PHAK 2: Aeronautical Decision-Making Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADM stand for?

A

Aeronautical Decision Making

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2
Q

What is ADM?

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

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3
Q

What does CRM stand for?

A

Crew Resource Management

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4
Q

What is CRM?

A

The application of team management concepts in the flight deck environment.

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5
Q

What are the six steps for good decision making?

A
  1. Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight
  2. Learning behavior modification techniques
  3. Learning how to recognize and cope with stress
  4. Developing risk assessment skills
  5. Using all resources
  6. Evaluating the effectiveness of one’s ADM skills
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6
Q

The four fundamental principles of risk management.

A
  1. Accept no unnecessary risk.
  2. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
  3. Accept risk when benefits outweigh dangers (costs).
  4. Integrate risk management into planning at all levels.
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7
Q

Describe the first fundamental principle of risk management.

A

Accept no unnecessary risk. Flying is not possible without risk, but unnecessary risk comes without a corresponding return. If you are flying a new airplane for the first time, you might determine that the risk of making that flight in low visibility conditions is unnecessary.

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8
Q

Describe the second fundamental principle of risk management.

A

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level. Risk decisions should be made by the person who can develop and implement risk controls. Remember that you are pilot-in-command, so never let anyone else—not ATC and not your passengers—make risk decisions for you.

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9
Q

Describe the third fundamental principle of risk management.

A

Accept risk when benefits outweigh dangers (costs). In any flying activity, it is necessary to accept some degree of risk. A day with good weather, for example, is a much better time to fly an unfamiliar airplane for the first time than a day with low IFR conditions.

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10
Q

Describe the fourth fundamental principle of risk management.

A

Integrate risk management into planning at all levels. Because risk is an unavoidable part of every flight, safety requires the use of appropriate and effective risk management not just in the preflight planning stage, but in all stages of the flight.

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11
Q

What does SRM stand for?

A

Single-pilot Resource Management

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12
Q

What is SRM

A

The ability for a pilot to manage all resources effectively to ensure the outcome of the flight is successful.

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13
Q

SRM includes the concepts of…

A
  • ADM
  • Risk management (RM)
  • Task management (TM)
  • Automation management (AM)
  • Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) awareness
  • Situational awareness (SA).
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14
Q

What are two defining elements of ADM?

A
  • Hazard
  • Risk
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15
Q

What is a hazard?

A

A real or perceived condition, event, or circumstance that a pilot encounters.

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16
Q

What is risk?

A

An assessment of the single or cumulative hazard facing a pilot; however, different pilots see hazards differently.

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17
Q

What does the risk matrix do?

A

It assesses two items: the likelihood of an event occurring and the consequence of that event.

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18
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Likelihood of an Event: Probable

A

an event will occur several times

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19
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Likelihood of an Event: Occasional

A

an event will probably occur sometime

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20
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Likelihood of an Event: Remote

A

an event is unlikely to occur, but is possible

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21
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Likelihood of an Event: Improbable

A

an event is highly unlikely to occur

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22
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Severity of an Event: Catastrophic

A

results in fatalities, total loss

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23
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Severity of an Event: Critical

A

severe injury, major damage

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24
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Severity of an Event: Marginal

A

minor injury, minor damage

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25
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

Severity of an Event: Negligible

A

less than minor injury, less than minor system damage

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26
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Catastrophic
Likelihood: Probable

A

High

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27
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Catastrophic
Likelihood: Occasional

A

High

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28
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Catastrophic
Likelihood: Remote

A

Serious

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29
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Catastrophic
Likelihood: Improbable

A

Medium

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30
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Critical
Likelihood: Probable

A

High

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31
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Critical
Likelihood: Occasional

A

Serious

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32
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Critical
Likelihood: Remote

A

Medium

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33
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Critical
Likelihood: Improbable

A

Medium

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34
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Marginal
Likelihood: Probable

A

Serious

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35
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Marginal
Likelihood: Occasional

A

Medium

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36
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Marginal
Likelihood: Remote

A

Medium

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37
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Marginal
Likelihood: Improbable

A

Medium

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38
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Negligible
Likelihood: Probable

A

Medium

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39
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Negligible
Likelihood: Occasional

A

Low

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40
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Negligible
Likelihood: Remote

A

Low

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41
Q

Risk Assessment Matrix

What is the risk level?
Severity: Negligible
Likelihood: Improbable

A

Low

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42
Q

After assessing risk, you must…

A

Mitigate risk.

