PHARMACOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

what medications can increase methadone effect

A

fluconazole, voriconazole, ketoconazole
ciprofloxacin
clarithromycin
cimetidine
fluvoxamine

mu-opioid receptor agonist. Metabolised by CYP450 (CYP3A4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what drug used to treat alcohol withdrawal

A

chlordiazepoxide, lorazapam, diazapam (benzodiazapine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what drugs are CI in alcohol withdrawal treatment (due to lowering seizure threshold)

A

antipsychotics (chlorpromazine, haloperidol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

methadone has a ________ half life

A

long

supress withdrawal and cravings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

first line medications to treat alcohol abstinence

A

naltrexone - blocks mu-opioid receptor -> inhibits reward and reduce cravings
acamprosate - moderates glutamate neurotransmission at NMDA receptor

disulfram - aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor (second line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

rebound tremor, anxiety, insomnia, SNS hyperactivity (diaphoresis, palpitations) is seen in wthdrawal of ….

A

benzodiazapines i.e. lorazapam

can also result in psychosis, seizures, death

increased risk with shorter acting agents - alprazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hyperphagia, hypersomnia, intense psychomotor retardation, severe depression (crash), vivid dreams - is seen in withdrawal of …..

A

(stimulants) amphetamines, cocaine

manage suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

phencyclidine is a

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

exact MOA unknown -

predicted NMDA hypofunction causes dopamine dysregulation -> psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what to prescribe patients with acute pain and worreid about opioid addiction

A

short course of opioid based pain meds fo rbreakthrough pain only (most will see improvement 3-5 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFN is used to treat

A

RNA and DNA viruses

i.e. kaposi sarcoma, HBV

(interferon = ‘interferes’ with replication in host cell)

Downregulates protein synthesis. upregulates MHC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

anticholinesterases

A

‘stigmine’
physostigmine
neostigmine
pyridostigmine
donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

(indirect agonists of Ach)

prevent (anti) breakdown (ases) of Ach (choline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antidote to anticholinergic toxicity

A

physostigmine

‘phyxes’ atropine overdose

anticholinergic (anti Ach) -> physostigmine (increases Ach) by inhibiting anticholinesterases (prevents Ach breakdown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

anticholinesterase poisoning antidote

A

atropine - competitive inhibitor (muscarinic anatgonist)
pralidoxime - regenerates AchE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

alpha-2 agonists

A

clonidine, guanfacine
a-methyldopa
tizanidine

hypertensive emergency, ADHD
mypertension in pregnancy
spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

drugs affecting microtubules

A

mebendazole (helminth)
griseofulvin (fungal)
colchicine (gout)
vinca alkaloids (cancer)
taxanes (cancer)

kinesin and dynein transport cellular cargo along icrotubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what effect does vitamin K have on clotting factors

A

y-carboxylation of glutamic residues

post-translational modification

y-carboxylation essential for clotting factor maturation 1972, S, C

epoxide reducase in liver regenerates active vit K for ‘gamma carboxylation’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

meningitis in elderly is treated with

A

vancomycin (G+)
cephtriazone (G-)
ampicillin (coveres listeria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

listeria monocytogenes treated with

A

ampicillin

penicillinase sensitive penacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment of brucellosis

A

tetracyclines
rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment AML

A

all-trans retinoic acid (vit A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment CML

A

Imatinib

tyrosine kinase inhibitor -> (stops t9;22) translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment ALL

A

cytarabine

pyrimidine analog - nucleoside analog (mimics cytasine) - inhibits DNA s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatment CLL

A

comfort,
rituximab (CD20)

fludarabine, clyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, alemtuzamab

rituximab - monoclonal Ab, associated with an increased risk of PML, a demyelinating disease of the CNS caused by the destruction of oligodendrocytes secondary to reactivation of JC virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

increased risk of PML

JC virus reactivation

A

rituximab
natalizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

treatment of DLBCL

A

R-CHOP
Riuximab (CD20+) -
Cyclophosphamide
Hydroxydaunorubicin (adriamycin)
Oncovin® (
vincristine
)
Prednisone

rituximab added for B cell

treats non-Hodgkin lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a concerning feature of neoplastic process in lymph nodes

