Obs and gynae Flashcards

1
Q

Management of fibroids? What about if affecting fertility?

A

medical GnRH agonists may reduce the size of the fibroid but are typically used more for short-term treatment due to side-effects such as menopausal symptoms (hot flushes, vaginal dryness) and loss of bone mineral density
anti-progestogens also used

surgical optioms:
myomectomy
hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
hysterectomy
uterine artery embolization

The only effective treatment for large fibroids causing problems with fertility is myomectomy if the woman wishes to conceive in the future

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2
Q

What are the features of turners syndrome?

A

short stature
shield chest, widely spaced nipples
webbed neck
bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%)
primary amenorrhoea (will have high LH and FSh like menipause)
cystic hygroma
high-arched palate
short fourth metacarpal
multiple pigmented naevi
lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet)
hypothyroidism and autoimmune associated
horseshoe kidney: the most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome

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3
Q

What is the criteria for secondary amenorrhoea and what age are you diagnosed with primary amenorrhoea?

A

secondary i.e. the patient has had no periods for >6 months but has had periods in the past.

Primary amenorrhoea is diagnosed if the patient if the patient has not had a period by the time they are 14 with no secondary sexual characteristics, or over 16 if secondary sexual characteristics are present.

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4
Q

What is the criteria for gestational diabetes? How is this managed?

A

gestational diabetes is diagnosed on OGTT with either:
fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L
2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L

if fasting glucose is < 7 mmol/l do trial diet/ exercise –> retest 1-2 weeks —> if not normal add metformin –> add in long-acting insulin if still not in range

if fasting glucose level is >= 7 start insulin
if glucose between 6-6.9 + evidence of complications eg macrosomia or hydramnios, start insulin

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5
Q

Who should take a high dose of folic acid and or how long in pre-pregnancy?

A

normal risk take 400mcg of folic acid until 12th week of pregnancy

women at higher risk of child with NTD take 5mg folic acid from before conception until 12th week

High risk if:
either partner has NTD, had previous pregnancy with NTD, or family history NTD
the woman is taking antiepileptic drugs or has coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait.
woman’s BMI >30

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6
Q

When is OGTT done in pregnancy? What groups get it?

A

Get test if previously had gestational diabetes, large baby, BMI over 30, fhx diabetes/ ethnicity ass. with diabetes

: OGTT should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

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7
Q

Caput succedaneum vs cephalohaematoma

A

caput succedneum- resolves in days, DOES crosss sututre lines

cephalohaematoma- does NOT cross suture lines, takes months to go

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8
Q

What is the first line management of infertility in PCOS?

A

Clomifene

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9
Q

What is first line treatment for chlamydia? 2nd line? What about in pregnancy?

A

doxycycline (7 day course) if first-line
Azithryomycin 2nd line

Azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin may be used to treat Chlamydia in pregnancy

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10
Q

How long does it take for contraception to be effective?

A

Unless 1st day of period:
instant: IUD
2 days: POP
7 days: COC, injection, implant, IUS

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11
Q

How is breech position managed in pregnancy?

A

if < 36 weeks: many fetuses will turn spontaneously
if still breech at 36 weeks NICE recommend external cephalic version (ECV)- this has a success rate of around 60%. The RCOG recommend ECV should be offered from 36 weeks in nulliparous women and from 37 weeks in multiparous women
if the baby is still breech then delivery options include planned caesarean section or vaginal delivery

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12
Q

Who is at risk of pre-eclampsia in pregnancy (moderate vs high)? What is done to mitigate this risk?

A

Moderate risks: 1st pregnancy, >40 yrs, pregnancy interval >10 yrs, BMI >35, fhx pre-eclampsia, multiple pregnancy

High risk: HTN in prev pregnancy or chronic HTN, diabetic, SLE

A woman with 2 moderate or 1 high risk of pre-eclampsia should take aspirin 75-150mg daily from 12 weeks gestation until the birth

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13
Q

What would be the expected symphysis-fundal height for someone?

