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CPP1 > Personal Sec > Flashcards

Personal Sec Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a best practice for personnel security

A

Limiting the use of background checks

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of personnel security

A

Ensuring physical security measures are in place

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security control

A

Two factor authentication

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4
Q

What is the purpose of background checks in personnel security

A

To verify the identity and qualifications of job applicants
To assess the trustworthiness and reliability of individuals
To identity any potential security risks

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5
Q

What is the purpose of a security clearance

A

To grant access to classified information
To assess a persons trustworthiness and loyalty
To determine if a person is eligible for certain positions

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6
Q

In the context of physical security, what is the purpose of a background investigation

A

To determine an individuals eligibility for a security clearance

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7
Q

What is the primary function of a legal hold notice

A

Informing relevant parties to preserve evidence

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8
Q

Which of the following is a potential threat to personnel security

A

Social Engineering
Insider Threats
Physical Security Breaches

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9
Q

What is the primary goal of personnel security

A

To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information
To maintain confidentiality of information
To prevent theft and sabotage
To ensure the integrity of operations

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of personnel security

A

Ensuring the physical security of facilities

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11
Q

What is the purpose of security awareness training program in personnel security

A

To educate employees about potential security threats and best practices

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12
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of the individual in the personnel security process

A

Reporting security incidents

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13
Q

Which of the following is a key principle of personnel security

A

Need to know principle
Least privilege principle
Separation of duties principle

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14
Q

What is the purpose of a personnel security policy

A

To establish guidelines for hiring employees
To outline the responsibilities of employees
To define the consequences of security violations

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15
Q

During a sting operation, what is the primary goal of the decoy

A

To trick the suspect into committing a crime
To induce a suspect to commit a crime for evidence collection

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16
Q

What is the purpose of conducting background checks in personnel security

A

To identify potential risks or threats
To verify employment history
To access criminal records
To evaluate financial stability

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17
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of the PEACE model of interviewing

A

Preparation and Planning

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18
Q

which of the following is an example of personnel security control

A

Security awareness training

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19
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of secure entrance control system

A

Strong access controls

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20
Q

What is the purpose a background check in personnel security

A

To verify an individuals identity
To assess an individuals character and trustworthiness
To ensure an individual meets the requirements for the specific job

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21
Q

Which of the following is a personnel security best practice

A

Regularly updating access control lists
Conducting background checks on new employee
Implementing a strong password policy

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22
Q

What is the role of pre employment training

A

To verify the suitability of potential employees

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23
Q

Which of the following is an example of personnel security control

A

Access Control Measures
Security Awareness Training
Incident response procedures

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24
Q

What is the role of employee training in personnel security

A

To ensure employees understand security policies and procedures

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25
Q

Which of the following is an example of security breach

A

Unauthorized access to restricted area

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26
Q

What is the role of a forensic accountant in an investigation

A

To analyze financial records for signs of fraud

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27
Q

What is the primary function of employee exit interviews

A

To gather information on why employees are leaving

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a method for preserving digital evidence

A

Modifying the original evidence
Encrypting the original evidence

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a common method used to identify a suspect a in a digital investigation

A

Data Carving

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30
Q

What is the purpose of conducting background checks in personnel security

A

To verify employment history
To assess criminal records
To evaluate financial stability

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31
Q

What is the main purpose of employee training programs in personnel security

A

Reducing security incidents

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32
Q

What is the primary advantage of using background checks in pre employment screening

A

Identifying potential red flags
Verifying qualifications

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33
Q

What is the purpose of personnel security

A

To protect classified information
To ensure the safety of employees
To prevent unauthorized access to facilities
To maintain a safe work environment

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34
Q

What is the role of access control policies in personnel security

A

To restrict unauthorized access to sensitive areas

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35
Q

Which of the following is a key element of a criminal investigation

A

Determining if a crime has occurred

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36
Q

What is the main challenge of using digital forensics in an investigation

A

Complexity of analysis
Cost of tools
Legal admissibility

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37
Q

Which of the following is not a component of personnel security

A

Cybersecurity protocols
Intrusion detection systems
Background checks
Physical security measures
Security awareness training

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38
Q

What is the purpose of physical access controls in personnel security

A

To restrict access to sensitive areas

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39
Q

What is the role of security awareness training in personnel security

A

To educate employees about security policies and procedures
To promote a culture of security awareness
To reduce the risk of security incidents caused by human error
To ensure compliance with security policies

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40
Q

What is the purpose of a termination process in personnel security

A

To ensure that an individuals access to sensitive information is revoked

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41
Q

Which of the following best describes a whistleblower policy

A

A policy to protect employees who report misconduct

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42
Q

Which of the following is not a typical step in the process of securing a crime scene

A

Collecting evidence immediately

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43
Q

What is the purpose of security awareness training for employees

A

To educate employees about the importance of personnel security
To teach employees how to recognize and respond to security threats
To promote a culture of security within the organization
To document and respond to security incidents
To reduce the risk of security incidents caused by human error

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44
Q

What is the role of access control in personnel security

A

To restrict access to sensitive areas

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45
Q

What is the purpose of a pre employment screening process in personnel security

A

To determine an individuals potential for misconduct

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46
Q

Which of the following is not a method of personnel security

A

Incident response

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47
Q

Which of the following is not a factor considered during personnel security clearance

A

All should be considered

Criminal history
Financial stability
Education qualifications

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48
Q

What it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation all of the following should be avoided except

A

Allow the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own word

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49
Q

What is the primary feature of PEACE model of interviewing

A

Empathy and rapport building

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50
Q

What is the primary goal of personnel security

A

To ensure the safety of employees

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51
Q

Selection devices in the personnel selection process used by managers to reduce accept and reject errors include

A

Application form, pencil and paper tests, performance-simulation tests, interviews

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52
Q

Which of the following is not a best practice for personnel security

A

Regularly updating security clearance records
Implementing access control measures
Conducting background checks on visitors

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53
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security control measure

A

Access Control Systems
Security Cameras
Encryption Software

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54
Q

What is the primary goal of background checks in personnel security

A

To verify employment history
To assess an individuals character
To identify potential security risks

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55
Q

What is the purpose of security clearances in personnel security

A

To grant individuals access to classified information
To assess an individuals trustworthiness and reliability
To restrict access to sensitive areas

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56
Q

Which of the following is not a purpose of personnel security

A

Ensuring physical security measures are in place

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57
Q

What is the purpose of Non Disclosure Agreement (NDA) in personnel security

A

To protect sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure
To establish a legal contract between an organization and its employees
To ensure the confidentiality of classified information

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58
Q

What does the term personnel security refer to in the ASIS CPP domain

A

Security measures for employees and contractors

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59
Q

What is the primary goal of personnel security screening

A

To identity potential security risks

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60
Q

A narcotic addict is sometimes called

A

A hophead

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61
Q

What is the primary advantage of using a multidisciplinary team in investigations

A

Broader range of expertise

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62
Q

Which of the following is not a measure to protect against social engineering attacks

A

Implementing strong access controls
Conducting regular security awareness training
Verifying the identity of individuals before granting access

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63
Q

In the context of personnel security, what is the purpose of a background investigation

A

To determine an individuals eligibility for a security clearance

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64
Q

What is the purpose of a security awareness training program in personnel security

A

To educate employee about potential security threats and best practices
To ensure the safety of employee
To protect sensitive information
To prevent unauthorized access to facilities

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65
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security violation

A

Unauthorized use of company resources
Unauthorized disclosure of classified information

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66
Q

What is the main objective of personnel security screening

A

To ensure the loyalty and trustworthiness of individuals

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67
Q

Which of the following is not a type of personnel security clearance

A

Public

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68
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security vulnerability

A

Lack of background checks for employees

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69
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of personnel security breaches

A

Financial loss
Decreased employee morale
Damage to company reputation

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70
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of individuals in personnel security

A

Reporting Security incidents
Adhering to security policies
Protecting sensitive information

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71
Q

What is the purpose of a security badge system

A

To identify and control access for employees and visitors

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72
Q

Which of the following is not a typical step in the investigation process

A

Closing the investigation without reporting

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73
Q

Which of the following is not a potential risk associated with personnel security

A

Cybersecurity vulnerabilities

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74
Q

Which of the following is not a step in personnel security process

A

Social media monitoring

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75
Q

What is the primary goal of internal investigation

A

Identifying policy violations

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76
Q

Which of the following is a common method used in personnel security screening

A

Background checks

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77
Q

What is the role of employee training in personnel security

A

To ensure employees understand security policies and procedures

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78
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security policy

A

A set of guidelines for managing employee security

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79
Q

What is the role of security awareness training in personnel Security

A

To educate employees about security policies and procedures
To promote a culture of security within the organization
To reduce the likelihood of security incidents caused by human error

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80
Q

What is the purpose of personnel security

A

To protect the organizations physical assets
To ensure the safety of employee
To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information

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81
Q

Which of the following is a potential risk to personnel security

A

Insider Threats
Social Engineering attacks
Unauthorized access

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82
Q

Which of the following is a best practice for managing personnel security risks

A

Regularly reviewing and updating security policies and procedures
Conducting thorough background checks for all employees
Implementing a comprehensive security awareness training program

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83
Q

Which of the following best describes a security incident log

A

A records for all security related incidents and actions taken

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84
Q

What is the primary function of access control in personnel security

A

Restricting unauthorized access

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85
Q

Which of the following is not a personnel security control meassure

A

Encryption technology

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86
Q

Which of the following is not a factor considered in personnel security

A

Criminal history
Financial stability
Educational background

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87
Q

Which of the the following is an example of a personnel security control

A

Security awareness training

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88
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using open source intelligence in investigations

A

Legal and Ethical considerations

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89
Q

Which of the following is not a potential threat to personnel security

A

Natural disasters

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90
Q

What is the purpose of security incident reporting

A

To document and respond to security incidents

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91
Q

What is the purpose of root cause analysis in investigations

A

Identifying the underlying reasons for an incident

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92
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for obtaining a personnel security clearance

A

Credit check

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93
Q

Which of the following is not a common personnel security control measure

A

None of the above

The below points are the common personnel security control measure

Background checks
Security clearances
Physical access controls

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94
Q

The cardinal rule in management of transportation concern is that those assigned to line hauling duties must be

A

Of the highest integrity

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95
Q

Which of the following is the primary purpose of an investigation

A

To determine the facts of an incident

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96
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of least privilege

A

Granting employees the minimum access necessary to perform their duties

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97
Q

Which of the following is a key benefit of using digital forensics

A

Ability to recover and analyze electronic evidence

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98
Q

Which of the following is an example of a red flag during pre employment screening

A

A history of employment gaps

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99
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of personnel security

A

To protect an organizations human resources and ensure their safety

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100
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of dual control

A

Requiring two or more individuals to complete a sensitive task

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101
Q

What is the role of security audits in personnel security

A

To evaluate and improve security measures

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102
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit of personnel security programs

A

Increasing operational costs

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103
Q

Which of the following is a key element of a personnel security investigation

A

Interviewing involved parties

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104
Q

The principle of unity of command is most relevant to which aspect of investigations

A

Organizational structure

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105
Q

What is the purpose of a personnel security policty

A

To establish guidelines for hiring employees
To outline the responsibilities of employees
To define the consequences of security violations

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106
Q

Which of the following is not a typical step in the evidence collection process

A

Manipulation

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107
Q

What is the purpose of a personnel security program

A

To ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements
To protect against unauthorized access to sensitive information
To mitigate the risk of insider threats

