Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE Step 1-2015 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Km

A

proportional to 1/affininty of enzyme of substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vmax

A

proportional to enzyme conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vd=

A

amount of drug in body/plasma conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clearance

A

rate of elimination of drug/plamsa drug conc: Vd*Ke (elimination constant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Half life

A

t1/2=0.7*Vd/Clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Loading dose/maintenance dose

A

Loading dose=CpVd/F, Maintenance dose=CpCL*dosage interval/F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amount of half lives to reach steady state

A

4-5 half lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is dosage interval constant and Cp constant

A 
Dosage interval (time between doses), if not administered continuously
Cp-target plasma concentration in steady state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 drugs that have zero order elimination

A

Phenytoin, Ethanol, Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treat weak acid overdose with?

A

Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treat weak base overdose with?

A

Ammonium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phase geriatric patients lose first?

A

Phase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Therapeutic index equation

A

TD50/TE50=median toxic tose/median effective dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drugs with lower therapeutic index

A

Digoxin, warfarin, lithium, theophylline “THEO, DIEGO went to WAR over LITHIUM”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Competitive antagonist example

A

Diazepam (agonist + flumazenil (competitive antagonist) on GABA receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist example

A

Norepinephrine (agonist) + phenoxybenzamine (noncompetitive antagonist on alpha receptor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Example of partial agonist

A

Morphine (full agonist) vs. buprenorphine (partial agonist) at opioid mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Prevents ACh packaging in vesicles

A

Vesamicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prevents NE release for noradrenergic axon

A

a2 negative feedack, bretylium, guanethidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prevents tyrosine to DOPA conversion

A

metyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Postoperative ileus, neurogenic ileus, urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Constricts pupil and relieves intraocular pressure in glaucoma

A

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Challenge test for diagnosis of asthma

A

Methacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, and saliva. Open- and closed angle glaucoma. Open angle constricts what and close angle constricts what?

A

Pilocarbine

Open-ciliary muscle contraction
Closed-pupillary sphincter muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alzheimer disease help increasing ACh

A

Donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium (extremely short acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of NMJ blockade (post operative)

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AChe that penetrates CNS

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

AChe that does not penetrate CNS

A

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When giving cholinomimetic agents, what 3 things do you have to watch out for exacerbation of

A

COPD, asthma, peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Organophosphate poisoning symptoms and what does it inhibit

A

Irreversible inhibits AChe

Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bradycardia, Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, Lacrimation, Sweating, Salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Atropine vs Pralidoxime

A

Atroprine reverses muscaraninc effects but does not prevent development of nicotinic effects such as muscle paralysis
Pralidoxime is only medication that reverses both muscarininc and nicotinic effects of organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Produces mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treats acute dystonia in parkinson

A

Benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Use parenterally: preoperative use to reduce airway secretions. Orally: drooling, peptic ulcer

A

Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antispasmodic for irritable bowel syndrome

A

Hyoscyamine, dicyclomine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Used for COPD, asthma to help decrease bronchoconstriction

A

Ipratropium, tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reduces bladder spasms and urge urinary incontinence (overactive bladder)

A

Oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Used for motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Atropine poisoning treatment

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Used to treat bradycardia and for ophthalmic applications

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Atropine effects on

Eye, airway, stomach, gut, bladder

A

Mydriasis+cycloplegia, decrease secretions, decrease acid production, decrease motility, decrease urgency in cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Atropine toxicity

A

increase temp, dry, flushing, cycloplegia, disorientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Consequence of mydriasis in atropine toxicity

A

angle-closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hot feels cold and cold feels hot diagnosis

A

temperature related dysesthesia specific finding for ciguatoxin from ciguatera fish poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Toxin that binds fast voltage-gated Na+ channels in cardiac and nerve tissue, preventing depolarization

A

Tetrodotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MOA of patient with anaphylaxis like presentation who consumed dark meet fish and reasoning

A

Histidine in enteric system converted via bacterial histidine decarboxylase to histamine and histamine is not degraded by fish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Used for acute asthma

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Used for long term asthma and COPD control

A

Salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Albuterol, salmeterol receptor effect

A

B2>B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dobutamine

A

B1>B2, alpha

52
Q

Dopamine

A

D1=D2>B>alpha

53
Q

Epinephrine

A

B>alpha

54
Q

Isoproterenol

A

B1=B2

55
Q

Norepinephrine

A

alpha1>alpha2>beta1

56
Q

Phenylephrine

A

alpha1>alpha2

57
Q

Hypertensive urgency, ADHDm tourette syndrome

A

Clonidine

58
Q

Hypertenision in pregnancy

A

alpha methyl dopa

59
Q

Used to treat pheochromocytoma (preoperatively) to prevent catecholamine (hypertensive) crisis and MOA

A

Phenoxybenzamine via alpha blockade

60
Q

Used to treat patients who eat tyramine-containing foods who are on MAO inhibitors

A

Phentolamine

61
Q

Used for depression and is a alpha 2 selective antagonist

Side effects?

A

Mirtazapine

Sedation, increase serum cholesterol, increase appetite

62
Q

Urinary symptoms of BPH

Side effects?

A

Terazosin, tamsulosin

1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache

63
Q

Toxin:Acetaminophen

Antidote/treatment:

A

N-acetylcystenine (replenishes glutathione)

64
Q

Toxin: AChE inhibitor/organophosphate

Antidote/treatment:

A

Atropine>pralidoxime

65
Q

Toxin: Amphetamines

Antidote/ treatment:

A

NH4Cl

66
Q

Toxin: Antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents

Antidote/treatment:

A

Physostigmine

67
Q

Toxin: Benzodiazepines

Antidote/treatment:

A

Flumazenil

68
Q

Toxin: Beta blockers

Antidote/treatment:

A

Glucagon

69
Q

Toxin Carbon monoxide

Antidote/treatment:

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

70
Q

Toxin: Copper, arsenic, gold

Antidote/treatment:

A

Penicillamine

71
Q

Toxin: Cyanine

Antidote/treatment:

A

Nitrite+thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

72
Q

Digitalis (digoxin)

Antidote/treatmetn

A

Anti-dig Fab fragments

73
Q

Heparin

Antidote/treatment

A

Protamine sulfate

74
Q

Iron

Antidote/treatment

A

Deferoxamine, deferasirox

75
Q

Lead

Antidote/treatment

A

EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer.

76
Q

Toxin: Mercury, arsenic gold

Antidote/treatment

A

Dimercaprol

77
Q

Methanol, ethylne glycol

Antidote/treatment

A

Fomepizol>ethanol

78
Q

Methemoglobin

Antidote/treatment

A

Methylene blue, vitamin C

79
Q

Opioids

Antidote/treatment

A

Naloxone, naltrexone

80
Q

Salicylates, TCA

Antidote/treatment

A

NaHCO3

81
Q

tPA, streptokinase urokinase

Antidote/treatment

A

Aminocaproic acid

82
Q

Warfarin

Antidote/treatment

A 
Vitamin K (delayed)
fresh frozen plasma (immediate)
83
Q

Category: azole

A

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor

84
Q

Category: bendazole

A

Antiparasitic/antihelmintic

85
Q

Category: cillin

A

Peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor

86
Q

Category: cycline

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor

87
Q

Category ivir

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

88
Q

Category: navir

A

Protease inhibitor

89
Q

Category: ovir

A

DNA polymerase inhibitor

90
Q

Category: thromycin

A

Macrolide antibiotic

91
Q

Category: ane

A

Inhalaed anesthetic

92
Q

Category: azine

A

Typical antipsychotic

93
Q

Category: barbital

A

Barbiturate

94
Q

Category: caine

A

Local anesthetic

95
Q

Category: etine

A

SSRI

96
Q

Category: ipramine, triptyline

A

TCA

97
Q

Category: triptan

A

5HT 1B/1D agonists

98
Q

Category: zepam, zolam

A

Benzodiazepine

99
Q

Category: chol

A

Cholinergic agonist

100
Q

Category: curium, curonium

A

Nondepolarizing paralytic

101
Q

Category: olol

A

Beta blocker

102
Q

Category: stigmine

A

AChe inhibitor

103
Q

Category: terol

A

B2 agonist

104
Q

Category: zosin

A

alpha1 antagonist

105
Q

Category: afil

A

PDE5 inhibitor

106
Q

Category: dipine

A

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

107
Q

Category: pril

A

ACE inhibitor

108
Q

Category: sartan

A

Angiotensin-II receptor blocker

109
Q

Category: statin

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

110
Q

Category: dronate

A

Bisphosphonate

111
Q

Category: glitazone

A

PPAR-gamma activator

112
Q

Category: prazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

113
Q

Category: prost

A

Prostaglanding analog

114
Q

Category: tidine

A

H2 antagonist

115
Q

Category: tropin

A

Pituitary hormone

116
Q

Category: ximab

A

Chimeric monoclonal Ab

117
Q

Category: zumab

A

Humanized monoclonal Ab

118
Q

CP450 Inducers

A

Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Barbiturates, Rifampin, St. Johns wort, Chronic alcoholism “Guinness, Corona, and PBRS induce chronic alcoholism”

119
Q

CP450 inhibitors

A

Cimetidine, Ritonavir, AMiodarone, Ciprofloxacin, Ketoconazole, Acute alcohol use, Macrolides, Isoniazid, Grapefruit juice, Omeprazole, Sulfonamides “CRACK AMIGOS”

120
Q

Substrates for CYP450

A

Anti-epileptics, Theophylline, Warfarin, OCPs (Always Think When Outdoors)

121
Q

Sulfa drugs

A

Probenecid, Furosemide, Acetazolamide, Celecoxib, Thiazides, Sulfonamide antibiotitics, Sulfasalazine, Sulfonyurease (Popular FACTSSS)

122
Q

Release of ACh at NMJ depends on what ion to allow for release?

A

Ca2+ influx into presynaptic terminal secondary to VG calcium channels opening when action potential depolarizes causing influx of extracellular calcium

123
Q

How can there be peripheral blood vessel vasodilation even though blood vessels do not have cholinergic innervation?

A

Muscarinic agonists are present on endothelial surface binding cholinomimetic agents to these receptors that promotes release of NO (EDRF). NO activates guanylate cyclase–>increase intracellular cGMP. cGMP acticates Ca pump and causes Ca efflux from cell and with decrease calcium concentration–>vascular smooth muscle relaxation

124
Q

What channel does cocaine block preventing its reuptake?

A

Na+/K+ ATPase

125
Q

Why do non-selctive blockers exacerbate hypoglycemia?

A

They mask its adrenergic symptoms and for this reason should not be used in diabetes mellitus. Adrenergic symptoms include sweating tremor palpitations hunger nervounsess due to NE/ Epi release. Non-selective B-blockers inhibit compensatory reactions to hypoglycemia by blocking NE/Epi. Instead, selective B1 antagonists should be used because they dont block metabolic sympathetic effects

126
Q

B-blocker used for CHF

A

Nonselective (carvedilol, labetolol)

USMLE Step 1-2015 (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions