Cells involved in Immune Responses

Question 0

What are the markers that identify B cells?

Answer 0

CD19, CD20, CD 21

Question 1

Tregs use this to suppress other T cells

Answer 1

Cytotoxic T lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA4)

Question 3

Transcription factors Tbet and STAT4 drive production of what T cell subset?

Answer 3

Th1

Question 4

Transcription factors GATA3 and STAT6 drive production of what T cell subset?

Answer 4

Th2

Question 4

Tfh cells help B cells make antibody through transcription factor Bcl-6. What does Bcl-6 do?

Answer 4

Causes down regulation of CCR7 and a upregulation of CXCR5

Question 5

Which cells are induced by IL-6 and function in neutrophil recruitment and extracellular defense?

Answer 5

Th17

Question 6

What do CD8 cells use to kill infected cells?

Answer 6

Perforin and granzyme

Question 7

Which interleukin is involved in NK cell development?

Answer 7

IL-15

Question 8

Which cellular markers identity NK cells?

Answer 8

CD16, CD56 (NCAM), natural cytotoxic receptors, killer inhibitory receptors. NOT CD3!

Question 10

Which interleukin activates transcription factors Tbet and STAT4?

Answer 10

IL-12

Question 11

Which interleukin activates transcription factors GATA3 and STAT6?

Answer 11

IL-4

Question 11

Which interleukin activates transcription factors RORγT and STAT3?

Answer 11

IL-6, TGF-β

Question 12

What type of antigens do you NKT cells recognize?

Answer 12

Glycolipids on CD1

Question 13

Transcription factors RORγT and STAT3 drive production of what T cell subset?

Answer 13

Th17

Question 14

Transcription factors FOXP3 and STAT5 drive production of what T cell subset?

Answer 14

Treg

Question 15

Which cytokines activate transcription factors FOXP3 and STAT5?

Answer 15

TGF-β, IL-10

Question 16

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides during junctional diversity?

Answer 16

TdT

Question 17

Which enzymes cleave double-stranded DNA between coding segments and its recombination signal sequence?

Answer 17

RAG1/RAG2

Question 18

What is the function of Artemis?

Answer 18

opens DNA hairpin at random site

Question 19

Which enzyme removes nucleotides for junctional diversity?

Answer 19

endonuclease

Question 20

What is positive selection?

Answer 20

ensures T cell is able to interact with MHC to avoid apoptosis

Question 21

What is negative selection?

Answer 21

eliminates T cells that bind with high affinity to self antigen

Question 22

What is the purpose of alternative splicing?

Answer 22

yields membrane vs. secretory Ig

Question 23

What is the purpose of differential splicing

Answer 23

produces different Ig isotypes

Question 24

Where does negative selection occur for T cells?

Answer 24

Medulla, which is also where AIRE functions

Question 25

T cell death through neglect is mediated by what?

Answer 25

Caspase 9

Question 26

What does caspase 8 do?

Answer 26

induced by repeated activation; increases expression of Fas/FasL

Question 27

What markers identify monocytes?

Answer 27

CD14, CD16

Question 28

What stimulates macrophage growth?

Answer 28

GM-CSF, monocyte colony stimulating factor

Question 29

LPS binds to what on macrophages?

Answer 29

CD14, which is also a component of TLR4

Question 30

What cytokine secreted by macrophages promotes granuloma formation?

Answer 30

TNFα

Question 31

Which syndrome is characterized by high fever, hepatosplenomegaly, high ferritin and triglycerides and low fibrinogen?

Answer 31

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH)

Question 32

Birbeck granules identify which subset of dendritic cells?

Answer 32

Langerhans

Question 33

What markers identify dendritic cells?

Answer 33

B7.1 and B7.2 (CD80/CD86) - interacts with CD 28 on T cells to provide costimulation

Question 34

What is the target of imatinib?

Answer 34

Kit (CD117) - receptor for cytokine stem cell factor

Question 35

What markers identify mast cells?

Answer 35

kit (CD117), CD34

Question 36

Which proto-oncogene is implicated in systemic mastocytosis?

Answer 36

c-kit, codes for kit

Question 37

Which mast cell subset secretes only tryptase and where is it found?

Answer 37

MCt; found in respiratory and intestinal mucosa

Question 38

Which mast cell subset secretes only chymase and where is it found?

Answer 38

MCc - found in lymph nodes, intestinal submucosa and salivary glands

Question 39

Which mast cell subset secretes tryptase and chymase and where is it found?

Answer 39

MCtc - found in skin, eyes, blood vessels

Question 40

What are the components of the IgE receptor?

Answer 40

α chain - binds to IgE β chain γ chain - signalling component

Question 41

Which mediators released by mast cells are preformed?

Answer 41

Histamine, tryptase, carboxypeptidase, chymase, heparin, TNF

Question 42

Which mediators released by mast cells are lipid-derived?

Answer 42

Prostaglandin D2, Leukotriene C4 and B4, Platelet-activating factor

Question 43

What type of tryptase is elevated in anaphylaxis?

Answer 43

β-tryptase

Question 44

Which mast cell mediator is both preformed and produced in the late phase?

Answer 44

TNF

Question 45

Which mediators are produced by mast cells but not basophils?

Answer 45

tryptase, chymase, carboxypeptidase, heparin, PGD2, LTB4

Question 46

What is contained in primary eosinophil granules

Answer 46

Charcot-Leyden crystals

Question 47

What is used to detect the recent presence of eosinophils?

Answer 47

major basic protein

Question 48

Eosinophils migrate to tissues in response to what?

Answer 48

RANTES (CCL-5) and eotaxin

Question 49

What is contained in secondary eosinophil granules

Answer 49

major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil peroxidase, eosinophil-derived neurotoxin

Question 50

What is the #1 cause of peripheral eosinophilia in the US and worldwide, respectively?

Answer 50

drugs, parasitic infections

Question 51

Neutrophils migrate into tissues via what?

Answer 51

IL-8 (CXCL-8), Sialyl-Lewis X, E & P selectin, LFA-1/ICAM-1

Question 52

Neutrophil survival, differentiation and proliferation are stimulated by what?

Answer 52

IL-3, GM-CSF, G-CSF

Question 53

Which neutrophil granules are enlarged in Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

Answer 53

Primary granules

Question 54

Which neutrophil granules are absent in specific granule deficiency?

Answer 54

Secondary granules

Question 55

Which helper T cell secretes cytokines that activate neutrophils?

Answer 55

Th17 cells

Question 56

Classify mild, moderate and severe neutropenia by absolute neutrophil count

Answer 56

mild:

Question 57

What markers identify NK T cells?

Answer 57

CD3, CD16, CD56 and usually CD4

Question 58

Which subset of dendritic cells produces type 1 IFN during viral infections?

Answer 58

Plasmacytoid

Question 59

Which X-linked disorder is characterized by small platelet volumIe, thrombocytopenia, eczema and infections?

Answer 59

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Question 60

ITP is due to antibodies to what?

Answer 60

Platelet GP2b3a - platelets are abnormally large

Question 61

TTP is is due to autoantibodies to what?

Answer 61

ADAMTS13

Question 62

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia is due to antibodies against what?

Answer 62

PF4

Question 63

Which chemokines produced by keratinocytes are responsible for homing T cells to the skin? What are the corresponding receptors on the T cells?

Answer 63

CCL17 (TARC) and CCL22 (MDC); cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA), CCR4 and CCR10

Question 64

What are the ligands for integrins?

Answer 64

ICAM and VCAM

Question 65

What is the ligand for L-selectin?

Answer 65

Lialyl-Lewin X on high endothelial venules

Question 66

What surface markers on the high endothelial venules and naive T cells are responsible for homing to the lymph nodes?

Answer 66

CCL19 and CCL21 on high endothelial venule and CCR7 on the naive T cell