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108
Q

Which of the following is an example of physical security measures

A

Security Cameras and access control systems

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109
Q

Which of the following is not a standard step in the investigation process

A

Marketing

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110
Q

Thefts of this nature are held to be impulsive acts committed by persons operating alone who pick up an item or two that is readily available when there is small risk of detection

A

Theft of opportunity

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111
Q

Which of the following is a key element of a personnel security program

A

Background checks

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112
Q

Which of the following is an example of an insider threat

A

An employee who misuses access to sensitive information

113
Q

What is the role of a security incident management team

A

To prevent security incidents from occurring
To respond to and manage security incidents
To investigate and resolve security incidents

114
Q

Which of the following is an example of a personnel security measure

A

Background checks

115
Q

What is the purpose of personnel security policy

A

To establish guidelines for screening and vetting personnel
To define the roles and responsibilities of personnel
To outline the procedures for reporting security incidents

116
Q

What is the purpose of visitor management system

A

To tract and manage visitors entering a facility

117
Q

Which of the following best describes an access control list (ACL)

A

A list of individuals who are authorized to access specific areas or information

118
Q

What is the key to effective report writing in investigations

A

Being clear, concise and objective

119
Q

Which of the following is not a element of criminal liability

A

Intention

120
Q

In a cognitive interview, what is the purpose of the reverse order technique

A

Witness recalling the incident in reverse order to avoid chances of false reporting

121
Q

What is the purpose of polygraph test in an investigation

A

To detect deception

122
Q

What is the primary purpose of conducting a control hire in undercover operations

A

To monitor the activities of an informant

123
Q

Which of the following best describes the term hearsay

A

Second information not directly observed by the witness

124
Q

What is the main goal of using the alternative question technique in REID method

A

To make suspect choose between two versions of events

125
Q

Which of the following is an example of a physical security control

A

Security Cameras

126
Q

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of a sting operation

A

Legal claims of entrapment

127
Q

Which of the following is a key aspect of a personnel security plan

A

Risk assessment

128
Q

Which of the following is a potential threat to personnel security

A

Insider threat

129
Q

What is the main purpose of a root cause analysis in investigations

A

Identifying the cause of an incident
Preventing recurrence of incidents

130
Q

What is the main objective of personnel security screening

A

To ensure the loyalty and trustworthiness of individuals

131
Q

Which of the following is a key component of a successful interview

A

Building rapport with the interviewee

132
Q

Which of the following is not a potential threat to personnel security

A

Workplace accidents

133
Q

Which of the following is not a method of employee monitoring

A

Job performance reviews

134
Q

What is the primary goal of personnel security measures

A

To minimize the risk of insider threats

135
Q

In the context of personnel security what is the purpose of background investigation

A

To determine an individuals eligibility for a security clearance

136
Q

Which is not one of the six principles of executive protection (EP)

A

Rely on technological resources

137
Q

The best prevention of exposure to workplace violence is…

A

A preemployment background investigation program

138
Q

Methamphetamines belong to which category of abused drugs

A

Stimulants

139
Q

The practice of a workplace drug dealer retaining a small amount
of product for his own use to compensate for “credit” purchases by the buyer is known as:

A

Pinching

140
Q

Verification of applicant-provided information constitutes…

A

A background check

141
Q

Physiological craving brought on by chemical changes in the body,
both mental and physical, and characterized by withdrawal if not satisfied, is known as…

A

Chemical dependency

142
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three most common
discrepancies in resumes?

A

Salary history

143
Q

A shortened duration and decreased intensity of a drug’s effect,
leading to the need to consume larger doses for the same effect, is known as…

A

Tolerance

144
Q

What are the two most common cases for drug testing?

A

Random and Preemployment

145
Q

Which of the following is NOT a distinctive and important
element of a violence risk assessment program?

A

Random monitoring

146
Q

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) belongs to which category of
abused drugs

A

Hallucinogens

147
Q

With regard to workplace violence, what are the three levels of
assessment for known aggressors?

