HAEMATOLOGY & ONCOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

what enzyme catalyses final step of coagulation cascade

A

thrombin

factor II, crosslinking occurs via factor XIII

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2
Q

t15;17

A

PML (AML)

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3
Q

t12;21

A

B-ALL

favourable prognosis
(t9;22 poor prognosis)

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4
Q

t8;14

A

Burkitt lymphoma

aggressive non-hogkins lymphoma

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5
Q

t14;18

A

follicular lymphoma
DLBCL

non-hogkin lymphoma (m/c)

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6
Q

t9;22

A

CML
AML
ALL* (poor prognosis)*

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7
Q

CD10+, CD19+, TdT

A

B-ALL

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7
Q

CD3+, CD7+, TdT

A

T-ALL

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8
Q

t9;22
BCR-ABL1
LAP negative

A

CML

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9
Q

CD13+, CD33+, CD117+
MPO
Auer rods

A

AML

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10
Q

CD5+, CD20+, CD23+
smudge cells

A

CLL

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11
Q

what cancers are more prone in Down Sydrome

A

ALL
AML - megakaryoblastic type

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12
Q

risk factors for AML

A

myeloproliferative
Down Syndrome

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13
Q

what cancers can result from radiotherapy

A

**leukaemias: **
AML, MDS (precursor to AML)
**solid: **
breast, lung, bladder
**Children: **
brain, osteosarcoma

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14
Q

what syndrome involves inneffective haematopoesis due to haemopoetic stem cell problem

A

myelodysplatic syndrome

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15
Q

what can myelodysplastic syndromes progress to

A

AML

AML > 20% blasts

MDS <20% blasts

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16
Q

causes of MDS

A

idiopathic 1’
radiation, benzene, chemotherapy 2’

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17
Q

CML can be classed as a

A

myeloproliferative syndrome

driven by BCR-ABL1 mutation, not JAK2 (like other MPS)

TKI treat CML
ruxolitinib treats JAK2

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18
Q

name 4 myeloproliferative conditions

A

polycythemia vera
essential thrombocytopenia
myelofibrosis
CML

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19
Q

proliferation/hyperplasia of megakaryocytes and functionally abnormal platelets

myeloproliferative disorder

A

essential thrombocythemia

(leukocyte count can be normal)

bleeding/clotting, thromboplebitis, thromboembolism, DVT, abortion, hyperviscosity - headache, paraesthesia, lightheaded

differentiate from antiphospholipid syndrome - DVT, abortions but no thrombocythemia (increased megakaryocytes)

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20
Q
A
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21
Q

in CKD, platelet function is disrupted by what

A

inappropriate upregulation of nitric oxide

NO downregulates vWF secretion, reduces ADP and TXA2 levels, inhibits GpIIa/IIIb receptor

(as urea levels rise, arginine and precursors shunted to different pathway guarnidinsuccinic (GSA), precursor to nitrix oxide - high NO inhibits primary haemostasis

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22
Q

what is the precursor amino acid of urea

A

arginine

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23
Q

sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed tingible body macrophages

