pharm exam 4--extra crap Flashcards

1
Q

2 major divisions of the nervous system

A

CNS & PNS

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2
Q

Receives and processes information, initiates action

A

CNS

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3
Q

2 parts of CNS

A

brain & spinal cord

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4
Q

Receives and processes sensory information

A

brain

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5
Q

Conducts signals to and from the brain, controls reflex activities

A

spinal cord

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6
Q

—transmits signals between the CNS and the rest of the body

A

PNS

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7
Q

2 parts of PNS

A

sensory & motor neurons

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8
Q

Carries signals to the CNS from the sensory organs

A

sensory neurons

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9
Q

Carry signals from the CNS that control the activities of muscles and glands

A

motor neurons

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10
Q

Consists of nerves that provide voluntary control over skeletal muscle

A

somatic nervous system

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11
Q

Consists of nerves that provide involuntary control over the contraction of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle and glands

A

autonomic nervous system

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12
Q

Activated under conditions of stress and produces a set of actions called the fight-or-flight response

Activation of this system will ready the body for an immediate response to a potential threat

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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13
Q

Pupils dilate, inhibits salivation, dilates bronchioles, accelerates heart, increases HR, inhibits digestion, stimulates release of glucose, secretes epinephrine & norepinephrine, relaxes bladder, inhibits sex organs

A

sympathetic nervous system

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14
Q

Activated under non-stressful conditions and produces symptoms called the rest-and-digest response

A

sympathetic nervous system

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15
Q

Pupils constrict, stimulates salivation, constricts bronchioles, slows heart, stimulates digestion, stimulates gallbladder, contracts bladder, stimulates sex organs

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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16
Q

Affords several mechanisms by which drugs may act

Synthesized in presynaptic nerve terminal from choline and acetyl coenzyme A

Ach in the synaptic cleft is rapidly destroyed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AchE)

A

acetylcholine

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17
Q

where is acetylcholine destroyed?

A

in the synaptic cleft

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18
Q

cholinergic

A

Ach

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19
Q

adrenergic

A

NE

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20
Q

primary neurotransmitter of the Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Ach

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21
Q

2 types of cholinergic receptors which are classified after certain chemicals bind to them:

A

muscarininc

& nicotinic

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22
Q

located on target tissues affected by postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system; in parasympathetic target organs except the heart

Stimulation of smooth muscle and gland secretions

A

Muscarininc receptors

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23
Q

located at the ganglionic synapse in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

Stimulation of smooth muscle and gland secretions

A

nicotinic receptors

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24
Q

Norepinephrine (adrenergic) receptors:

A

Alpha 1 & 2

Beta 1 & 2

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25
Q

Primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system

A

NE

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26
Q

in all sympathetic target organs except the heart

Constriction of BVs, dilation of pupils (increase BP)

A

alpha 1

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27
Q

at presynaptic adrenergic neuron terminals

Activation inhibits the release of norepinephrine (decrease BP)

A

alpha 2

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28
Q

in heart and kidneys

Increased heart rate and force of contraction of heart; increases release of renin

A

Beta 1

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29
Q

in all sympathetic target organs except the heart

Inhibits smooth muscle (bronchodilation)

A

Beta 2

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30
Q

nerve carrying the impulse exiting the spinal cord

A

Preganglionic neuron

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31
Q

the connection made between the two outside of the CNS (blue bubble)

A

ganglionic synapse

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32
Q

nerve on the other side of the ganglionic synapse waiting to receive the impulse

A

postganglionic neuron

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33
Q

Class of neurons secreted in response to stress that include epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine Adrenergic

A

catecholamines

34
Q

used as an antihypertensive drug in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia

A

resperine

35
Q

patients diagnosed with ADHD and for patients having difficulty staying awake

A

adderall

36
Q

used as a local anesthetic in cases of nasal, mouth, and throat surgery

A

cocaine

37
Q

mild stimulant, increases neuronal activity and arousal

A

caffeine

38
Q

what are the 4 possible actions of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems:

A
  1. stimulate sympathetic nervous system
  2. inhibits symapthetic nervous system
  3. stimulates parasympathetic nervous system
  4. inhibits parasympathetic nervous system
39
Q

treatment of nasal congestion or hypotension

A

alpha 1

40
Q

treatment of hypertension, reduce the release of NE

A

alpha 2

41
Q

treatment of cardiac arrest, heart failure, and shock

A

beta 1

42
Q

treatment of asthma and premature labor contractions

A

beta 2

43
Q

Nasal decongestant, maintain BP—antihypotensive (increase BP)

Pharm class: adrenergic agent

Side effects are uncommon

Overdose may cause hypertension and tachycardia

A

neo-synephrine (phenylephrine)

44
Q

“i’m so anxious i really need to walk around the room”

A

neo-synephrine (phenylephrine)

45
Q

Antihypertensive (decrease BP)

Pharm: adrenergic-blocking drug

Most commonly used in combination with other agents, such as beta blockers or diuretics

Orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, drowsiness, light-headedness, reflex tachycardia from rapid fall in BP,
nasal congestion, or inhibition of ejaculation

Overdose may cause hypotension

A

Minipress (prozasin)

46
Q

Stimulates urination, treatment of dry mouth

Pharm class: muscarinic cholinergic receptor agent (parasympathomimetic)

May increase smooth muscle tone and muscular contractions of the GI tract following general anesthesia

Increased salivation, sweating, abdominal cramping, and hypotension

A

Duvoid, Urecholine (bethanechol)

47
Q

Antidote for anticholinesterase poisoning, to increase heart rate, dilate pupils

Pharm class: muscarinic cholinergic receptor blocker, anticholinergic

Induces symptoms of fight-or-flight response

May treat hypermotility diseases of the GI tract such as: irritable bowel syndrome, suppress secretions during surgical procedures, increase the heart rate in patients with bradycardia, dilate pupils during eye exams

Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, and increased heart rate

A

Atro-pen (atropine)

48
Q

Injury to tissues which may be described as somatic pain (sharp, localized) or visceral pain (generalized, dull, throbbing, or aching sensation)

A

nociceptive pain

49
Q

Results from injury to the nerves and described as burning, shooting, or numb pain (more difficult to manage)

A

neuropathic pain

50
Q

Free nerve endings located throughout the body

A

nociceptors

51
Q

reassess pain ___ min to ___ after tx

A

30 min - 1 hour

52
Q

Substances that produce numbness or stupor-like symptoms; natural or synthetic drug related to morphine, may refer to hallucinogens, CNS stimulants, marijuana, and other illegal drugs

A

narcotics

53
Q

Medications used to relieve pain

A

analgesics

54
Q

early tx of opioid dependence

A

buprenorphine (subtex)

55
Q

mixed opioid agonist-antagonist; sublingual route

A

buprenorphine (subtex)

56
Q

later maintenance of opioid dependence

A

suboxone

57
Q

Patients are allowed to self-medicate with opiate medication by pressing a button

Safe levels of scheduled pain medication are delivered with an infusion pump

Set to only give a certain amount of medication

Can still overdose

Always assess your patient’s pain with a numeric scale or smiley face scale

A

PCA pumps

58
Q

Muscles of the head and neck become very tight because of stress, causing steady and lingering pain

A

tension headache

59
Q

Characterized by throbbing or pulsating pain, sometimes preceded by auras

A

migraine

60
Q

Sensory cue that let the patient know that a migraine attack is coming soon

Ex) jagged lines, flashing lights, special smells, tastes, or sounds

A

aura

61
Q

selective for 5-HT receptor subtypes; act by constricting certain blood vessels in brain

A

triptans

62
Q

interact with adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonin receptors; promote vasoconstriction, stop ongoing migraines

A

ergot alkaloids

63
Q

If someone is taking a large amount of a narcotic:

A

assess respirations, open up the airway

64
Q

Opioid analgesic (CNS depressant)

Pharm class: opioid receptor agonist

Used for symptomatic relief of acute and chronic pain after nonnarcotic analgesics have failed

Dysphoria (restlessness, depression, anxiety), hallucinations, constipation, nausea, dizziness, and itching sensation

Overdose: Decreased respirations, BP, heart rate (cardiac arrest, respiratory depression)

A

Morphine (astramorph PF, duramorph)

65
Q

Used to treat acute opioid overdose and misuse (reverses morphine)

Pharm class: opioid receptor antagonist

Reversal of the effects of opioids may result in rapid loss of analgesia, increased BP, tremors, hyperventilation, nausea, vomiting, and drowsiness

Will immediately cause opioid withdrawal symptoms in patients physically dependent on opioids

A

Narcan (naloxone)

66
Q

Antimigraine, helps dilate vessels in the head

Pharm class: triptan; serotonin receptor drug; vasoconstrictor of intracranial arteries

Dizziness, drowsiness, or a warming sensation

Works best when combined with a narcotic

Should be used with caution in patients with recent MI, hypertension, or diabetes
Toradal

A

Imitrex (sumatriptan)

67
Q

Non-narcotic, nonopiod analgesic

Patients usually don’t want it because they don’t like the feeling of it;

Don’t get the full loopy/narcotic effect they are used to

Used to treat inflammation and fever NSAID

A

Toradal

68
Q

Work by blocking sodium channels—temporarily suspending nerve conduction and preventing pain signals from reaching the CNS

Occurs when sensation is lost to a limited part of the body without loss of consciousness

A

local anesthesia

69
Q

Block flow of sodium into neuron

Delays nerve impulses and reduces neural activity

Produces unconsciousness

Produces lack of responsiveness to painful stimuli

Requires different classes of drugs that cause loss of sensation to the entire body, usually resulting in loss
of consciousness

A

general anesthesia

70
Q

allows a lower dose of inhalation anesthetic, thus making the procedure safer for the patient

A

balanced anesthesia

71
Q

stage 3 of anesthesia, in which major surgery occurs

A

Surgical anesthesia

72
Q

Stages of general anesthesia

A

Stage I: loss of pain

Stage II: excitement and hyperactivity

Stage III: surgical anesthesia

Stage IV: paralysis of the medulla

73
Q

Act within a few seconds

Used alone or in combination with inhalation agents: balanced anesthesia

A

IV anesthetics

74
Q

State where patients are conscious, though insensitive to pain and unconnected with surroundings

Patient may hear and see what’s going on but has no ability to move or speak

A

neuroleptanalgesia

75
Q

Anesthetic (local/topical), antidysrhythmic, sodium channel blocker

Most frequently used injectable local anesthetic

Acts by blocking neuronal pain impulses, may be for spinal and epidural anesthesia

A

Lidocaine (xylocaine)

76
Q

General anesthetic, inhalation gaseous drug

Ideal for short surgical or dental procedures because the patient remains conscious and can follow instructions

while experiencing full analgesia
Laughing gas

A

nitrous oxide

77
Q

General anesthetic (what MJ overdosed on)

Has an almost immediate onset of action and is used effectively for conscious sedation

Provides faster onset and deeper sedation

A

Diprivan (propofol)

78
Q

Skeletal muscle paralytic drug; neuromuscular blocker

Complete loss of consciousness

Can cause respiratory depression, malignant hyperthermia, apnea, circulatory collapse

ET tubes are used for mechanical ventilation during surgery

A

succycholine (anectine)

79
Q

Vasoconstrictor (increases BP), sometimes mixed with lidocaine

A

epinephrine

80
Q

Used during surgery

Cause paralysis without loss of consciousness, which means without a general anesthetic, patients would

be awake and without the ability to move

A

neuromuscular blockers

81
Q

A rapid-onset short-acting barbiturate general anesthetic

Slows the activity of your brain and nervous system

Used to help you relax before you receive general anesthesia with an inhaled medication

A

Thiopental (pentothal)/ Sodium pentothal