A

After 20 weeks, symphysis-fundal height in cm = gestation in weeks

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14
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

Meigs’ syndrome is a benign ovarian tumour (usually a fibroma) associated with ascites and pleural effusion

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15
Q

What should Anti-D immunoglobulin be given?

A

In rh-ve mother if:
delivery of a Rh +ve infant
TOP
miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks
ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate anti-D is not required)
external cephalic version
antepartum haemorrhage
amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling
abdominal trauma

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16
Q

Obstetric cholestasis vs acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

obstetric cholestasis - itchy - linked to premature birth
acute fatty liver - ACUTE, severe, N+V, abdo pain

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17
Q

HTN vs pregnancy induced HTN vs pre-eclampsia?

A

HTN: Before 20 weeks BP > 140/90 mmHg

PIH: after 20 weeks

Pre-eclampsia: proteinuria/ oedema

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18
Q

What is the most alarming feature on a CTG?

A

Late decelerations
Deceleration of the heart rate which lags the onset of a contraction and does not returns to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contractionIndicates fetal distress e.g. asphyxia or placental insufficiency

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19
Q

What are the blood tests that are associated with down syndrome in pre pregnancy screening?

A

High nuchal translucency, inhibin a and beta hcg, low alpha feta protein, oestriol and papp-a

Low - alpha pappa oestrogen (alpha male, oestrogen- think hormones)

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20
Q

How do you manage chickenpox exposure in pregnancy?

A

when exposure to chickenpox has occurred, prophylaxis depends on the mother’s immunity status. If had before is OK.

If there is doubt re past chicken pox infections arrange an urgent blood test to check for varicella antibodies.

If not immune, give aciclovir if between 7-14 days post exposure.

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21
Q

Mx of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Expectant management - if <35mm + beta hcg <1000 + no heartbeat + no sx

Methotrexate: If <35mm + beta-hCG <1500 + no signficiant pain + no fetal heartbeat

Surgical mx if - >35mm or beta hCG >5000

Lap saphigotomy: Tries to preserve tube eg if issues with fertility

Lap saphingectomy: removes whole tube - best chance of getting rid of ectopic

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22
Q

Mx of pre-eclampsia/ eclampsia?

A

PO labetalol to lower BP 1st line, 2nd line eg if asthmatic is nifedipine

At 34 weeks - delive if pre-eclampsia - steroids before

Intravenous magnesium sulphate used if severe/ eclmapsia starts. Can cause resp depression

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23
Q

Androgen insensitivty vs CAH?

A

androgen insensitivity (previously testicular feminisation syndrome). This is a condition in which the patient is genetically male (46XY), but phenotypically female. Feminisation is a result of increased oestradiol levels, which lead to breast development. No periods develop.

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia presents early, causes ambiguous genitalia and other symptoms of adrenal insufficiency, such as arrhythmias and vomiting.

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24
Q

Mx of PPH?

A

bimanual uterine compression to manually stimulate contraction
IV oxytocin and/or ergometrine
IM carboprost
intramyometrial carboprost
PR misoprostol
surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries

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25
Q

When is a miscarriage?
Threatened vs missed vs inevitable vs incomplete?

A

Miscarriage = before 20 weeks. Stillbirth after this.

Threatened - painless bleeding, closed cervical os
Missed - gestational sac contains no fetus. cervical os is closed.
Inevitable - bleeding, cervical os is open.
Incomplete - same an inevitable, not all products of conception have been expelled
complete = contents gone including sac

26
Q

What would require an early referral to fertility services for couples trying to concieve?

A

Early (6m instead of 12m) IF:

woman >35; amenorrhoea; previous STI, previous pelvic surgery, abnormal genital exam

Male: varicocele; previous surgery on genitals; previous STI; abnormal genital exam

27
Q

vulval cancer vs VIN vs lichen sclerosis?

A

Both cause itching/ pain

Vulval carcinomas are commonly ulcerated and can present on the labium majora. Single lesion.

Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia tend to be white or plaque like and don’t tend to ulcerate. Multifocal lesion. treat with Imiquimod/ surgery

lichen sclerosis can lead to VIN, treat with steroids and emollients.

28
Q

When are the combined tests done in pregnancy? What do they measure?

A

11 - 13+6 weeks
nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

29
Q

When is the quadruple test done in pregnancy? What does it measure?

A

15 - 20 weeks

quadruple test: alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin and inhibin A

30
Q

If combined or quadruple tests indicate a higher chance of down syndrome what are the next options? Whencan you have them?

A

Non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) -preferred options as low risk, and is sens/ specific
chorionic villous sampling (before 13w)
amniocentesis (at 15-20w)

31
Q

How is group B strep treated in pregnancy?

A

If GBS positive in this pregnancy or previous pregnancy/ fever during birth/ preterm labour

then give intrapartum IV benzylpenicillin. An alternative would be clindamycin.

32
Q

Which cancers are increased in risk by the COCP?

A

COCP increases your risk of all the screened cancers - breast and cervical
protective against endometrial and ovarian

33
Q

On a OGTT what are the target and diagnostic glucose ranges in pregnancy for gestational diabetes?

A

5.6 (fast) 7.8 (2 hrs)- Diagnosis
5.3 (fast) 6.4 (2 hrs)- Targets

34
Q

What is the most common ovarian cyst/ cause of ovarian enlargement?
most common benign ovarian epiphelial tumour in <30?
Most common benign tumour epiphelial overall?
second most common benign epithelial tumour?
Most common type of ovarian ca?

A

most common: Follicular cysts
most common benign <30: dermoid
most common benign overall: Serous cystadenoma
second most common benign epithelial tumour: Mucinous cystadenoma

Most common cancerous cyst: Serous carcinoma

35
Q

Give an overview of the timeline for antenatal check ups?

A

8 - 12 weeks (ideally < 10 weeks) BOOKING VISIT
-diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, BP, BMI
-Booking bloods/urine- FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies, hepatitis B, syphilis, HIV, urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria

10 - 13 weeks
-Early scan

11 - 13 weeks
-Down’s syndrome screening including nuchal scan

18 - 20 weeks
-Anomaly scan

28 weeks
-First dose of anti-D prophylaxis to rhesus negative women

34 weeks
-Second dose of anti-D to rhesus negative women

36 weeks
-Offer ECV

41 weeks
-discuss induction

mneumonic:
- First you BOOK a restaurant (Booking visit - 8-12 weeks)
- Then you go on a DATE (dating scan, 10 - 13+6)
- Then you get DOWN (Down’s screening, 11-13+6)
- Then you discover they’re a WEIRDO (Anomaly scan, 18-2

36
Q

What are non-hormonal methods for managing flushing in menopause? When do you give these?

A

SSRIs and venlafaxine

HRT is first line so only give if unable or unwilling to take

37
Q

When is VBAC (vag birth after c-section) CI?

A

Previous VERTICAL (classical) c-section
prev uterine rupture
any other conditions normally needing c-section eg placentra praevia

38
Q

what does bishop score indicate? what steps would you take?

A

if the Bishop score is ≤ 6
vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol
mechanical methods such as a balloon catheter can be considered if the woman is at higher risk of hyperstimulation or has had a previous caesarean
if the Bishop score is > 6
amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

Interpretation
a score of < 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction
a score of ≥ 8 indicates that the cervix is ripe, or ‘favourable’ - there is a high chance of spontaneous labour, or response to interventions made to induce labour

39
Q

When should a referral be made for no fetal movements?

A

If fetal movements have not yet been felt by 24 weeks, referral should be made to a maternal fetal medicine unit

40
Q

How is candidal infection in breastfeeding treated?

A

Treatment of the candidal infection is necessary. In order to fully treat the infection both the mother and child should be treated, usually with miconazole cream applied to the nipple post feed and the oral mucosa of the infant. Breast feeding should be continued during treatment.

41
Q

What is a bartholins cyst

A

Bartholin’s cyst is a small, fluid-filled cyst that is caused by an obstructed Bartholin’s gland duct. painful and soft on examination.

