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Tao Le A/I Board Review > Immunologic Mechanisms > Flashcards

Immunologic Mechanisms Flashcards

0
Q

what is a hapten

A

small molecule antigen requiring covalent linkage to a larger carrier to stimulate an immune response

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1
Q

What is the receptor for IL2?

A

CD25

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2
Q

what is a carrier protein

A

macromolecule to which a hapten is bound

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4
Q

what is an adjuvent

A

molecules that enhance the immune response

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5
Q

what is a superantigen

A

antigens that activate a large number of polyclonal T cells (bacterial toxin)

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6
Q

what are anchor residues

A

peptide side chains that bind in the peptide-binding cleft of MHC

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6
Q

Mutation for TAP (transports antigent to ER)

A

produces bare lymphocyte syndrome

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7
Q

deficiency of MHC class I or II causes what disease?

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

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8
Q

what is anergy

A

state of unresponsiveness to antigenic stimulation – weak signal, lack of costimulation

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9
Q

what is tolerance

A

unresponsiveness to antigen

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10
Q

what are tolerogens

A

antigens that induce tolerance

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11
Q

Tregs express these cellular markers

A

CD4, CD25 and FoxP3

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12
Q

what happens in those with an AIRE gene mutation

A

lymphocytes are not deleted or tolerized to endocrine related self-antigen. Causes APS

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13
Q

Tolerance is maintained by secretion of what

A

IL-10 and TGFβ

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14
Q

FoxP3 mutation leads to this disease

A

IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy X-linked) syndrome

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15
Q

Characteristics of IPEX

A

watery diarrhea, eczema, endocrinopathy, immune dysregulation

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16
Q

what is the mutation in ALPS (autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome)

A

FAS or caspase 10

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17
Q

Characteristics of ALPS

A

lack of tolerance leads to autoimmunity; lymphocytes don’t die

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18
Q

Which IgG subclass has the shortest half life

A

IgG3

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19
Q

what is rheumatiod factor

A

antibody against Fc portion of IgG. Typically IgM

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20
Q

Which immunoglobulin fixes complement most efficiently

A

IgM

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21
Q

Somatic hypermutation leads to changes in what

A

variable region, not constant region

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22
Q

Class switching leads to changes in what

A

constant region, not variable region

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23
Q

How does alternative splicing change Ig

A

changes from transmembrane to secretary form

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24
Q

XLPS (X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome) is due to a mutation in what

A

SAP (SLAM-associated protein)

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25
Q

Which TLR binds LPS

A

TLR4

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26
Q

Which TLRs are present in the intracellular compartment and implicated in HSV1 encephalitis

A

TLR 3, 7, 8, 9

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27
Q

Cyclosporine inhibits calcineurin and blocks NFAT activation by binding to what

A

cyclophilin

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28
Q

Gene 17q12-21 codes for

A

ORMDL3 - SNPs = increased asthma risk

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29
Q

Gene 5q22-32 codes for

A

CD14; LPS receptor - SNPs = increased and decreased risk of asthma and atopy

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30
Q

Gene 3p21-22 codes for

A

CCR5 chemokine receptor - SNPs = protection against non-atopic asthma

31
Q

Gene Xp22 codes for

A

TLR 7 and 8 - SNPs = increased risk of all atopic disease

32
Q

Gene 5q31 codes for

A

IL-13; SNP = increased risk of asthma, linked to response to montelukast

33
Q

Gene ADRB2 codes for

A

Beta2-adrenergic receptor - SNP = decreased response to albuterol

34
Q

Gene ADAM33 codes for

A

Type 1 Transmembrane protein - SNP = increased risk of asthma

35
Q

Cytokines inducing IgG1 production; IgG1 fxn

A

IFNγ, IL-4; opsonization & complement fixation

36
Q

Cytokines inducing IgG2 production; IgG2 fxn

A

IFNγ, TGFβ; Antipolysaccharide antibody

37
Q

Cytokines inducing IgG3 production; IgG3 fxn

A

IFNγ; opsonization & complement fixation

38
Q

Cytokines inducing IgG4 production; IgG4 fxn

A

IL-4, IL-13; Antipolysaccharide antibody

39
Q

Cytokines inducing IgA production; IgA fxn

A

TGFβ, IL-5; mucosal immunity (IgA1 serum and respiratory, IgA2 GI)

40
Q

IgM fxn

A

complement fixation; primary response

41
Q

Cytokines inducing IgE production; IgE fxn

A

IL-4, IL-13; allergic response

42
Q

Receptors on T cells for B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) and effect

A

CD28 (activation of naive cells) and CTLA4 (CD152 - tolerance)

43
Q

Receptors on T cells for ICOS-L and effect

A

ICOS - costimulation of effector T cells

44
Q

Receptors on T cells for CD40 and effect

A

CD40L - APC activation, germinal center dev., class switching

45
Q

Receptors on T cells for PD-L1/PD-L2 and effect

A

PD-1 - negative regulation, cell death

46
Q

NKT cells recognize what type of antigen, presented on what?

A

lipids on CD1

47
Q

What is the function of Lck

A

T cell receptor signaling (tyrosine kinase) associated with CD4/CD8

48
Q

Function of SAP (SLAM-associated protein)

A

Links SLAM to Fyn in T-cell signaling

49
Q

What is the function of Fyn

A

T cell receptor signaling (tyrosine kinase) associated with CD3

50
Q

binding sites for TCR on MHC I and II, respectively

A

α3 and β2

51
Q

where are antigens loaded onto MHC class I?

A

endoplasmic reticulum

52
Q

where are antigens loaded onto MHC class II?

A

Phagolysosome

53
Q

which molecules are part of the Ig superfamily?

A

TCR, MHC, CD4, CD8, CD19, B7-1, B7-2, Fc receptors, KIR, VCAM-1

54
Q

which Ig class has the highest total body concentration?

A

IgA

55
Q

ZAP-70 deficiency results in what

A

T-, B+, NK+ SCID with no CD8 cells

56
Q

CD21 on B cell function

A

enhances BCR signal by binding C3d

57
Q

what are the CD molecules that make up the BCR complex?

A

CD21, CD19, CD81

58
Q

function of IL-12

A

promotes differentiation of CD4 into TH1

59
Q

function of IL-15

A

survival f memory CD8 T cells, NK cells and NK-T cells

60
Q

function of IL-23

A

promotes differentiation and maintenance of T cells that product IL-17

61
Q

function of TGFβ

A

inhibits T cell proliferation and effector functions

62
Q

which chemokine receptor is associated with WHIM (warts, hypogam, infxn, myelokathexis) syndrome

A

CXCR4

63
Q

Receptor for CCL5 (RANTES)

A

CCR 1,3,5

64
Q

receptor for CCL11 (eotaxin)

A

CCR3

65
Q

Receptor for CCL17 (TARC)

A

CCR4

66
Q

Receptor for CXCL8 (IL-8)

A

CXCR 1,2

67
Q

which integrin is important for gut homing by binding to MAdCAM?

A

α4β7

68
Q

which complement is the most potent mediator of basophil and cutaneous mast cell degranulation?

A

C5a

69
Q

which complement receptor is implicated in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

CD55 (DAF); CD59

70
Q

which complement deficiency is X-linked?

A

Properdin

71
Q

which receptor facilitates transport of IgA across the epithelium in the gut?

A

Poly-Ig-receptor

72
Q

Type of rejection associated with preformed ABO antibodies, HLA antibodies, and complement

A

hyperacute rejection

73
Q

type of rejection involving non-complement fixing antibodies resulting in hemorrhage

A

Accelerated rejection

74
Q

type of rejection T-cell and antibody mediated

A

Acute rejection

75
Q

type of rejection leading to fibrosis and delayed type hypersensitivity in vessel walls, mediated by antibodies

A

Chronic rejection

Tao Le A/I Board Review (11 decks)

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