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43
Q

One of the best ways single pilots can mitigate risk is to use the IMSAFE checklist to determine physical and mental readiness for flying:

A
  1. Illness
  2. Medication
  3. Stress
  4. Alcohol
  5. Fatigue
  6. Emotion
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44
Q

IMSAFE: Illness

A

Am I sick? Illness is an obvious pilot risk.

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45
Q

IMSAFE: Medication

A

Am I taking any medicines that might affect my judgment or make me drowsy?

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46
Q

IMSAFE: Stress

A

Am I under psychological pressure from the job? Do I have money, health, or family problems? Stress causes concentration and performance problems. While the regulations list medical conditions that require grounding, stress is not among them. The pilot should consider the effects of stress on performance.

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47
Q

IMSAFE: Alcohol

A

Have I been drinking within 8 hours? Within 24 hours? As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. Alcohol also renders a pilot more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia.

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48
Q

IMSAFE: Fatigue

A

Am I tired and not adequately rested? Fatigue continues to be one of the most insidious hazards to flight safety, as it may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made.

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49
Q

IMSAFE: Emotion

A

Am I emotionally upset?

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50
Q

One way a pilot can control the risks is to set…

A

personal minimums for items in each risk category. These are limits unique to that individual pilot’s current level of experience and proficiency.

51
Q

What is the PAVE checklist?

A
  • Pilot in Command (PIC)
  • Aircraft
  • EnVironment
  • External Pressures
52
Q

PAVE: Pilot in Command

A

The pilot is one of the risk factors in a flight. The pilot must ask, “Am I ready for this trip?” in terms of experience, recency, currency, physical, and emotional condition. The IMSAFE checklist provides the answers.

53
Q

PAVE: Aircraft

A

What limitations will the aircraft impose upon the trip? Ask the following questions:
* Is this the right aircraft for the flight?
* Am I familiar with and current in this aircraft? Aircraft performance figures and the AFM are based on a brand new aircraft flown by a professional test pilot. Keep that in mind while assessing personal and aircraft performance.
* Is this aircraft equipped for the flight? Instruments? Lights? Navigation and communication equipment adequate?
* Can this aircraft use the runways available for the trip with an adequate margin of safety under the conditions to be flown?
* Can this aircraft carry the planned load?
* Can this aircraft operate at the altitudes needed for the trip?
* Does this aircraft have sufficient fuel capacity, with reserves, for trip legs planned?
* Does the fuel quantity delivered match the fuel quantity ordered?

54
Q

PAVE: EnVironment, Weather

A
  • What is the current ceiling and visibility? In mountainous terrain, consider having higher minimums for ceiling and visibility, particularly if the terrain is unfamiliar.
  • Consider the possibility that the weather may be different than forecast. Have alternative plans and be ready and willing to divert, should an unexpected change occur.
  • Consider the winds at the airports being used and the strength of the crosswind component.
  • If flying in mountainous terrain, consider whether there are strong winds aloft. Strong winds in mountainous terrain can cause severe turbulence and downdrafts and be very hazardous for aircraft even when there is no other significant weather.
  • Are there any thunderstorms present or forecast?
  • If there are clouds, is there any icing, current or forecast? What is the temperature/dew point spread and the current temperature at altitude? Can descent be made safely all along the route?
  • If icing conditions are encountered, is the pilot experienced at operating the aircraft’s deicing or anti-icing equipment? Is this equipment in good condition and functional? For what icing conditions is the aircraft rated, if any?
55
Q

PAVE: EnVironment, Terrain

A
  • To avoid terrain and obstacles, especially at night or in low visibility, determine safe altitudes in advance by using the altitudes shown on VFR and IFR charts during preflight planning.
  • Use maximum elevation figures (MEFs) and other easily obtainable data to minimize chances of an inflight collision with terrain or obstacles.
56
Q