A

burkitt lymphoma

EBV positive
C-MYC
endemic - jaw
sporadic - ileocecal

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24
skin patches, plaques, itchy rash atypical CD4 cells cribiform nuceli intraepidermal neoplastic cell aggregates
**mycosis fungoides** *cutaneous T cell lymphoma* | can progress to **Sezary syndrome** (T-cell **leukaemia**) ## Footnote **Histology interpretation:** - epidermotropism (atypical T-cells within the epidermis) - pagetoid or linear pattern - Pautrier's microabscesses (clusters of lymphocytes in the epidermis) - atypical lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei
25
B symptoms + painless lymphadenopathy can raise suspicion for ...
**lymphoma**
26
aggressive B cell lymphoma affecting adults CD20+
DLBCL
27
t8;14 translocation result from ____________ of C-MYC gene
overexpression | proto-oncogene
28
hypercalcaemia in Hogkins lymphoma caused by
paraneoplastic: **IFN-Y --> 1a-hydroxylase --> 25D to 1,25D --> calcium reabsorption** | suppresses PTH ## Footnote activated T lymphocytes surrounding reed-sternberg cells secrete IFN-Y Increased 1a-hydroxylase in macrophages and lymphocytes Excessive convernsion 25D -> 1,25D increases intestinal and renal reabsorption calcium hypercalaemia also seen in sarcoidosis, tuberculosis (granulomatous diseases)
29
name causes of **inappropriate absolute polycythemia** | increased EPO
hepatocellular carcinoma renal cell carcinoma polycystic kidney disease pheochromocytoma hemangioblastoma. EPO doping / androgens ## Footnote Increased erythropoietin (EPO) levels + RBC mass (red cell volume) + normal plasma volume & arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) = **secondary polycythemia ** (due to autonomous EPO production or exogenous EPO intake)
30
EPO independant proliferation of myceloid cell lines | increased RBC mass
polycythemia vera ## Footnote **Increased** RBC mass - suppresses EPO **Normal** arterial O2 saturation (SaO2) **Increased** or **normal** plasma volume *Normal SaO2 distinguish PV from types of secondary polycythemia caused by chronic hypoxia.*
31
RBC mass increased O2 sat decreased EPO increased
appropriate absolute polycythemia | lung diease, congenital heart disease, high altitude, OSA ## Footnote hypoxia driven
32
decreased plasma volume normal RBC mass normal O2 sat normal EPO
relative polycythemia | dehydration, burns
33
normal plasma volume increased RBC mass normal O2 sat increased EPO
inappropriate absolute polycythemia | EPO exogenous, androgen supplements, malignancy - RCC, HCC
34
increased plasma volume increased RBC mass normal O2 sat decreased EPO levels
polyythemia vera | negative feedback suppress EPO production ## Footnote JAK2 mutation, 'myeloproliferative neoplasm' clonal proliferation of RBCs increased RBC without increased EPO or hypoxia stimulation
35
blood in urine, but no RBC in urinalysis
haemoglobinuria myoglobinuria | i.e. PNH ## Footnote true **hematuria** - blood and RBC in urine
36
Red urine (no RBCs on dipstick) fatigue abdominal pain (NO depletion - vasoconstriction) jaundice pancytopenia unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice) elevated LDH negative Coombs test venous thrombosis - Budd-Chiari haemolytic anaemia (intravascular)
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) | defect PIGA gene -> CD55, CD59 ## Footnote Tx elicizumab -> targets C5
37
rheumatoid arthritis & reduced response to EPO
anaemia of chronic disease i.e. *(autoimmune disease - inflammation)* | high doses EPO can overcome this
38
EBV infection can be complicated by
**IgM** mediated (**cold**) autoimmune haemolytic anaemia | **C**old is **M**iserable
39
pernicious anaemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor produced by what cells
parietal cells | intrinsic factor required for B12 production
40
exclusively breastfed infant can result in what deficiency
iron deficiency | breastmilk contain very little iron ## Footnote vitamin D and K are also low in breast milk
41
iron overload due to 2' haemochromatosis is a risk in what patients? | hyperpigmentation, fatigue
**beta thalassemia** patients with multiple **transfusions**
42
microcytic hypochromic anaemia, target cells minimal variation in RBC size/shape (**normal RWD**)
