser drawings

Question 562

Which alarm operates from residential location with guards in charge

Answer 562

Proprietary alarm

Question 563

What sensor operates with the adversary body temperature

Answer 563

PIR

Question 564

Marquis-de-Laplace’s formula of probability can be referred to as what

Answer 564

Redundant scheme

Question 565

The process of combining technology elements, procedures and personnel into a single system for providing security at a facility is

Answer 565

System integration

Question 566

What is the most used sensor for intrusion protection

Answer 566

Vibration sensors
Electromechanical sensors

Question 567

Which alarm is a result of equipment failure

Answer 567

False alarm

Question 568

Which sensor provides early warning for a forced entry

Answer 568

Vibration

Question 569

What advantage does stored image badge have over manual photo I.D system

Answer 569

Difficult to tamper with stored image as it’s comparable to badge exchange

Question 570

In lock, the concept of what you have, what you know, and what you are is in relation to what

Answer 570

Personal entry control

Question 571

What is the distance of the outer perimeter fence to the structure inside, if the building itself forms part of the perimeter

Answer 571

2 inch

Question 572

What is the distance of the outer perimeter fence to the structure inside, if the building itself is not part of the perimeter

Answer 572

50 feet/600 inch

Question 573

What type of light is a metal halide

Answer 573

HID light

Question 574

What sensor will cause an alarm on an intruder who absorbs some of electrical energy upon touching the protected object

Answer 574

Capacitance

Question 575

For the purpose of bomb blast on a perimeter, what type of wall is best suited to resist the blast

Answer 575

Thick reinforced concrete

Question 576

Which sensor will detect an intruder in the area immediately adjacent to an object being protected in an interior area

Answer 576

Proximity

Question 577

Access delay barriers are passive barriers security officers and what else

Answer 577

Dispensable barriers

Question 578

What is the most integral instrument in conducting a site survey

Answer 578

Checklist

Question 579

The parts of the overall risk management process are

Answer 579

Threat
Asset value
Vulnerability

Question 580

Which sensor can be applied by a security manager to handle frequent reports of stolen haulage items in a distant location

Answer 580

Radio frequency wireless sensor system/IDS

Question 581

What is the quantity of light emitted by a household bulb rated 100wats

Answer 581

1700 Lumen

Question 582

What sensor determines if there is a change in temperature by human presence in a place

Answer 582

PIR

Question 583

A sensor that achieves absolute alarm confirmation by combining two technologies is

Answer 583

Dual technology

Question 584

Which sensor will be inappropriate in a building in which walls are made of gypsum plastic plywood

Answer 584

Microwave

Question 585

When events are independent of each other the probability is the product of their simultaneous occurrence is the product of their separate probabilities is whose principle

Answer 585

Marquis de-Laplace

Question 586

On a large facility where there are multiple alarm sensors deployed and where alarms terminates at a location outside the facility is which type of alarm transmission

Answer 586

Central alarm

Question 587

Which magnetic stripe medium that is mostly used in security credential application

Answer 587

2,500-4000 Oersted

Question 588

UL standard requires that safes of what weight be anchored on the structure

Answer 588

750 Ibs

Question 589

How long does a fire resistant safe keeps its rated value

Answer 589

20 to 30 yrs depending on climate

Question 590

What does a record typically incorporate in its insulation to help dissipate a fire’s heat in the interior

Answer 590

Moisture

Question 591

What is the lifeblood of every organization

Answer 591

Records

Question 592

Which types of safes rating are recommended for magnetic media protection

Answer 592

150-1

Question 593

The principal U.S standard for fire-resistant vaults is

Answer 593

NFPA

Question 594

In the U.S standard for safes for the storage of government classified information is defined by who

Answer 594

GSA

Question 595

The key to an effective guard use is

Answer 595

Training

Question 596

The strategy used against an adversary with theft as the final goal is

Answer 596

Containment

Question 597

A critical part of the design and analysis process of the PPS is

Answer 597

Identification of assets

Question 598

What strategy is recommended when an adversary goal is sabotage or violent attack

Answer 598

Denial

Question 599

The primary functions of the PPS are

Answer 599

Detection
Delay
Response

Question 600

Which type of analysis would be more appropriate for, retail stores, apartment buildings and small businesses