PAVE: EnVironment, Airport

A
  • What lights are available at the destination and alternate airports? VASI/PAPI or ILS glideslope guidance? Is the terminal airport equipped with them? Are they working? Will the pilot need to use the radio to activate the airport lights?
  • Check the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) for closed runways or airports. Look for runway or beacon lights out, nearby towers, etc.
  • Choose the flight route wisely. An engine failure gives the nearby airports supreme importance.
  • Are there shorter or obstructed fields at the destination and/or alternate airports?
57
Q

PAVE: EnVironment, Airspace

A
  • If the trip is over remote areas, is there appropriate clothing, water, and survival gear onboard in the event of a forced landing?
  • If the trip includes flying over water or unpopulated areas with the chance of losing visual reference to the horizon, the pilot must be prepared to fly IFR.
  • Check the airspace and any temporary flight restriction (TFRs) along the route of flight.
58
Q

PAVE: EnVironment, Nighttime

A
  • If the trip includes flying at night over water or unpopulated areas with the chance of losing visual reference to the horizon, the pilot must be prepared to fly IFR.
  • Will the flight conditions allow a safe emergency landing at night?
  • Perform preflight check of all aircraft lights, interior and exterior, for a night flight. Carry at least two flashlights—one for exterior preflight and a smaller one that can be dimmed and kept nearby.
59
Q

What are the 5 elements of PAVE: EnVironment?

A
  1. Weather
  2. Terrain
  3. Airport
  4. Airspace
  5. Nighttime
60
Q

PAVE: External Pressures

A
  • Someone waiting at the airport for the flight’s arrival
  • A passenger the pilot does not want to disappoint
  • The desire to demonstrate pilot qualifications
  • The desire to impress someone (Probably the two most dangerous words in aviation are “Watch this!”)
  • The desire to satisfy a specific personal goal (“get-home-itis,” “get-there-itis,” and “let’s-go-itis”)
  • The pilot’s general goal-completion orientation
  • Emotional pressure associated with acknowledging that skill and experience levels may be lower than a pilot would like them to be. Pride can be a powerful external factor!
61
Q

What is the single most important key to risk management and why?

A
  • Management of external pressure.
  • It is the one risk factor category that can cause a pilot to ignore all the other risk factors.
62
Q

What is one way to manage external pressures?

A

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

63
Q

Some example SOPs

A
  • Allow time on a trip for an extra fuel stop or to make an unexpected landing because of weather.
  • Have alternate plans for a late arrival or make backup airline reservations for must-be-there trips.
  • For really important trips, plan to leave early enough so that there would still be time to drive to the destination, if necessary.
  • Advise those who are waiting at the destination that the arrival may be delayed. Know how to notify them when delays are encountered.
  • Manage passengers’ expectations. Make sure passengers know that they might not arrive on a firm schedule, and if they must arrive by a certain time, they should make alternative plans.
  • Eliminate pressure to return home, even on a casual day flight, by carrying a small overnight kit containing prescriptions, contact lens solutions, toiletries, or other necessities on every flight.
64
Q

Five traits were discovered in pilots prone to having accidents. These pilots:

A
  • Have disdain toward rules
  • Have very high correlation between accidents on their flying records and safety violations on their driving records
  • Frequently fall into the “thrill and adventure seeking” personality category
  • Are impulsive rather than methodical and disciplined, both in their information gathering and in the speed and selection of actions to be taken
  • Have a disregard for or tend to under utilize outside sources of information, including copilots, flight attendants, flight service personnel, flight instructors, and ATC
65
Q

Three models of a structured framework for problem-solving and decision-making are

A
  • The 5P
  • The 3P using PAVE, CARE and TEAM
  • The DECIDE models.
66
Q

5P Model

What are the 5 Ps?

A
  1. The Plan
  2. The Plane
  3. The Pilot
  4. The Passengers
  5. The Programming
67
Q

5P Model

If the flight is longer than 2 hours, the 5 P check should be conducted…

A

Hourly

68
Q

5P Model

The easiest point to cancel a flight due to bad weather is…

A

Before the pilot and passengers walk out the door and load the aircraft.