A

Initial, threshold, comprehensive

148
Q

The abduction of a hostage in order to coerce someone else into
committing a crime is known as a…

A

Tiger kidnapping

149
Q

An active search for information that uncovers hidden
information constitutes…

A

A background investigation

150
Q

Opium, its derivatives, and synthetic substitutes belong to which
category of abused drugs?

A

Narcotics

151
Q

When establishing internal and external complaint and grievance procedures, which of the following procedures should to be included? *

A

Identification of the root causes

152
Q

In an armed workplace violence incident, the program assumes that an effective response by properly trained personnel will occur if the perpetrator is not diverted. This means that one of the BEST planned responses should be which of the following? *

A

Response by correctly trained, armed personnel who will handle the situation.

153
Q

Like a typical security program, a violence risk assessment program employs which of the following tactics as a countermeasure to a workplace violence incident? *

A

Diversion, delay and response

154
Q

If an executive from the organization is kidnapped and made incapable of running the company, the organization can expect three types of financial losses, one of these is:

A

The executive’s services will be lost either temporarily or permanently, which can be costly.

155
Q

Which of the following types of investigations is considered the “most common type of investigation in many business and organizational settings”? *

A

Incident

156
Q

What is the function of risk management in relation to asset protection

A

Manage risk, by balancing the costs and benefits of protection measures

157
Q

The change in asset protection is increasingly based on what

A

The principle of risk management

158
Q

A company investment in executive protection pays dividends by protecting a key corporate asset this is

A

The executive’s life and his well being

159
Q

Over reliance on security technology tends to put the executive in what

A

Vault

160
Q

As an EPS, what is the most troubling event

A

Events that have been known to happen but are unexpected

161
Q

In asset protection the paradigm shift is in the area of technological development and what

A

Conceptual shift

162
Q

When a senior management directs a security manager to perform certain functions, what is the relationship called

A

Functional authority

163
Q

Which are the areas in asset protection where there are pattern of changes

A

Scope of security professional duties
Regulatory environment
Integrated security systems

164
Q

In the security VS convenience continuum the principal and who decides what tradeoffs to make

A

The agent

165
Q

According to the pattern of change in asset protection, what has evolved in the last 20years in workplace violence risk assessment in relation to multi-disciplines

A

An interdisciplinary workplace violence risk assessment and management process that allows for identification and assessment of individuals, so they can be diverted from violence before they act

166
Q

A violence risk assessment will assist in differentiating what in the workplace

A

Between individuals who pose a threat and those who solely make threats

167
Q

What is the only answer for an employee who have surrendered to a substance abuse

A

Progressive discipline

168
Q

For a creation of a drug-free workplace, an absolute necessity is

A

A written policy, which is practical functional and enforceable

169
Q

What are the essential difference between alcoholics and social drinkers

A

Loss of control over the time, place and amount of drinking

170
Q

Modern management has come to the realisation that their best option to manage employee theft and fraud is what

A

Preventing losses

171
Q

Which are the stages in the comprehensive model for handling theft and fraud in an organization

A

Prevention
Investigation
Program testing

172
Q

The most frequent and costly form of dishonesty the security professional will encounter in the workplace is

A

Theft and fraud

173
Q

An intentional deception for the purpose of unlawfully taking another’s property is referred to as

A

Fraud

174
Q

Security professionals should focus on identifying what percentage of employees that are responsible for 95% of workplace theft

A

5%

175
Q

Who determines workplace violence management monitoring or closeout of the incident

A

The company

176
Q

Excluding people from an investigative pool of subjects so as to conserve investigative resource defines what technique

A

Profiling

177
Q

What is the job of the first responder in a workplace violence incident

A

Divert

178
Q

Violence risk assessment can be broken down into levels of assessment, List them

A

Initial
Threshold
Comprehensive

179
Q

An EPS discovered that there is a crisis near the venue of a meeting and decided to take the principal through an alternative route, The EPS is doing what by this

