Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Tao Le A/I Board Review > Pharmacology and Therapeutics > Flashcards

Pharmacology and Therapeutics Flashcards

1
Q

What allergen is most likely to be found in undisturbed air in homes?

A

cat, dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens to serum specific IgE after starting immunotherapy?

A

initial increase (months), then steady decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During immunotherapy, what happens to IL-10 levels, TGFβ levels, and the ration of IFNγ to IL-4?

A

all increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which antigens should not be mixed with pollens to avoid proteolytic degradation?

A

molds, cockroach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which allergen extracts are standardized?

A

cat, ragweed, grass, dust mite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How often do systemic reactions to immunotherapy occur?

A

1/2000 injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often do fatal reactions to immunotherapy occur?

A

1/2.5 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which second generation antihistamines have the fastest onset of action?

A

cetirizine and levocetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which antihistamine has the longest half-life?

A

hydroxyzine or chlorpheniramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which 2nd generation antihistamine is safest to use in pregnancy?

A

cetirizine or loratidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the MOA of theophylline?

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase -> increased cAMP; adenosine receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what level do you start to see toxic effects of theophylline?

A

> 20 mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of albuterol?

A

binds to G-protein coupled receptors and activates adenylyl cyclase -> increases cAMP leading to muscle relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can cause resistance to the muscle relaxing effects of albuterol?

A

polymorphisms in the β2-adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of 15-lypoxygenase?

A

converts arachidonic acid to lipoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of 5-lypoxygenase?

A

converts arachidonic acid to LTA4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Leukotriene B4 is a chemoattractant for what cell type?

A

neutrophils - upregulates CD11b/CD18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MOA of montelukast?

A

blocks the CysLT1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What phase of the bronchoconstrictor response (early or late) do leukotriene antagonists affect?

A

both early and late

20
Q

What lab value can be elevated as an adverse effect of leukotriene antagonists?

A

elevated transaminases

21
Q

What is the MOA of cromolyn?

A

Inhibits IgE mediated Ca channel activation - maintains elevated intracellular Ca necessary for degranulation of mast cells

22
Q

Smooth muscle contraction and bronchoconstriction are primarily mediated through which muscarinic receptor?

A

M3

23
Q

What is the function of the M2 muscarinic receptor?

A

inhibitory receptor on parasympathetic nerves, decreasing acetylcholine release

24
Q

How can ipratropium cause paradoxical bronchoconstriction?

A

Blocks M2 as well as M3. Blocking M2 causes increased acetylcholine release which can lead to bronchoconstriction

25
Q

What is the advantage of tiotropium over ipratropium?

A

blocks both M2 and M3, but dissociates from M2 10 x faster

26
Q

What happens to serum IgE levels on omalizumab?

A

increased total IgE, decreased free IgE

27
Q

What part of the FcεRI binds to IgE?

A

alpha portion - receptor has one alpha, one beta and 2 gamma

28
Q

What supplement must be given if treating with methotrexate?

A

folic acid

29
Q

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus function by binding wo which type of proteins?

A

immunophilins

30
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine?

A

inhibits purine nucleotide synthesis and metabolism

31
Q

What is the most common method used to isolate Ig from plasma for IVIG?

A

modified Cohn-Oncley cold ethanol fractionation

32
Q

What is the starting dose for IVIG or for sub-q IG?

A

400-600 mg/kg q 4 weeks; 100 mg/kg weekly

33
Q

What is a potential cause of renal insufficiency when treating with IVIG?

A

Hyperosmolar renal damage due to sucrose (used as stabilizer)

34
Q

What are type I interferons and type II interferons used to treat, respectively?

A

chronic viral infections; CGD

35
Q

Which TNF antagonist binds both TNF alpha and Beta?

A

Etanercept

36
Q

What source (bone marrow, peripheral blood, or cord) for stem cell transplant has the fastest and slowest engraftment?

A

peripheral blood, cord blood

37
Q

What source (bone marrow, peripheral blood, or cord) for stem cell transplant has the highest T cell content?

A

peripheral blood

38
Q

What source (bone marrow, peripheral blood, or cord) for stem cell transplant has the greatest risk of GVHD?

A

peripheral blood

39
Q

What 2 SCID types cannot undergo myeloablative conditioning in preparation for HSCT?

A

Artemis and DNA ligase 4 - lack DNA repair capability

40
Q

Which mitogen assesses both T and B cell function?

A

pokeweed

41
Q

What mitogen bypasses the T cell receptor?

A

PMA

42
Q

How long after giving a live vaccine should you wait to give a patient IVIG?

A

2 weeks

43
Q

What 2 vaccines should be given during pregnancy if the patient is not up to date?

A

Tdap and inactivated influenza

44
Q

Elevated levels of C4 synthase and increase expression of cysLT1 receptor are seen with what disease?

A

NSAID hypersensitivity

45
Q

Why are COX-2 inhibitors tolerated in NSAID allergic patients while COX-1 inhibitors are not?

A

levels of PGE2 are decreased by COX-1 inhibition but not COX-2; PGE2 inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

46
Q

What medication should be given prior to starting ASA desensitization?

A

Montelukast - ASA sensitivity is NOT IgE mediated

Tao Le A/I Board Review (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions