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Clinical Medication: HEENT > Pharm Final Exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharm Final Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. AR is a 45 year old female who was admitted with osteomyelitits. AR has a past history of DM and CHF., 5 days ago shew as treated for Cellulitis with Cephalexin. On admission, which of the following is not the best option for emperic therapy for ARs condtion?
    a. Vanco
    b. Linezolid
    c. Daptomycin
    d. Ceftriaxone
A

d. Ceftriaxone

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2
Q
  1. What will bet he duration of therapy for AR?
    a. 1 week
    b. 12 weeks
    c. 6 weeks
    d. 2 weeks
A

c. 6 weeks

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3
Q
  1. Supposing an infected ulcer was observed in AR’s right toe. Which of the following intravenvenous therapy will you add to patient regimen?
    a. Zosyn
    b. Amipcillin
    c. Amoxicillin
    d. Cephalexin
A

a. Zosyn

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4
Q
  1. Supposing AR is allergic to penicillin, which of the following therapy will you recommend?

a. Clindamycin and Levofloxacin
b. Metrondiazole and Levofloxacin
c. A or B
d. None of the above

A

a. Clindamycin and Levofloxacin
b. Metrondiazole and Levofloxacin
c. A or B

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5
Q
  1. Suppose hemmorrheologic agent is to be initated, which of the following will be appropriate therapy for AR?
A

a. Pentoxifylline

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6
Q
  1. Durring the treatment of osteomyelitits, which of the following could be added to act synergistically with antibiotic to prevent rapid rise of resistant strains?
A

a. Rifampin

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following bisphosphoates is not indicated for glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis?
A

a. Ibandronate

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8
Q
  1. Meribeth is a 45 year old female recently started with alendronate for osteoporsis. Which of the following should also be initated for optimal therapy?
A

a. Calcium

b. Folic acid

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following could be used for postmenopausal women, men and patients on glucocortioids who are at high risk for fractures?
A

a. Teriparatide

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with VTE?
A

a. Raloxifene

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11
Q
  1. Osteomyelitits is most commonly associated with which of the following?
A

a. Staphylococcus

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12
Q
  1. RB a 45 year old female diagnosed with infectious arthritis. Her culture showed the presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following abtibiotics will be appropriate for RB?
A

a. Cefeprime

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13
Q
  1. True of False: Methylprednisone is recommeneded for chronic management of RA?
A

a. False

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14
Q
  1. The following medications are considered to be “Non Biologics” DMARDs except
    a. Hydroxycholoroquine
    b. Methotrexate
    c. Infiximab
    d. Leflunomide
A

c. Infiximab

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15
Q
  1. CHF is a relative contrainidcation in the use of the following durgs?
A

a. Infliximab

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16
Q
  1. Which of the folling represents the best method to reduce the toxicity associated with methotrexate?
A

a. Add folic acid 1-3 mg once daily

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the most common toxicity associated with NSAIDS?
A

a. GI irritation

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18
Q
  1. What binds to CD80/CD86 receptors?
A

a. Abatacept

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19
Q
  1. What is an Anti-TNF agent
A

a. Adalimumab

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20
Q
  1. What is a cox 2 inhibitor
A

a. Celebrex

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21
Q
  1. All of the following represent methods used to decrease the GI toxicity associated with NSAIDS except?
    a. Switching to a specific Cox 2 inhibitor
    b. Adding a proton pump inhibitor to the patient on NSAIDs
    c. Adding Misoprostol to the patient NSAID
    d. Instucting the patient to take it at night when acid secretion is limited
A

d. Instucting the patient to take it at night when acid secretion is limited

22
Q
  1. What drug is an xanthine oxidase inhibitor?
A

a. Allopurinol

23
Q
  1. What drug mediates its effect by increasing the renal clearence of uric acid?
A

a. Probenecid

24
Q
  1. Concerning treatment of osteoarthritis, which of the folloign statements is incoreect?
    a. Acetaminophen is a usually the drug of choice
    b. Acetaminophen is generally considered safe and effective with minimal adverse effects in doses not greater than 4 g per day
    c. Acetaminophen has an anti-inflammatroy propery and it is an effective drug of choice
    d. All of the above
A

c. Acetaminophen has an anti-inflammatroy propery and it is an effective drug of choice