Answer 600

Qualitative

Question 601

What type of analysis approach depends on conformance to specific policies and regulation for which the metrics is the presence of specified equipments and procedures

Answer 601

Compliance based

Question 602

What is a multi-step process to subjectively evaluate an asset as a target for attack by adversary, form an adversary’s perspective

Answer 602

CARVER

Question 603

A fully integrated security program blends which elements into a responsive system

Answer 603

Architectural
Technological
Operational

Question 604

Which are particularly important factors in the design of an integrated security system to pin point the best solution

Answer 604

Anticipated threats/Vulnerability
Needs of the facility
Constraints

Question 605

A protective system is evaluated on the performance and cost effectiveness of individual measures in doing what

Answer 605

Countering threats
Reducing vulnerabilities
Decreasing risk exposure

Question 606

A combination of equipment’s, personnel and procedures coordinated and designed to ensure optimum achievement of the system stated objectives is referred to as

Answer 606

System

Question 607

The last task of the planning and assessment process is

Answer 607

Design concept

Question 608

What constitutes the ground rules and guidelines for the PPS design

Answer 608

Design criteria

Question 609

Visual evidence of a comprehensive security program will induce some perpetrators to look for other facilities where access would be less risky principle is also referred to as:

Answer 609

Deter access

Question 610

To be effective, the design and implementation of an assets protection program incorporates an orderly method of problem solving that should ensure a sound security program is developed. This is called the:

Answer 610

Systems approach

Question 611

Physical security barriers are typically arranged in concentric layer, with the level of security growing progressively higher as one approaches the centre. This principle is also referred to as:

Answer 611

Redundant security scheme

Question 612

In the discussion on basic concepts of risk management, what does the term dynamic risk mean?

Answer 612

Any situation that carries the potential for both benefit and cost or loss

Question 613

When discussing safes, the underwriters laboratories Inc. symbol ‘‘TRTL’’ indicates:

Answer 613

Safe is resistant to both torches and tools

Question 614

The mechanical lock longest in use and has practically no security value is

Answer 614

The warded lock

Question 615

This SMNA designation for a record safe would indicate paper would be protected for 4-hours if inside this safe in a fire

Answer 615

350 Degrees -4 hours

Question 616

Security tools used by the crime prevention manager are the 5‘‘D’s’’ of crime prevention
A six 6-foot (1.8 meter) chain-link fence with a method of alarming and verifying the alarm with CCTV when someone penetrates the barrier is an example of:

Answer 616

Deter and detect

Question 617

There are only three reasons for having cameras in security applications, they are:

Answer 617

To obtain visual information about something that is happening
To obtain information about something that happened
To deter undesirable activities.

Question 618

Three major components of a CCTV system are:

Answer 618

Camera,
Cable,
Monitors

Question 619

The three D’s of CPTED are known as, _____________ definition and delay

Answer 619

Designation

Question 620

While establishing a probability rating during a vulnerability analysis, a particular rating is in doubt after all the information is gathered and evaluated. Which of the following measures should be taken?

Answer 620

Assign the higher of two possible ratings.

Question 621

In the equation P=f/n, P means

Answer 621

Probability

Question 622

This is commonly referred to as a sound wave sensor

Answer 622

Ultrasonic detector

Question 623

Three Classifications when practicing CPTED: are Mechanical measures, human and/or organizational measures and:

Answer 623

Natural measures

Question 624

Annualized loss expectancy, also known as expected loss, is determined by:

Answer 624

Vulnerabilities,
Loss Potentials, and
Threats

Question 625

A top guard is an overhang of barbed wire or barbed tape along the top of the fence facing outward (Sometimes inward) and recommended to be a minimum specification of:

Answer 625

Three strands of wire and 45 degree angle

Question 626

In a situation there is air turbulence caused by air condition and there is frequent activity adjacent to the protected area. The walls of the protected area. Are solid concrete. Which combination of motion sensors may be used to reduce or virtually eliminate false alarms?

Answer 626

Dual technology

Question 627

When project managing the implementation of a new security technology, unless the security manager has an intimate and detailed knowledge of exactly the equipment or model, he/she will require which of the following instruments to procure it

Answer 627

Request for proposal

Question 628

What is the first and most important output of the planning and assessment phase of any security design process?

Answer 628

Basis of design