A

lymphocytes with a single immunoglobulin variable domain allele - (monoclonal)

single cell dividing uncontrollably, produces identical copies of itself

polyclonal - normal response to infection, many B cells mlutify, producing slightly different antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

purine analog that mimics adenosine

A

cladribine
unable to be processed by ADA
treats hairy cell leukaemia

inhibits nucleotide metabolism.
inferes with DNA synthesis

cell cycle non-specific*
‘I’m ‘clad’ you’re ‘hairy’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what drug is resistant to breakdown by adenosine deaminase

A

cladribine

hairy cell leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

hydroxyurea is used to treat

A

sickle cell anaemia
polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

causes aplastic anaemia

still used to treat bacterial meningitis in resource-poor countries

A

chloramphenicol

H. influenzae
N. meningiditis
S. pneumoniae

also causes ‘grey baby syndrome’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

blood in urine, but no RBC in urinalysis

A

haemoglobinuria
myoglobinuria

i.e. PNH

true hematuria - blood and RBC in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

monobactams used to treat

A

aerobic gram negative rods

enterobacter …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

NRTI’s lack a ? group

A

3’ hydroxyl

terminates chain

HIV reverse transcriptase normally adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand via a 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond

Since NRTIs resemble natural nucleosides but lack the 3’-OH, they act as chain terminators,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

name two first line cephalosporins

A

cefazolin
cefalexin

‘azolin’ ‘lexin’

‘a stolen lexus’

β-lactam drugs, bactericidal
inhibit cell wall synthesis
less susceptible to penicillinases

Tx gram (+) PEcK
Proteus mirabilis
E coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

**MOA: **
reversible binding 50S
interrupt peptidyl transferase
**Tx: **
gram (+) and (-)
rocky spotted mountain fever
meningitis

A

chloramphenicol

aplastic anaemia
gray baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

treats gram (+) skin infections
can cause myopathy

can treat MRSA

A

daptomycin

dapt-myo-skin

CONTRAINDICATED in pneumonia (deactivated by surfactant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

tamoxifen can cause

A

endometrial polyps
endometrial cancer

partial agonists: pro-oestrogen effects on endometrium, bone

anti-oestrogen effects on breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DES - diethylsetilbestrol can cause

A

adenosis

persistance of columnar epithelium in vaginal canal

can lead to clear cell adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what drug decreases vaso-occlusive crises by increasing HbF

A

hydroxyurea

sickle cell

40
Q

adverse and serious adverse effects of carbamazepine

CARBAMAZEPINE

A

C - CNS - vomiting, D’s (dizziness, diplopia, diarrhoea)
A - aplastic anaemia, agranulocytosis
R - rash (face to trunk) - SJS, DRESS
B - blood - pancytopenias
A - ADH - SIADH
M - megaloblastic (rare)
A - autoinduction (induces own CYP450)
Z - sedative zzzz
E - enzyme inducer - CYP450
P - pregnancy (teratogenic), periheral neuropathy
I - increased liver enzymes (hepatotoxicity)
N - nutrition -* folate depletion*, nytagmus
E - oedema

41
Q

MOA of flutamide

A

impairs androgen-receptor interaction

non-steroid agent
competitive testosterone receptor inhibitor

used in combo with GnRH agonists to treat prostate cancer

42
Q

first line pharmacotherapy for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

spironolactone
eplerenone

mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist

eplerenone (less gynacomastica, decreased libido)

43
Q

BPH (leading to bladder outlet obstruction) can cause increased pressure presenting as

histology

A

hydronephrosis
renal parenchymal atrophy
scarring

can progress to CKD

44
Q

(RCC)
what are the risk factors

A

smoking, obesity, HTN

round polygonal clear cells

toxin exposure - heavy metals

45
Q

seen in

hematuria
renal mass
LBP weight loss
lytic bone lesion vertebrae
smokes drinks

A

renal cell carcinoma
(rounded polygonal clear cells)

46
Q

bilateral pitting oedema
no abdomen distension
tortuous veins lower abdomen
left flank mass
smoker

A

renal cell carcinoma
invasion of IVC

RCC tends to invade renal vein -> by extension will invade IVC

key features :
bilateral oedema LL
abdominal walls collaterals

47
Q

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and
systemic symptoms

48
Q

what can occur if chronic glucocorticoid use is stopped abruptly

A

adrenal insufficiency

49
Q

ivermectin

A

Tx parasites
disrupt microtubles and cellular motility

50
Q

what is used to prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

nimodepine

short acting CCB t1/2 <2hrs

51
Q

adverse effects of bisphosphonates

A

oesophagitis
osteonecrosis jaw
atypical femoral stress fractures

52
Q

Use of leucovorin (with methotrexate)

A

rescues normal cells from methotrexate toxicity bypasses dihydrofolate reductase (methotrexate acts on)
replenishes reduced folate levels

works like folate to reduce myelosuppression

essential if pt has **renal dysfunction **ie.e high creatinine - toxicity, reduced clearace

giving folate wont suffice - methotrexate will complete with it

must give to pts taking 5FU - increases binding of 5FU wth its target - thymidylate synthase

53
Q

proteasome inhibitors treat

anticancer

A

**multiple myeloma
mantle cells lymphoma

accumulation of proteins -
**apoptosi

arrest cell cyle at G2-M phase via

degrade unfolded and misfoded proteins
bortezomib
ixazomib
carfilzomib
zom

proteasome needed to clear misfolded/unfolded proteins
not cleared i.e. multiple myeloma (plasma cells produce alot of proteins - Igs)
if proteasome inhibitor inhibits this clearance of proteins
-> apoptosis results
(from response of unfolded protein)

54
Q

treatment of multiple myeloma

A

bortezomib
(proteasome inhibitor)

arrests G2-M
protein accumulation
apoptosis

proteasome needed to clear misfolded/unfolded proteins
not cleared i.e. multiple myeloma (plasma cells produce alot of proteins - Igs)
if proteasome inhibitor inhibits this clearance of proteins
-> apoptosis results
(from response of unfolded protein)

55
Q

treatment of babesiosis (borrelia microti)

A

atovaquone +
azithromycin

ring forms or tetrad on giemsa stain

atovaquone - inhibits mitochondrial electron transport
azithromycin - binds 50S, inhibits protein synthesis

56
Q

drug treating muscle cramps
stimulates
Y-aminobutyric acid B receptor

A

Baclofen
(stimulates _GABA _ receptor)

agonist at GABA-B receptor
Tx muscle spasticity i.e. paraplegic

also cause sedation
increase K+ efflux
hyperpolarise sk ms
decrease action potential frequency

57
Q

hypertonic saline must be given slowly and carefully due to risk of

A

central pontine myelinosis

58
Q

MOA of neomycin in hepatic encephalopathy

A

kills bacteria in the gut tht generate ammonia

treats hepatic encephalopathy
NO LONGER USED - AKI, ototoxicity

aminoglycoside AB (inhibits 30S) - prevent translation
killing gram negative flora reduces ammonia
cannot kill anaerobes (as require O2 for uptake)

**Rifaximin now drug of choice

59
Q

what antibiotic is used to treat hyperammonia

A

rifamixin

neomycin no longer used

60
Q

atherosclerosis
abdominal pain after eating
weight loss
PAD
CAD
diminished pedal pulses

A

celiac or mesentierc ischaemia

reduced blood flow to small intestine
acute or chronic

acute = embolic or thrombotic arterial obstruction
chronic = atherosclerotic stenosis (SMA common)
common asssoc findings:
atherosclerotic sequalae - PAD, CAD, pedal pulses

61
Q

Samters triad caused by aspirin

A

aspirin sensitivity
nasal polypopsis
asthma

urticara (hives)

NSAIDS –> inhibit co1 –> decrease PGE2 –> promote 5-lipoxygenase –> increase leukotriene 4 –> increased inflammation

in asthma leukotrienes key mediator of inflammation

62
Q

protease inhibitors function

A

block formation of mature viral core

in HIV replication
prevents maturation

63
Q

treatment of Kawasaki disease

A

high dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulins

normally aspirin CI in children - Reyes syndrome

64
Q

acute treatment of gout (3)

A

NSAIDS (indomethacin)
glucocortoids
colchicine

65
Q

MOA of colchicine

A

inhibit **microtubule polymerisation **–>
decrease **leukocyte motility **and infiltration into joint

tx gout

stabilises tubulin - inhibits microtuble polymerisation

66
Q

treatment of chronic gout (2)

A

allopurinol
febuxostat

xanthine oxidase inhibitors

67
Q

type of crystals in gout

A

needle shaped
negative bifringent

yellow under parallel
blue under perpendicular

polarised light:

calcium pyrphosphate deposition disease (pseudogout)
pseudogout
rhomboid crystals
weakly positive bifringent
blue under parallel light

