Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

propanolol

A

non-selective b-blocker SI: hyperlipidemia, 1st degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

cabergoline

A

dopamine agonist used to treat prolactinoma. ALT: bromocriptine, quinagolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

amifostine

A

cytoprotective free-radical scavenger. given to CA pts receiving platinum based chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cisplatin

A

platinum containing chemo, creates reactive oxygen which forms DNA crosslinks. SI: NEPHRO TOXIC. use amifostine to prevent damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

allopurinol and drug interactions

A

Xanthanine oxidase inhibitor. prevents the production of uric acid. interacts with 6-mp which needs to be reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

octreotide

A

synthetic somatostatin. inhibits secretion of many hormones. used to treat carcinoid sx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hydroxyzine

A

nonselective antihistmine. etoh withdrawal, anxiety, n/v, puritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prazosin, terozosin, doxazosin

A

(-zosin)
Alpha 1 Selective Antagonist
Used to treate HTN and urinary retention in BPH
Toxicity= 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alpha 2 Selective Antagonist

A

Mirtazapine
Treats depression
Toxicity= sedation, increased serum choletrol and increased appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

B1 Selective Anatagonist

A
Acebutolol (partial agonist)
Betaxolol
Esmolol (short acting)
Atenolol
Metoprolol

*these are good for patients with co-morbid pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Partial Beta Agonist

A

Pindolol

Acebutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Non-Selective B Antagonist

A

Propanolol
Timolol
Nadolol
Pindolol (partial agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Non-selective alpha and beta antagonists

vasodilatory

A

Carvedilol

Labetolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic Antagonist
used for glaucoma and bradycardia
others: Homatropine, Tropicamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Benztropine

A

Muscarinic Antagonist

Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MOA, Use, ADRs, and Mechanism of Resistance

A

MOA: blocks viral penetration/uncoating (M2 protein) and causes release of dopamine from intact nerve terminals
Use: prophylaxis of Influenza A and Parkinson’s
ADRs: Ataxia, dizziness, slurred speech
Resistance: mutated M2 protein (90% of Flu A is resistant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic Antagonist

Motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic Antagonist

Asthma, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Oxybutinin

A

Muscarinic Antagonist
bladder spasms/urgency
Other: Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Methscopolamine

A

Muscarinic Antagonist
Peptic ulcers
Others: pirenzepine, propatheline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pheoxybenzamine

A

Non-selective alpha blocker
(irreversible) used for Pheos before surgical removal.
Toxicity= orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Phentolamine

A

Non-selective alpha blocker
(reversible) used for people taking MAO-I that ate tyrosine rich foods
Toxicity= orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

P450 Inducers

A

Quinidine, Barbituates, St. John’s Wort, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine, Chronic alcohol use

“Queen Barb Steals Phen-phen, and Refuses Greasy Carbs CHRONICally”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

P450 Inhibitors

A

Macrolides, Amioderone, Grapefruit juice, Isoniazid, Cimentidine, Ritoniavir, Acute alcohol abuse, Cirpflozacin, Ketoconazole, Sulfonamides.

MAGIC RACKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
5 Antimetobolites (chemo agents)
Methotrexate, 5FU, 6-Mercatopurine, 6-Thioguanine, and Cytarabine
26
Methotrexate
MOA: Folic Acid analog that inhibits dihyrdrofolate reductase Use: Leukemia, lymphoma, choriocarcinoma, sarcoma, abortions, ectopic pregancy, RA, psoriasis ADR: myelosupression (reversible with leucovorin), macrovesicular fatty liver change, mucositis, teratogenic
27
5-Fluoruricil
MOA: Pyrimidine analog bioactivated to 5F-dUMP, which covalently complexes folic acid, inhibiting Thymidylate synthase ultimately decreasing protein synthesis Use: colon cancer, solid tumors, basal cell (topical) ADR: myelosupression (not reversible with leucovorin), photosensitivity
28
6-Mercaptopurine
MOA: Purine (thiol) analog, decreasing denovo purine synthesis. Activated by HGPRTase and inactivated by Xanthanine Oxidase Use: Leukemias, Lymphomas (not CLL or Hodgkins) ADR: bone marrow, GI, Liver
29
Which chemo agent has increased toxicity if given with allopurinol
6-Mercaptopurine
30
6-Thioguanine
MOA: same as 6-MP Use: ALL ADRs: bone marrow depression, liver *can be given with allopurinol
31
Cytarabine
MOA: Pyrimidine analog causing inhbtion of DNA polymerase Use: AML, ALL, high-grade Hodgkins ADRs: leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, megaloblastic anemia
32
Antimetabolites are specific for which stage of the cell cycle
S phase
33
Anti-tumor Antibiotics
Dactinomycin, Doxorubicin, Bleomycin, Etopside
34
Alkylating Agents
Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, nitrosoureas, busulfan
35
Cyclophosphamide
covelently X-link DNA at guanine N-7. requires activation by liver Use: non-hodgkins, breast, ovarian cancers, and immunosupresasnt ADRs: myelosuppression, hemorrhagic cystitis
36
Drug used to prevent homeorrhagic cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide
Mesna
37
Nitrosoureas | Carmustine, Lomustine, Semustine, Streptozocin
MOA: requires bioactivation, able to cross blood brain barrier and enter CNS Use: brain tumors (including glioblastoma multiforme) ADRs: CNS toxicity (dizzy, ataxia)
38
Busulfan
Alkylates DNA Use: CML and to ablate bone marrow before bone marrow transplant ADR: pulmonary fibrosis, and hyperpigmentation
39
Microtubule Inhibitors
Vincristine, vinblastine, Paclitaxel, and other Taxols | Taget tubulin
40
Vincristine/ Vinblastine
MOA: alkaloids bind to tubulin in Mphase and block polymerization of microtubles so the mitotic spindle cannot form Use: hodgkin's, Wilm's tumor, choriocarcinoma, ALL ADR: neurtoxicity (areflexia, peripheral, neuritis) and paralytic ileus- Vincristine Vinblastine- blasts bone marrow
41
Paclitaxel
Hyperstabilizes polyermized mictorbules in M phase so the mitotic spindle can't break down use: Ovarian and breast cancer ADR: myelosuppression and hypersensitivity
42
Cisplatin
Cross-links DNA Use: Testicular, bladder, ovary, and lung carcinomas ADR: Nephrotoxicty and acoustic nerve damage
43
Chemo agent that causes acoustic nerve damage
Cisplatin
44
How to prevent Cisplatin nephrotoxicity
give with Amifostine (free radical scavenger) and clhoride diuresis
45
Hydroxyurea
inhibits ribonucleotide reducatase, thus DNA synthesis Use: melanoma, CML. sickle cell (increases HbF) ADRs: bone marrow suppression, GI upset
46
Prednisone as a chemo agent
may trigger apoptosis and may even work on non-dividing cells
47
Most common glucocorticoid in cancer chemotherapy
Prednisone
48
Tamoxifen/ Raloxifene
SERMs- receptor antagonists in breast and bone. | used for breast cancer and can prevent osteoporosis
49
ADR of Tamoxifen
may increase risk of endometrial cancer bc it has partial estrogen agonist effects there.
50
Drug used for Metastatic Breast Cancer
Trastuzumab (monoclonal antibody against HER-2 (erb-B2)) | Can cause cardiotoxcity
51
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor for philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl
Imatinib (gleevac)
52
Rituximab
monoclonal antibody against CD20, found on most Bcell lymphomas Used for non-hodgkins, and RA
53
eplernone
TX of Conn's syndrome (hyperaldosteronism). similar to spirinolactone but with less side effects
54
pentazocine
opiod Mu partial agonist and weak antagoist. used to decrease addition to opiods. can cause withdrawl in addicts.
55
given hyperthyroidism
propothiouracil ( inhibits peroxidase in thyroid and peripheral) or methimazole only works in thyroid not peripherally (meth not safe in pregnancy)
56
phenoxybenamine
used to treat pheochromocytoma, do you remember rule of 10's?
57
Drug used before a bone marrow transplant
Busulfan
58
Drugs that can induce Lupus
HIP Hydralizine Iszoniazid Procanimide
59
Treatment for Absence Seizures
Ethosuximide
60
Tx for closed/narrow angle glaucoma
pilocarpine
61
Tx for CMV retinitis
Foscarnet
62
1st line Treatment for Supraventricular Tachycardia
Adensoine
63
Treatment for digoxin toxicity or torsades
Mg2+
64
ADRs of Adenosine
Flushing, Hypotension, and Chest pain
65
Ca2+ channel blockers Types, MOA, and ADRs
Dihydropyridine: Nifedipine, Amlodipine (peripheral) MOA: lower bp Nondihydropyiridine: Verapimil, Diltiazem (cardiac) MOA: lower contractility of heart ADRs: constipation, flsuhing, edema, CHF, AV block, sinus node depression
66
ADR of Ibutilide
Torsades
67
Do these 3 lab tests before starting Amioderone
Pulmonary, Liver, and Thyroid Function Tests
68
MOA of Beta-Blockers and class of anti arrhythmic
decrease cAMP, decrease Ca2+ currents, supressing abnoraml pacemaker by decreasing the slope of phase 4 of the cardiac action potential Class II
69
Digoxin, class, MOA, use, toxicity, antidote
Cardiac Glycoside MOA: direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase, leading to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchanger, increasing intracellular Ca thus increase in inotropy. Stimulates vagus nerve Use: CHF (increase contractility) and A-Fib (decrease AV and SA node conduction) Tox: cholinergic, increase PR, decrease QT, T wave inversion, hyperkalemia, arrhthmia, worsended by renal failure, hypokalemia, and quinidine, and hypercalcemia Antidote: slowly normalize K, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg2+
70
How do meds reduce angina
decrease myocardial O2 consumption by decreasing bp, HR, ejection time, EDV, or Ionotropy
71
Lipid Lowering Agent causing Vit A,D,E,& K deficiency
Bile Acid Resins (colestipol, colesevelan, cholestryramine)
72
Target of tPA
Plasminogen
73
Target of clopidogrel
ADP receptor of platelet cells- irreversible blockage | prevents gp IIb/IIIa expression thus inhibiting fibrinogen binding and platelet aggregation
74
Target of Abciximab
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
75
MOA of Warfin
interferes with normal synthesis of gamma carboxy of vitamin k dependent clotting factors
76
MOA of Heparin
cofactor of antithrombin, decreasing thrombin and Xa
77
Coagulation labs with Warfin
normal bleed time nomral platelets Increased PT (monitor) Increased PTT
78
Coagulation labs of Heparin
normal bleed time nomral platelets Increased PT Increased PTT/INR (monitor)
79
Seizure prophylaxis for pregnant women
Phenobarbital
80
Use of Dantrolene
Malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome
81
Treatment for Acute Status Epilepticus
Diazepam
82
MOA of Bromocriptine
Dopomine Receptor agonsit
83
Treatment for Chronic Pain
Tramadol
84
Use of Benztropine in Parkinson's
curbs excess cholinergic activity
85
Used for induction of anesthesia
Thiopental
86
Selegeline MOA and use
Used in parkinson's, MAO-B inhibitor inhibits breakdown of dopamine and preferentially metabolizes NE and 5HT
87
Chemo agent that causes Pulmonary Fibrosis
Bleomycin
88
Chemo agent that can cause dilated cardiomyopathy
Doxorubicin
89
Chemo agent that can cause hemorrhagic cystitis and what is used to prevent this side-effect
cyclophosphamide | use mesna to prevent