A

Getting the principal out of trouble

180
Q

The most distinctive and important elements of a violence policy and program are processes to deal with

A

Behavioural recognition:
Notification: assessment and
Intervention

181
Q

A violence risk assessment program must address a variety of workplace behaviours, which are early warning sign that can lead to violence these are

A

Harassments
Intimidation
Discrimination

182
Q

Business related concerns to be addressed by violence risk assessment are

A

Liability
Workplace moral
Productivity

183
Q

What is considered as the greatest economic cost to an organisation for acts of violence on the workplace

A

Loss of morale and productivity

184
Q

Which are the members of an incident management team (IMT) in the comprehensive approach to workplace violence

A

A senior management representative
A senior security professional
A senior human resource manager
A legal representative who is familiar with labour and employment law

185
Q

Which are the last elements of violence risk assessment program, which is like a typical security program

A

Diversion
Delay
Response

186
Q

What is a major problem attributed to alarm response by the police

A

High rate of false alarm

187
Q

In executive protection when the adversary strikes salvation lies where

A

EPS conditioned response

188
Q

The long-term solution to each situation of potential workplace violence lies in

A

Understanding the emotional and mental state of the aggressor and diverting him from violence

189
Q

Valid violence risk assessment require a depth of information available only for which

A

Known subject

190
Q

Rings of protection by EPS are

A

Outer ring
One or two inner ring
A safe room

191
Q

In considering the level of outside support that an organization can tap into its violence risk assessment and management program, which of the following is not a problem that the organization should be ready to contend with

A

Limited law enforcement resources to respond to potential violence in workplace
Limited but growing legal experience in workplace violence management
Limited numbers security service providers that understand their limits or role and capability for providing the board spectrum of resources necessary
Limited number of defensible experts in the psychopathologies and behaviours with violence

192
Q

What is the responsibility of the background investigator

A

Validate the truthfulness of applicant’s statements

193
Q

What is a recommended recruitment method for non-entry technical/managerial positions

A

Blind-ad

194
Q

An employer dealing in spare parts is concerned about looses by robbery, burglary and theft of his parts by employees what type of insurance would you recommend

A

Crime cover

195
Q

The most important function of the executive protection specialist is

A

Prevent and avoid danger or dangerous places

196
Q

The most visible component of executive protection is

A

Physical acumen

197
Q

When an executive is travelling abroad what key function should the EPS perform

A

Learn local social customs

198
Q

In the U.S the age discrimination in employment act of 1967, protects which age bracket of individuals from employment based on their age

A

40 years

199
Q

Which is a major reason why an employer should approach the use of internet information for hiring decision with caution

A

An employer can potentially face allegations of unlawful discrimination if the online research reveals information that may not be used directly or indirectly or indirectly to limit a person’s employment opportunities

200
Q

If in front of a venue where the principal was to deliver a paper becomes rowdy and the EPS has to turn back and take an alternative route, this

A

Avoiding dangerous persons and conditions

201
Q

The primary source of concern for business in terms of workplace violence incident is

A

Cost of be proven liable for negligence

202
Q

Where is the executive most vulnerable

A

At home

203
Q

In the future improvement what will lead to a greater understanding of the behavioural cues that signal impending violence behaviour

A

Assessment
Intervention
Monitoring

204
Q

For security practitioners which is the most effective means of preventing workplace violence

A

Early detection

205
Q

‘‘The best predictor of future behaviour is past behaviour’’ is in which context

A

Workplace violence

206
Q

What cover would you recommend for a facility with high incidents of break-ins resulting in theft and loss of equipment’s

A

Crime policy

207
Q

In an organization were series of missing items are being reported, where do you advice key records of item movement controls can be adequately sourced from

A

Well developed database

208
Q

What level of employees would be more concerned with implementation of organizational policies

A

First line managers

209
Q

Typically director of security in an organization should report to whom

A

Senior or executive management (VP)

210
Q

As a corporate security manager your knowledge that an asset protection program considers not only the major incident cost avoidance, but also assets, or value recoveries that occur in the asset protection operations, will enable you achieve what

A

Cost-effectiveness

211
Q

How would an asset protection manager justify request for additional funds for his programs from senior management

A

Demonstrate that the real cost to the enterprise would be greater if the level of support for the activity were reduced

212
Q

What would be the key components of alternative service providers

A

Order maintenance operations

213
Q

When planning for security what should the professional always consider

A

Culture of the organization

214
Q

The primary goal of intervention and resolution in a workplace violence incident is

A

The short-term and ideally long term safety of the identified target or targets

215
Q

Whose responsibility is it for helping to protect organizational assets

A

All employees

216
Q

One major obstacle in the implementation of an effective security awareness program is

A

Creating employee & management buy-in

217
Q

A standard of measurement using quantitative, statistical and mathematical analysis is

A

Metrics

218
Q

A first line manager is

A

Supervisor

219
Q

At what level of violence risk assessment is it determined whether there is an immediate risk of harm for emergency procedures to be activated

A

Initial assessment

220
Q

Which level of violence risk assessment provides the basis for the design and implementation of a non-immediate emergency resolution plan

A

Comprehensive

221
Q

The security of an organization rest squarely on the practices of who

A

Employees

222
Q

One of the most important mission of a security awareness program is

A

Familiarise employees with the organization policies and procedures

223
Q

In executive protection program the person who walks, rides and files with the principal providing personal protection is usually referred to as

A

EP specialist

224
Q

In the corporate sphere, the best approach to adopt during the pre-planning stage of the executive program

A

Establish a crisis management team

225
Q

The choreograph used by the EP specialist to physically move about with the subject is called

A

Working the principal

226
Q

An efficient supervisor that is having problem supervising his staff is faced with what problem

A

Delegation/span of control

227
Q

The primary purpose of a security awareness program is

A

Educate employees on how to help protect the company’s assets and reduce losses

228
Q

The first action of the IMT if a violent behaviour of an employee was reported

A

Initiate an initial assessment

229
Q

What is best described as the implementation of standards and principles that when constantly applied control loss

A

Security

230
Q

Modern management have come to realise that the most cost-effective way to deal with fraud in the workplace is

A

Preventing it

231
Q

The opportunity for fraud is generally created by

A

Absence or weakness of internal controls

232
Q

A coverage intended to guarantee the performance of some obligation by an individual

A

Surety bond

233
Q

The management practice that separates the ultimate and operating responsibility for accomplishing task is called

A

Delegation

234
Q

The recommended evacuation strategy for an aggressor with firearms in a workplace violence situation is

A

360 Degrees

235
Q

What percentage of illicit drug users in the U.S are employed according to a 2006 survey

A

8.8%

236
Q

A staff was recognised by his executive of an end of year dinner party, whose theory is being expressed

A

Herzberg

237
Q

A strategy in intervention that involves an interview of an aggressor on his own property is

A

‘‘Knock and talk’’

238
Q

A pre-emptive strike against confusion and exposure in executive protection is called

A

Advance

239
Q

After ascertaining that there is no immediate danger/harm in a workplace violence risk assessment, what is the next stage

A

Threshold

240
Q

What are secondary elements of a workplace violence risk assessment

A

Diversion
Delay
Response

241
Q

The most consistent predictor of theft in all industries is what

A

Employees perceived chance of being detected

242
Q

Before the paradigm shift early security training and awareness programs were based upon what

A

Top-down management directive
Passive compliance
An attitude of ‘‘we do it this way because the book says so’’

243
Q

What would be necessary to create a job position for a proprietary security officer

A

Job description

244
Q

A security director giving direct instruction and receiving same is called

A

Functional authority

245
Q

The specific opportunity security awareness program brings to employees in an orientation program is

A

Explain security obligation for all employees

246
Q

How can an employer protect against dishonesty of his employee who will handle cash transactions

A

Fidelity bond

247
Q

Which are the ample means developed by security professionals to deal with criminal acts in the workplace

A

Timed safes
Bandits barriers
Lightings

248
Q

The most distinctive and important elements in a violence risk assessment are

A

Behavioural recognition
Notification
Assessment

249
Q

In asset protection the period between major paradigm shifts has been

A

Decreasing

250
Q

Management options to handle employees substance abuse problems includes what

A

Intervention
Progressive discipline
Referral to EAP

251
Q

A formal social device for reducing risk by transferring the risk of several entities to a single entity is

A

Insurance

252
Q

To increase or decrease the coverage of the standard policy is the major purpose of what

A

Endorsement

253
Q

What are the elements of most economic crimes

A

Motive
Ability
Opportunity

254
Q

The portfolio theory in insurance involves a comprehensive analysis of

A

Business risk and pure risk

255
Q

Modern workforce differs from old workforce in the paradigm shift in what ways

A

Sophisticated
Highly educated
Independent

256
Q

An employee trust in relation to insurance is referred to as

A

Fidelity bond

257
Q

One way to aid a security professional to gain support to start and continue a security awareness effort in the organization is

A

Use of metrics

258
Q

Which risk management tool is either proactive or reactive

A

Insurance

259
Q

An organizations primary resources is what

A

People

260
Q

The best way to recruit a good candidate is

A

Internal recommendation

261
Q

Staffing decisions should be made against

A

Detailed job requirement analysis

262
Q

In developing a security approach to the asset protection program, what should be the first objective

A

Deter

263
Q

Most insurance policies cover only

A

Direct loss

264
Q

Insurance is divided in two categories namely

A

Personal and property

265
Q

A security system element that will significantly increase the chances of detecting the vulnerabilities and gaps that leads to employee theft and fraud is

A

Clear organizational policies procedures and practices

266
Q

Most fraud perpetrators are influenced by what

A

An opportunity to profit

267
Q

An EPS by selecting hotels with proven safety reports and plotting for fire escape routes and packing smoke mask wants to achieve what

A

Preventing and avoiding danger

268
Q

One way to get support for a security awareness programme is through the use of a standard of measurement using quantitative and mathematical analysis which are examples of potential measurements

A

Company losses before and after the security awareness program was implemented Number of recoveries and restitution before and after awareness program was implemented
Numbers of persons briefed and the number of briefings per period
Cost of briefings per employee

269
Q

What is a correct statement about drug users and employment

A

Most drug users are employed

270
Q

What is a correct statement about aggressors behaviour in a workplace violence

A

Unless psychopaths, aggressors typically go through a process of emotional escalation selecting targets that gives them sense of control

271
Q

The long term solution to each situation of potential workplace violence lies in’’

A

Understanding the emotional and mental state of the aggressor and diverting him or her from violence

272
Q

What is essential that the IMT be empowered to do

A

Commit company assets and personnel to resolve violence incidents

273
Q

In a workplace violence risk assessment, a restraining or protective order is an example of what

A

Intervention

274
Q

The best known form of risk transfer is

A

Insurance

275
Q

The theory that premised on the belief that the opposite of satisfaction is not dissatisfaction but simply no satisfaction is promulgated by who

A

Herzberg

276
Q

Which are the elements that must occur be present before a fraud or similar crime can occur in the workplace

A

Perception of a non-shareable problem
Opportunity for a trust violation
A series of rationalization that allows the individual to justify his behaviour as appropriate for the situation

277
Q

The pocketing of small amounts of incoming invoice payments and the missing cash from previous invoice is

A

Lapping

278
Q

Where is the greatest problem and pitfall for private policing (security) industry

A

Public/supplement

279
Q

In a conceptual perspective of the security industry, which area focuses on supplementary and enhancing the public safety already provided by public policing agencies

A

Private/supplement
Public/supplement

CPP1 (13 decks)

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