Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

How should U+Es be monitored on starting ACE-inhibitors? What creatinine increase is acceptable?

A

An increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline is acceptable when initiating ACE inhiclbitor treatment

So U+Es 2 weeks after starting treatment and 2 weeks after each dose change. Once a maintenance dose has been established urea and electrolytes should be checked at 1, 3 and 6 months.

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2
Q

FIrst line for ascites secondary to cirrhorisis and why?

A

Spironolactone
patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used

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3
Q

What low blood result would make you concerned about digoxin toxicity?

A

Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in the presence of hypokalaemia. This is because digoxin and potassium compete for binding sites on the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which is inhibited by digoxin as part of its mechanism of action. When potassium levels are low, there is less competition for these binding sites, allowing more digoxin to bind and exert its effects, thus increasing the risk of toxicity

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4
Q

Describe GLP-1 mimetics - examples, method of action, advantages, risks and when to use.

A

eg Exenatide, Liraglutide

increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion.

Cause weight loss so cannot have unless BMI over 35. Can only trial if diabetes not controlled by triple PO therapy. specialist only. Can cause pancreatitis

GULP down tide pods = mnemonic

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5
Q

Describe DDP-4 inhibitors- examples and mechanisms of action and adverse effects

A

e.g. Vildagliptin, sitagliptin
DPP-4 inhibitors increase levels of incretins (GLP-1 and GIP) by decreasing their peripheral breakdown which leads to increase insulin reuptake and inhibition of glucagon

Lipton ice tea makes you pp4 more times = mnemonic

Adverse effect: pancreatitis, UTI

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6
Q

How often are digoxin levels monitored upon starting?

A

digoxin level is not monitored routinely, except in suspected toxicity

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7
Q

What are examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors? When are they used? What are the risks?

A

Flozins eg dapagliflozin

Used in patients with CVD/ HF/ qrisk >10% - indicated once metformin titrated no matter the blood sugar level

SGLT2-inhibitors should be avoided in active foot disease (such as skin ulceration, osteomyelitis, or gangrene) due to the possible increased risk of lower limb amputation (mainly toes). Also put at risk of fornier’s gangrene, UTI and thrush

Risk of euglycaemic DKA

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8
Q

When is pioglitazone CI?

A

CI in HF as can cause fluid retention/ wt gain
Also CI if hx of bladder cancer
Increase fracture risk

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9
Q

Example of sulfonylureas? CI? adverse effects

A

eg Gliclazide, glimepiride
Ide take your sulfonylureas if I was you
Work by increasing insulin release

CI in severe renal failure also make you at risk of hypoglycaemia.
Commonly cause weight gain and hypos. Can als cause SIADH

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10
Q

What are second line agent for diabetes? IF not established control on or there is a CI to metformin.

A

if the patient has a risk of CVD, established CVD or chronic heart failure:
SGLT-2 monotherapy
if the patient doesn’t have a risk of CVD, established CVD or chronic heart failure:
DPP-4 inhibitor or pioglitazone or a sulfonylurea
SGLT-2 may be used if certain NICE criteria are met

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11
Q

What medications should be avoided in breastfeeding?

A

Can Tom Catch Silly Lions before Apples can make sweet Apple:
Cipro/ chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Sulphonamides
Lithium
Benzos
Aspirin
Carbimazole/ cytotoxic drugs
Methotrexate
Sulfonylureas/ sulphonamides
Amiodarone

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12
Q

What are the antidotes to these OD?:
Salicylate
Benzodiazepines
Tricyclic antidepressants
Heparin
Beta-blockers
Ethylene glycol
Methanol
Pesticides
Digoxin
Lead
Iron
CO
Cyanide

A

Salicylate - IV bicrbonate, HD

Benzodiazepines - Flumazenil

TCA - IV bicarbonate

Heparin - Protamine

Beta blockers - atropine if bradycardic, glucagon

Ethylene- 1st line fomepizole, ethanol 2nd line, HD

Methanol - ethanol/ fomepizole, HD

PEsticides- atropine

Dig- Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

Iron - Desferrioxamine, a chelating agent

Lead- Dimercaprol, calcium edetate

CO - oxygen

Cyanide- Hydroxocobalamin

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13
Q

WHat are the rules for bisphosphonate holidays/ when to stop?

A

After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.

This guidance separates patients into high and low risk groups. To fall into the high risk group, one of the following must be true:
Age >75
Glucocorticoid therapy
Previous hip/vertebral fractures
Further fractures on treatment
High risk on FRAX scoring
T score <-2.5 after treatment

If any of the high risk criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely, or until the criteria no longer apply. If they are in the low risk group however, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years, or if a further fracture occurs.

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14
Q

What drugs can induce pancreatitis?

A

BFSoDAMP
Bendroflumethiaide
Furosemide
Sodium valproate/ steroids
Didanosine
Azathioprine
Mesalazine
Pentamidine
GLP-1 mimetic, SGLT-2 inhib, DPP4 inhib

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15
Q

What are Aminosalicylate drugs? What adverse effects can they have?

A

Used to reduce inflammation in UC

eg Sulphasalazine, Mesalazine, Olsalazine

Aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis - FBC is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them.

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16
Q

What drugs can induce thrombocytopenia?

A

quinine
abciximab
NSAIDs
diuretics: furosemide
antibiotics: penicillins, sulphonamides, rifampicin
anticonvulsants: carbamazepine, valproate
heparin

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17
Q

When should a statin be started in T1 diabetics?

A

Individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk factors should be offered atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention of CVD if they are:

Older than 40 years of age
Have had diabetes for more than 10 years
Have established nephropathy
Have other CVD risk factors (such as obesity and hypertension)

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18
Q

What drugs raise prolactin?

A

Anything that reduces dopamine levels - antipsychotics
Prochlorperazine (old fashioned antipsychotic)
metoclopramide, domperidone
haloperidol (old fashioned antipsychotic)

Drugs that increase dopamine eg for parkinsons do opposite eg cabergoline

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19
Q

What drug group has a major interaction with verapamil?

A

Beta-blockers combined with verapamil can potentially cause profound bradycardia and asystole.

20
Q

What are the 1st vs 2nd line meds for alzheimers dementia? How does the first line work and therefore what is it CI in?

A

1st. donepezil, galantamine and rivastigmine - these are acetylcholineesterase inhibitors -> increases the levels of AcetylCholine -> Parasympathetic system uses AcH -> Increased parasympathatetic activity
Therefore CI in bradycardia
2nd - memantine

21
Q

What is the main CI to triptans?

A

IHD due to risk of MI - cause vasoconstriction so could cause vasospasm

22
Q

What does 2% lidocaine mean in terms of strength?

A

A 2% strength liquid medicine means that 2g of the drug are dissolved in 100ml

23
Q

What can effect the absorption of levothyroxine?

A

Iron / calcium carbonate tablets can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine - should be given 4 hours apart

24
Q

What drugs can cause ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides eg gentamicin
furosemide
aspirin
quinine
cytotoxics

25
Q

What drugs can cause lung fibrosis?

A

amiodarone
cytotoxic agents: busulphan, bleomycin
anti-rheumatoid drugs: methotrexate + sulfasalazine
nitrofurantoin
ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide)

26
Q

Which antihistamines are sedating vs non-sedating

A

Non-sedating - loratadine, fexofenadine or cetirizine

sedating -chlorphenamine, promethazine, cinnarizine

27
Q

What test is needed before starting herceptin - trastuzumab (used to tx br cancer)?

A

Echocardiogram.
A major side effect is cardiomyopathy - require monitoring of left ventricular ejection fraction through serial echocardiograms before and during treatment.

28
Q

What drug can cause spider naevi?

A

COCP

29
Q

What SE can occur from the following RA drugs:
hydroxychloroquine
methotrexate
sulfasalazine
gold
etanercept
infliximab?

A

Hydroxychoroquine - bulls eye retinopathy, corneal deposits

methotrexate -Myelosuppression, Liver cirrhosis, Pneumonitis

Sulfasalazine -Rashes, Oligospermia, Heinz body anaemia, Interstitial lung disease

Gold- proteinuria

Etanercept- Demyelination, Reactivation of tuberculosis

Infliximab- Reactivation of tuberculosis

30
Q

SE of TB medications?

A

Rifam-pissin (orange)
Isoneurozid
Liverzinamide
Eyethambutol

31
Q

What drug can interact with azathioprine to cause toxicity?

A

Allopurinol

32
Q

What are the SE of the follow anti-epileptic drugs:
phenytoin
carbamazepine
topirimate
sodium valproate
lamotrigine?

A

Phenytoin - SE include peripheral neuropathy, lymphadenopathy, and bleeding gums

Carbamazepine- dizziness, ataxia, and diplopia.

Topiramate- weight loss, cognitive impairment, and kidney stones.

Sodium valproate- gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, and hair loss.

Lamotrigine-skin rashes (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome)

33
Q

If someone has oeseophageal SE on alendronate what do u change them to?

A

risedronate

34
Q

What do macrolides interact with?

A

statins (myopathy)
amiodarone

35
Q

Which abx lower the seizure threshold?

A

fluroquinolones eg ofloxacin

36
Q

Which vaccines are CI in immuncomp patients?

A

Live attenuated -
yellow fever
polio PO
intranasal influenza
varicella
MMR

37
Q

What medication is commonly linked to avascular necrosis?

A

corticosteroids long-term use

38
Q

Which medications cause eye issues?

A

Cataracts- steroids

Corneal opacities - amiodarone; indomethacin

Optic neuritis- ethambutol ; amiodarone; metronidazole

Retinopathy- quinine

Sildenafil can cause both blue discolouration and non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy

39
Q

What is given with isoniazid to prevent complications?

A

Pyridoxine- vitamin B6 to reduce chance of peripheral neuropathy

40
Q

What drugs cause tinnitus?

A

Aspirin/NSAIDs
Aminoglycosides
Loop diuretics
Quinine

41
Q

What drugs can trigger psoriasis?

A

beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, infliximab

42
Q

What common medication does clopidogrel interact with?

A

omeprazole + esomeprazole )make less effective) —> change to lansoprazole

43
Q

When is metformin CI?

A

metformin may cause lactic acidosis if taken during a period where there is tissue hypoxia. Examples include a recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury and severe dehydration

44
Q

What are the p450 enzyme inductors?

A

CRAP GPs

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas / st John wort/ smokers

45
Q

What are Inhibitors of the P450 system?

A

SICKFACES.COM

Sodium valproate/ sertraline
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol (acute) & Grapefruit juice / amiodarone / allopurinol
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

46
Q

Metformin mechanism of action?

A

Increase glycolysis and peripheral glucose uptake and inhibits gluconeogenesis