42
Q

At what age can you diagnose premature ovarian failure?

A

Premature ovarian failure, also known as premature ovarian insufficiency, is defined by the presence of menopausal symptoms along with elevated gonadotrophin levels (FSH > 25 IU/L on two occasions more than 4 weeks apart) in women under the age of 40. This condition results from a decrease in the number or quality of follicles in the ovaries, leading to anovulation and low estrogen levels.

43
Q

How often is cervical screening done on normal recall and at what ages?

A

25 to 49- Every 3 years

50 to 64 - Every 5 years

44
Q

How do you manage ovarian cysts in pre vs post menopausal women?

A

younger - if small (<5cm) and simple, repeat USS 8-12 weeks and refer if persists

If big, complex or postmenopausal refer to gynae

45
Q

Mx of bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women?

A

topical fuscidic acid as chloremphenicol is CI

46
Q

What medications should be avoided during breastinfeeding? common vs less common

A

Drugs should be avoided during breastfeeding
B- bromocryptine, benzodiazepine
R- Radioactive drugs, rizatriptan
E- ergometer
A- aspirin, amiodarone
S- sulphinamide, sulphonylurea
T- tetracycline,( iso)tritinoin

also lithium, carbimazole, chloramphenicol and ciprofloxacin
more commonly
A - ACEi/ARB
S - statin
T - thiazide

47
Q

what is a kleihaeur test?

A

A Kleihauer test is a test for FMH which detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and, if present, estimates the volume of FMH to allow calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. According to BCSH guidelines, it is required for any sensitising event after 20 weeks gestation.

48
Q

What vaccine are pregnant women given? when?

A

Pertussis between 16-32 weeks

49
Q

When should methotrexate be stopped before concieving?

A

Methotrexate: must be stopped at least 6 months before conception in both men and women

50
Q

mx of premature prelabour rupture of membranes?

A

oral erythromycin should be given for 10 days

51
Q

mx of secondary dymenorrhoea?

A

referral to gynae as likely underlying cause

52
Q

What causes cervical excitation?

A

Cervical excitation is found in both pelvic inflammatory disease and ectopic pregnancy.

53
Q

What should you monitor whilst giving Magnesium sulphate?

A

Magnesium sulphate - monitor reflexes + respiratory rate

54
Q

When in the cycle should progesterone be measured when checking ovulation?

A

serum progesterone 7 days prior to expected next period. For a typical 28 day cycle, this is done on day 21.

55
Q

When should continuous CTG monitoring be started during labour?

A

As per NICE guidelines; the following would warrant continuous CTG monitoring if any of the following are present or arise during labour;
suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis, or a temperature of 38°C or above
severe hypertension 160/110 mmHg or above
oxytocin use
the presence of significant meconium
fresh vaginal bleeding that develops in labour -

56
Q

What are CI to HRT?

A

Unexplained vaginal bleeding.
Estrogen-sensitive cancer (e.g., endometrial or breast cancer).
Chronic liver disease.
Current or prior DVT, stroke, thromboembolic disease, or thrombophilia.
Coronary artery disease or myocardial infarction.

57
Q

What is the management of a woman who has not given borth by 40 weeks?

A

at 40 weeks- membrane sweep
at 41-42 weeks medical induction of labour

58
Q

How is an amniotic fluid embolism triggered?

A

transfer of the fetal material through placenta vasulature to maternal circulation so eg trauma, ruptured membranes, traumatic birth, amniocentesis or other complications from delivery

similar presentation to PE but with these RF

59
Q

What is a leiomyosarcoma?

A

malginancy of smooth muscle/ myometrium of endometrium - causes PV bleed, discharge + abdo pin + urine freq + abdo mass (mix of ovarian ca + endometrial ca sx)

60
Q

What methods should be used for a TOP?

A

medical abortion <9 weeks (can be done up to 20w) - mifeprostone + prostaglandin
vacuum aspiration - 7-15 weeks
dilation and evacation - >15 weeks