25
Q
  1. What class is Maravicoc in?
A

a. CCR5 antagonist OR Entery inhibitor

26
Q
  1. What class is Raltegravir in?
A

a. Intergrase inhibitor

27
Q
  1. What class is Emtricitabine in?
A

a. NRTIs

28
Q
  1. What class is Tenofovir in?
A

a. NRTIs

29
Q
  1. What class is Nevirapine in?
A

a. NNRTIs

30
Q
  1. CT wishes to be started on HIV therapy. Following the current guideline, which of the following would be the preferred regimen?
A

a. Tenofovir+ Emtricitabine+Atazanavir-ritonavir

31
Q
  1. Coreceptor tropism assay may be recommeneded prior to initation fo which of the following therapies?
A

a. Maraviroc

32
Q
  1. SJ is a HIV patient who presents to your office with extreme flank pain with naussa and vomiting he is diagnosed with nephrolithiasis., His medications include, Indinavir, Lamivudine, didanosine and metformin. Which of the folloing durgs mught cause his nephrolithiasis?
A

a. Indinavir

33
Q
  1. Because of one of the drug componets HLA-B*5701 screening is highly recommended prior to initation?
A

a. Epzicom

34
Q
  1. Which of the following HIV drugs can cause hepatotoxicity?
A

a. Efavirenz

35
Q
  1. Which of the following Lab test should be done prior to initation of HIV durgs?
A

a. DC4+ count

b. Viral load

36
Q
  1. Rilpivirine (RPV)- based regimen can be initated when HIV patients viral load is <100,000. True of false?
A

a. True

37
Q
  1. Drug X was shown to have an adverse effect in animal reproduction studies, however there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans. It was then suggested that potential benefits may warren the use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risk. Drug X is categorized as which of the following?
A

a. Category C

38
Q
  1. Drug Y was demonstrated to have Positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the durg in pregnant women despite potential risk.
A

a. Category D

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred therapy for the management of N and V during pregnancy?
A

a. Pyridoxine

40
Q
  1. Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs minimally passes though the placenta?
A

a. Glyburide

41
Q
  1. Which of the following Cannot be used as a tacolytic agent during pregnancy?
    a. Terbutaline
    b. Nifedipine
    c. Misoprostol
    d. Magnesium
A

Misoprostol

42
Q
  1. Andrews pregnancy had been beyond 42 weeks. Mary a PA was wondering what kind of agent would be appropriate for inducing Andrew into labor. Which of the following will be appropriate?
A

Misoprostol

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is the first line agent in the treatment of post partum depression
A

a. Sertraline

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is the first line treatment of endometriosis?
A

a. Loestrin

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary cause of Syphilis?
A

a. Treponema Pallidum

46
Q
  1. SR a 25 year old pregnantfemale with a confirmed diagnosis of Chlamydia. Which of the following therapy is the most appropriate for SR?
A

a. Erythromycin

47
Q
  1. Which of the following pain medications is most likely to reduce the seizure threshold?
A

a. Tramadol

48
Q
  1. Which of the following medications will have the most impact on patients with inhibition of CYP 2D6?
A

a. Codeine

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the max duration of ketorolac?
A

a. 5

50
Q
  1. all of the following are generally true regarding generally anesthetic drugs except?

a. Anesthetic drugs depress the CNS
b. They have low therapeutic indices
c. They can cause vasoconstriction of the vascular bed
d. Drug selection is dependent on their pharmacokinetic properties.

A

c. They can cause vasoconstriction of the vascular bed

51
Q

how do you prevent DVTs?

A

Lovenox 40 mg QD or 30 mg BID

Heprin 5000 units Q 8 H

52
Q

How do you treat DVTs?

A

Lovenox 1mg/kg Q 12 h

Heprin drip 18 units/kg/Hr

Clinical Medication: HEENT (39 decks)

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