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Tao Le A/I Board Review > Cells involved in Immune Responses > Flashcards

Cells involved in Immune Responses Flashcards

0
Q

What are the markers that identify B cells?

A

CD19, CD20, CD 21

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1
Q

Tregs use this to suppress other T cells

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA4)

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3
Q

Transcription factors Tbet and STAT4 drive production of what T cell subset?

A

Th1

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4
Q

Transcription factors GATA3 and STAT6 drive production of what T cell subset?

A

Th2

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4
Q

Tfh cells help B cells make antibody through transcription factor Bcl-6. What does Bcl-6 do?

A

Causes down regulation of CCR7 and a upregulation of CXCR5

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5
Q

Which cells are induced by IL-6 and function in neutrophil recruitment and extracellular defense?

A

Th17

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6
Q

What do CD8 cells use to kill infected cells?

A

Perforin and granzyme

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7
Q

Which interleukin is involved in NK cell development?

A

IL-15

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8
Q

Which cellular markers identity NK cells?

A

CD16, CD56 (NCAM), natural cytotoxic receptors, killer inhibitory receptors. NOT CD3!

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10
Q

Which interleukin activates transcription factors Tbet and STAT4?

A

IL-12

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11
Q

Which interleukin activates transcription factors GATA3 and STAT6?

A

IL-4

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11
Q

Which interleukin activates transcription factors RORγT and STAT3?

A

IL-6, TGF-β

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12
Q

What type of antigens do you NKT cells recognize?

A

Glycolipids on CD1

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13
Q

Transcription factors RORγT and STAT3 drive production of what T cell subset?

A

Th17

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14
Q

Transcription factors FOXP3 and STAT5 drive production of what T cell subset?

A

Treg

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15
Q

Which cytokines activate transcription factors FOXP3 and STAT5?

A

TGF-β, IL-10

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16
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides during junctional diversity?

A

TdT

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17
Q

Which enzymes cleave double-stranded DNA between coding segments and its recombination signal sequence?

A

RAG1/RAG2

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18
Q

What is the function of Artemis?

A

opens DNA hairpin at random site

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19
Q

Which enzyme removes nucleotides for junctional diversity?

A

endonuclease

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20
Q

What is positive selection?

A

ensures T cell is able to interact with MHC to avoid apoptosis

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21
Q

What is negative selection?

A

eliminates T cells that bind with high affinity to self antigen

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22
Q

What is the purpose of alternative splicing?

A

yields membrane vs. secretory Ig

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23
Q

What is the purpose of differential splicing

A

produces different Ig isotypes

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24
Q

Where does negative selection occur for T cells?

A

Medulla, which is also where AIRE functions

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25
Q

T cell death through neglect is mediated by what?

A

Caspase 9

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26
Q

What does caspase 8 do?

A

induced by repeated activation; increases expression of Fas/FasL

27
Q

What markers identify monocytes?

A

CD14, CD16

28
Q

What stimulates macrophage growth?

A

GM-CSF, monocyte colony stimulating factor

29
Q

LPS binds to what on macrophages?

A

CD14, which is also a component of TLR4

30
Q

What cytokine secreted by macrophages promotes granuloma formation?

A

TNFα

31
Q

Which syndrome is characterized by high fever, hepatosplenomegaly, high ferritin and triglycerides and low fibrinogen?

A

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)

32
Q

Birbeck granules identify which subset of dendritic cells?

A

Langerhans

33
Q

What markers identify dendritic cells?

A

B7.1 and B7.2 (CD80/CD86) - interacts with CD 28 on T cells to provide costimulation

34
Q

What is the target of imatinib?

A

Kit (CD117) - receptor for cytokine stem cell factor

35
Q

What markers identify mast cells?

A

kit (CD117), CD34

36
Q

Which proto-oncogene is implicated in systemic mastocytosis?

A

c-kit, codes for kit

37
Q

Which mast cell subset secretes only tryptase and where is it found?

A

MCt; found in respiratory and intestinal mucosa

38
Q

Which mast cell subset secretes only chymase and where is it found?

A

MCc - found in lymph nodes, intestinal submucosa and salivary glands

39
Q

Which mast cell subset secretes tryptase and chymase and where is it found?

A

MCtc - found in skin, eyes, blood vessels

40
Q

What are the components of the IgE receptor?

A

α chain - binds to IgE
β chain
γ chain - signalling component

41
Q

Which mediators released by mast cells are preformed?

A

Histamine, tryptase, carboxypeptidase, chymase, heparin, TNF

42
Q

Which mediators released by mast cells are lipid-derived?

A

Prostaglandin D2, Leukotriene C4 and B4, Platelet-activating factor

43
Q

What type of tryptase is elevated in anaphylaxis?

A

β-tryptase

44
Q

Which mast cell mediator is both preformed and produced in the late phase?

A

TNF

45
Q

Which mediators are produced by mast cells but not basophils?

A

tryptase, chymase, carboxypeptidase, heparin, PGD2, LTB4

46
Q

What is contained in primary eosinophil granules

A

Charcot-Leyden crystals

47
Q

What is used to detect the recent presence of eosinophils?

A

major basic protein

48
Q

Eosinophils migrate to tissues in response to what?

A

RANTES (CCL-5) and eotaxin

49
Q

What is contained in secondary eosinophil granules

A

major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin

50
Q

What is the #1 cause of peripheral eosinophilia in the US and worldwide, respectively?

A

drugs, parasitic infections

51
Q

Neutrophils migrate into tissues via what?

A

IL-8 (CXCL-8), Sialyl-Lewis X, E & P selectin, LFA-1/ICAM-1

52
Q

Neutrophil survival, differentiation and proliferation are stimulated by what?

A

IL-3, GM-CSF, G-CSF

53
Q

Which neutrophil granules are enlarged in Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Primary granules

54
Q

Which neutrophil granules are absent in specific granule deficiency?

A

Secondary granules

55
Q

Which helper T cell secretes cytokines that activate neutrophils?

A

Th17 cells

56
Q

Classify mild, moderate and severe neutropenia by absolute neutrophil count

A

mild:

57
Q

What markers identify NK T cells?

A

CD3, CD16, CD56 and usually CD4

58
Q

Which subset of dendritic cells produces type 1 IFN during viral infections?

A

Plasmacytoid

59
Q

Which X-linked disorder is characterized by small platelet volumIe, thrombocytopenia, eczema and infections?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

60
Q

ITP is due to antibodies to what?

A

Platelet GP2b3a - platelets are abnormally large

61
Q

TTP is is due to autoantibodies to what?

A

ADAMTS13

62
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is due to antibodies against what?

A

PF4

63
Q

Which chemokines produced by keratinocytes are responsible for homing T cells to the skin? What are the corresponding receptors on the T cells?

A

CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC);

cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA), CCR4 and CCR10

64
Q

What are the ligands for integrins?

A

ICAM and VCAM

65
Q

What is the ligand for L-selectin?

A

Lialyl-Lewin X on high endothelial venules

66
Q

What surface markers on the high endothelial venules and naive T cells are responsible for homing to the lymph nodes?

A

CCL19 and CCL21 on high endothelial venule and CCR7 on the naive T cell

Tao Le A/I Board Review (11 decks)

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