pharmacology chapter 33: bacterial infections (DNA replication, transscript, and translate) Flashcards
name the quinolones
ciprofloxacin, gatifloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, norfloxacin, olfoxacin
what quinolone can cause tendon rupture
ciprofloxacin
what is the common ending for quinolones
-xacin
what is the contraindication for ciprofloxacin use
concomitant tizanidine administration
why should you avoid co-administration of thioridazine with quinolones
can cause increased risk of cardiotoxicity (QT prolongation, tornadoes de points, cardiac arrest)
what do quinolones inhibit
topoisomerase II
what type of bacteria are quinolone used against
gram negative
what do rifabutin and rifampin inhibit
type 2 topoisomerases
what is a contraindication for rifabutin and rifampin use
active neisseria meningitides infection
what drug should not be used concurrently with rifabutin
clarithromycin
how might rifampin effect cyclosporine use
may reduce its concentration and efficacy
what 3 drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit
ahminoglycosides, spectinomycin, tetracyclines
what are the major adverse effects with aminoglycosides
ototoxicity and acute renal failure
what is the alternative therapy for gonorrhea that binds to 30S subunit
spectinomycin
what is the major therapeutic consideration for spectinomycin
permits formation of the 70S complex but inhibits translocation
what is the only tetracycline that can be used in patients with kidney disease
doxycycline
what tetracycline can be used for malarial prophylaxis
doxycycline
who are tetracyclines contraindicated for
last half of pregnancy, infancy, children under 8 years of age, patients with severe renal impairment
why should tetracyclines be taken on an empty stomach
because calcium products interfere with its absorption
why should tetracyclines not be co-administered with acitretin
because of increased risk of elevated intracranial pressure
what is the major contraindication for macrolides and ketolides
hepatic dysfunction
what is chloramphenicol used to treat
broad spectrum antibiotic active against bacteria (especially anaerobes) and rickettsiae
what are the major adverse effects with chloramphenicol
hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome
what does chloramphenicol antagonize the bactericidal effects of
penicillins and ahminoglycosides
what are most adverse effects of chloramphenicol due to
inhibition of mitochondrial function
what infections are lincosamides (clindamycin) used for
bacterial infections due to anaerobic organisms (i.e.: bacteriodes)
what are the major adverse effects of clindamycin
pseudomembranous colitis, increased liver function, jaundice
what is clindamycin associated with the overgrowth of
C. difficile
what are streptogramins (dalfopristin/quinupristin) used to treat against
vancomycin-resistant enterococcus faecium (VREF), and skin infections caused by staphylococcus aereus and S> pyogenes
why should streptogramins not be used with SSRIs
due to risk of serotonin syndrome
why should streptogramins not be used with pimozide
due to increased risk of cardiotoxicty
what is linezolid resisted by in some bacteria
mutation in the 50S subunit’s 23S rRNA region
what is linezolid used for the treatment of
gram positive bacterial infections, nosocomial pneumonia, complicated diabetic foot infections
what are the major adverse effects of linezolid
myelosuppression, peripheral neuropathy, optic neuropathy
what is the mechanism of retapamulin
bind to pocket in A site where aminoacyl tRNA normally binds (binding also extends to P site)
what is retapamulin used for the treatment of
impetigo due to MRSA or streptococcus pyogenes
what is the common adverse effect of retapamulin use
application site irritation
what is the major therapeutic consideration for retapamulin
topical application for bacterial skin infections