**a-**thalassemia (mild-mod) | severe a-thalassemia - hydrops fetalis ## Footnote microcytic hypochromic anaemia, target cells, variable RBC size/shape (**anisocytosis**) = ***iron deficiency***
43
decreased Hb decreased MCV decreased MCHC **decreased ferritin**
iron deficiency anaemia | most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in the **elderly** - CRC ## Footnote can look similar to **thalassemia** or **anaemia of chronic disease** - but this would have **high ferritin**
44
splenomegaly jaundice increased MCHC recent URTI
hereditary spherocytosis autosomal dominant spherocytes | ankyin, spectrin, band defect ## Footnote more prone to **URTI** - because of** splenic dysfunction** - lacks ability to effectively clear **encapsulated bacteria **(*Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis*) - common causes of URTIs
45
complication of infection with E coli O157:H7 is
HUS **haemolytic uremic syndrome** | **shiga toxin (STEC)** inflammation, bloody diarrhoa, vascular damage ## Footnote **triad:** haemolytic anaemia AKI thrombocytopenia **PT **& **PTT normal** (or slight increase)
46
****thrombocytopaenia and **elevated creatinine **caused by gram-negative, oxidase-negative bacteria that does not ferment sorbitol
**haemolytic uremic syndrome** from E coli infection | indicating renal railure normally between 5-13 days after diarrhoea
47
chest pain, dyspnea, splenomegaly, and mild normocytic anemia
vaso-occlusive crisis (sickle cell disease)
48
jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and difficulty breathing | mixing mother blood & infants invitro causes agglutination
autoimmune hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (**HDFN**) (**erythroblastosis fetalis**) ## Footnote The **Rh-negative mother** had a prior pregnancy with an **Rh-positive fetus** results in formation of **maternal IgG antibodies** that can affect future pregnancies.
49
proteins CD55 and CD59 use ? to attach to extracellular surface of cells
GPI anchors ## Footnote proteins act to inhibit complement and prevent host cells from being lysed by nonspecific activation of the complement pathway
50
jaundice hepatosplenomegaly oedema **coombs test (+)** anaemia **nucleated RBCs** extramedullary haeamtopoesis
**haemolytic disease of the newborn** (erythroblastosis foetalis) *oedema (hydrops foetalis)* | destruction of foetal RBC by material antibodies ## Footnote **antibodies cross placenta --> opsonise foetal erythrocytes --> haemolysis** directed against foetal RBC antigens IgG ABs most often Rh incompatability (**Rh- mother **against **Rh+ foetus**)
51
fever chills dyspnoea hypotension back/chest pain haemoglobinuira (red/brown urine) transfusion
acute haemolytic transfusion reaction | symptom of 'shock' vasodilation can experience **DIC** or **renal failur ## Footnote ocurs minutes-hours T2HS often ABO incompatability *i.e. MVA --> transfusion --> reaction seen early*
52
poikilocytosis
abnormally **shaped** RBCs | seen in - i.e. iron deficiency
53
schistocytosis
fragments of RBCs | 'helmet cells' ## Footnote seen in i.e. mechanical destruction
54
Iron in hemoglobin is in **ferric** (Fe3+) state instead of the normal **ferrous** (Fe2+) state
Methemoglobinemia | can be congenital or aquired Methaemoglobin cannot bind O2
55
CO poisoning will show what values of: carboxyhaemoglobin PaO2 methaemoglobin
Carboxyhaemoglobin: **increased** (40%) PaO2: **normal** (95mmHg) Methaemoglobin: **normal** (1%)
56
what does CRAB stand for
hypercalaemia renal insufficiency anaemia bone lytic lesions | multiple myeloma ## Footnote punched out bone lesions bence jones proteins IgG increased cytokines - IL-1, TNF-a, RANK-L increased osteoclast activity intracytoplasmic inclusions (IgG) clock faced chromatin
57
increased platelets & megakaryocytes bleeding and thombosis erythema, warmth, and recurrent burning pain of extremities
essential thryombo**cythemia** | myeloproliferative disease ## Footnote Erythromelalgia - triad of erythema, warmth, and recurrent burning pain of extremities
58
vitamin K is a cofactor for y-glutamyl carboxylase that activates coagulation factors (1972) via...
**post-translational** y-carboxylation | translational ## Footnote vit k deficiency: mucosal bleeding, bruising, prolonged PT, PTT, intestinal diseases assoc with malabsorption ie. IBD
59
migratory thrombophlebitis should raise suspicion for
cancer | **= trosseau syndrome** ## Footnote (**hypercoagulability** = **paraneoplastic** condition of *visceral adenocarcinomas* - pancreas, colon, lung)
60
mature erythrocytes loose their ability to synthesise heme (and thus Hb) when they loose what organelle
**mitochondria** (not present in mature erythrocytes) | mature rbc have no nucleus, ER, golgi, mitochondria ## Footnote mitochondria are present in erythroid precursor cells (neede for stage 1 and 3 of heme synthesis)
61
the paraneoplastic condition polycythemia (increased RBC) is associated with what neoplasms
RCC HCC pheochromocytoma hemangioblastoma leiomyoma | due to increased **EPO** (often tumour secreted) ## Footnote EPO
62
Seen in | Hb 18.5g/dL.
secondary polycythemia (COPD) increased EPO from hypoxia** | **increased Hb plasma volume normal ## Footnote increased **density** of normocytic normochromic erythrocytes no blasts (may indicate myeloproliferative)
63
Stem cell disorders involving ineffective hematopoiesis
myelodysplatic syndrome | <20 **blasts** present Pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly - biloped nuclei neutr ## Footnote de novo mutations drugs - radiation, chemo, benzene
64
define hypersplenism
one or more cytopenias in the setting of splenomegaly cirrhosis portal HTN | common complication of; ## Footnote **overactive** spleen destroys blood cells too quickly leads to low blood cell counts and enlarged spleen othe causes: lymphoma, sickle cell, malaria, mononucleosis, CT disorders
65
cirrhosis portal HTN pancytopenia normal/increased Rtc normal PT, PTT, fibrinogen
hypersplenism ## Footnote **overactive** spleen destroys blood cells too quickly leads to low blood cell counts and enlarged spleen othe causes: lymphoma, sickle cell, malaria, mononucleosis, CT disorders
66
What Rtc would be expected in Wernicke-Korsakoff
decreased reticulocyte index | sevre pancytopenia - decreased production of BM cells
67
polycythemia is determined by haematocrit level of: _\_\_ in men _\_\_ in women
>52% >48%
68
increased haematocrit **normal** red blood cell mass
relative polycythemia | plasma volume contraction i.e. dehydration diuresis ## Footnote hypoxia induced polycythemia = increased RBC mass (by EPO) polychtmeia vera = increased RBC mass (overproduction)
69
red blood cell mass distinguishes
absolute from relative polycythemia
70
most common bacteiral infections in sickle cell patients
*encapsulated:* **s. pneumoniae** n. meningiditis h. influenzae | encapsulated - functional asplenia fulminant bacterial infection ## Footnote also bacteremia: salmonella osteomyelitis
71
what is the _key diagnostic feature_ needed to Dx thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
MAHA - haemolytic anaemia - **schistocytes** ## Footnote ADAMTS13 pentad
72
DIC is a common side effect of
gram negative sepsis | i.e. following n. meningiditis infection consumptive coagulopathy ## Footnote schistocytes thrombocytopenia decreased fibrinogen prolonged PT, PTT
73
heavy mensturation intermitten nose bleeds bloor in urine/stool ecchymoses, petichiae LL circulating antiplatelet AB + | what is the pathogenesis
immune throbocytopenic purpura (ITP) caused by *platelet dysfunction* | anti-platelet AB (GpIIb/IIIa) - opsonises the platelets ## Footnote LOW platelet count absense of other causes of thrombocytopenia Bone marrow biopsY: increased megakaryocytes - adequate platelet production but increased peripheral destruction acute ITP can follow infection Tx steroids, splenectomy
74
polyvinyl chlorid exposure can cause
hepatic angiosarcoma lymphoma/leukaemia
75
**arylamine** is associated with what neoplasm | hair dyes
urothelial cell carcinoma (transitional cell) *bladder cancer* | arylamines - oxidation in liver to become carcinogenic ## Footnote also: cigarete smoking penacetin, cyclophosphamide chronic bladder irritation
76
chronic infection/stones **schistosomiasis** vitamin A deficiency **benzindine dyes, aromatic amines** radiation | predispose to what neoplasm
SCC of bladder