68
Q

rhomboid crystals
weakly positive bifringent
seen in

A

calcium pyrphosphate deposition disease
(pseudogout)

blue under parallel light

69
Q

MOA of probenecid

A

inhibits PCT reabsorbing uric acid

gout Tx

70
Q

MOA of pegloticase

A

increased uric acid solubility in serum/synovial fluid

recombinant form of urate-oxidase enzyme –> converts uric acid to water soluble metabolite (allantoin)

71
Q

inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

A

fomepizole

Tx of methanol poisoning

**first step **of metabolism
prevents conversion methanol to toxic metabolites

72
Q

inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

disulfiram

not used acute management methanol toxicity

73
Q

name anti-folate medications (4)

A

phenytoin
methotrexate
trimethoprim
dapsone

74
Q

mifepristone MOA & use

A

competitive inhibitor progesterone
dilation of cervix

elective abortion

primes for misoprostol

76
Q

misoprostol MOA & use

A

synthetic prostaglandin
uterine contractions

follows mifepristone

77
Q

main resistance of E coli to B-lactam AB
(i.e. ampicillin)

A

B-lactamase production

penicillinases

main resistance to B-lactam ABs:
**gram negative **= B-lactamase production
**gram positive **= altered structure transpeptidases PBPs
(B-lactam AB can’d bind)

78
Q

main resistance of S pneumoniae to B-lactamase AB
(i.e. ampicillin)

A

altered structure transpeptidases PBPs

main resistance to B-lactam ABs:
**gram negative **= B-lactamase production
**gram positive **= altered structure transpeptidases PBPs
(B-lactam AB can’d bind)

79
Q

klebsiella, pseudomonas, serratia demonstrate B-lactam resistance by mutations in

A

genes coding for porins

80
Q

___ are used by bacteria to decrease intracellular concentrations of AB

(i.e. tetracycline - intracellular working AB)

A

Efflux pumps

used by E coli

81
Q

cyanide inhibits enzyme

A

cytochrome C oxidase

leads to lacrtic acidosis
Inhibits ETC)

82
Q

tachypnoea
hypotension
confusion, lethagy
bradycardia
metabolic acidosis

toxin

A

cyanide poisoning

metabolic acidosis from lactic acidosis caused by cytochrom c inhibition - uncoupling electron tranport chain (ETC)

83
Q

byproduct of sodium pitroprusside

A

cyanide

tx of malignant HTN

84
Q

drugs causing radiation pneumonitis

A

doxorubicin
bleomycin

85
Q

treatment for anorexia nervosa

A

olanzapine

86
Q

treatment for bulimia nervosa

A

fluoxetine

bupeopion CI - increased seizure risk

87
Q

treatment of angina

A

nitroglycerin

vasodilation veins > arteries
decrease Preload

CCB in prinzmetal angina - decrease coronary vasospasm

88
Q

treatments of myocardial infarction

A

aspirin / heparin
nitrates
BB
ACEi
supplemental O2

fibrinolysis / angioplasty (opens blocked vessel)

89
Q

2 adverse risks of fibrinolysis or angioplasty in MI

A

contraction band necrosis
reperfusion injury

CBN: calcium influx –> hypercontraction myofibrils
RI: oxygen –> free radicals –> myocyte damage

90
Q

cabergoline and bromocriptine are

A

dopamine agonists

Tx prolactinomas (reduce tumour size)

91
Q

omeprazole MOA

A

direct & irreversible inhibition of luminal H+/K+ ATPase on gastric parietal cells

= proton pump inhibitors ‘prazole’ drugs
treatment GERD

increased risk C diff infection

92
Q

cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of

A

CYP450

also has:
antiandrogenic effects
cross BBB, placenta

H2 blocker -> decresed recretion parietal cells

93
Q

what family impairs DNA synthesis by direct inhibition of DNA gyrase

A

fluroquinolones
(topioisomerase II in prokaryotes)

Tx legionella pneumophillia - atypical pneumonia

94
Q

long acting opioid known for
prolonging QT interval

95
Q

aripiprazole MOA

A

**partial agonist **D2

atypical antipsychotic (second gen)

less attenuation dopamine in BG
less likely to lead to drug induced parkinsonian symptoms

(locking limbic system - decreases psychotic symptoms)

96
Q

what is the function of cilostazol

A

tx claudication
(peripheral arterial disease)

PDE3 inhibitor (phosphodiesterase III)

decreases CAMP degradation -in platelets / vascular smooth muscle –> increased intracellular CAMP –> increased PKA –> inhibition platelet aggregation
vascular sm - **increased vasodiltion **(inhibition MLCK)