69
Q

5P Model

The second easiest point in the flight to make a critical safety decision is…

A

Just prior to takeoff.

70
Q

5P Model

The third place to review the 5 Ps is…

A

At the midpoint of the flight.

71
Q

5P Model

The last two decision points are…

A

Just prior to descent into the terminal area and just prior to the final approach fix, or if VFR, just prior to entering the traffic pattern as preparations for landing commence.

72
Q

5P Model

Most pilots execute approaches with the expectation that they will land out of the approach every time. A healthier approach requires the pilot to assume that changing conditions (the 5 Ps again)…

A

Will cause the pilot to divert or execute the missed approach on every approach.

73
Q

5P Model

How many times should the 5 Ps be considered before a flight?

A

At least five.

74
Q

3P Model

What are the 3 Ps?

A
  • Perceive the given set of circumstances for a flight
  • Process by evaluating their impact on flight safety
  • Perform by implementing the best course of action
75
Q

3P Model

How can the 3 P model be used with checklists?

A
  • Perceive hazards using the PAVE checklist
  • Process hazards for risk using the CARE checklist
  • Perform risk management using the TEAM checklist
76
Q

What is the CARE checklist?

A
  • Consequences
  • Alternatives
  • Reality
  • External factors
77
Q

What is the TEAM checklist?

A
  • Transfer (Should this risk decision be transferred to someone else)
  • Eliminate (Is there a way to eliminate the hazard?)
  • Accept (Do the benefits of accepting risk outweigh the costs?)
  • Mitigate (What can you do to mitigate the risk?)
78
Q

3P Model

Perceive hazards using the PAVE checklist

A

Develop situational awareness by perceiving hazards, which are present events, objects, or circumstances that could contribute to an undesired future event.

79
Q

3P Model

Process hazards using the CARE checklist

A

Process your information from Perceive/PAVE to determine whether the identified hazards constitute risk.

80
Q

CARE Checklist

The degree of risk posed by a given hazard can be measured in terms of…

A
  • exposure (number of people or resources affected)
  • severity (extent of possible loss)
  • probability (the likelihood that a hazard will cause a loss)
81
Q

CARE Checklist

A good rule of thumb for the processing phase:

A

If you find yourself saying that it will “probably” be okay, it is definitely time for a solid reality check.

82
Q

3P Model

Perform risk management using the TEAM checklist

A

The goal is to perform by taking action to eliminate hazards or mitigate risk, and then continuously evaluate the outcome of this action.

83
Q

Your mental willingness to follow through on safe decisions, especially those that require delay or diversion is critical. You can bulk up your mental muscles by:

A
  • Using personal minimums checklist to make some decisions in advance of the flight.
  • Use a preflight risk assessment checklist to help with the ADM and risk management processes.
  • Develop a list of good alternatives during your processing phase.
  • Preflight your passengers by preparing them for the possibility of delay and diversion, and involve them in your evaluation process.
  • overlooked by many pilots—is a good post-flight analysis.
84
Q

DECIDE

What is the DECIDE model?

A
  • Detect (the problem)
  • Estimate (the need to react)
  • Choose (acourse of action)
  • Identify (solutions)
  • Do (the necessary actions)
  • Evaluate (the effects of the actions)
85
Q

What are the two categories of stress?

A
  • Acute
  • Chronic
86
Q

Operational pitfalls

Peer pressure

A

Poor decision-making may be based upon an emotional response to peers, rather than evaluating a situation objectively.

87
Q

Operational pitfalls

Mindset

A

A hazardous mindset is demonstrated by a pilot’s inability to recognize and effectively cope with changes in a given situation.

88
Q

Operational pitfalls

Get-there-itis

A

This disposition impairs pilot judgment through a fixation on the original goal or destination, combined with a disregard for any alternative course of action.

89
Q

Operational pitfalls

Duck-under syndrome

A

A pilot may be tempted to make it into an airport by descending below minimums during an approach. There may be a belief that there is a built-in margin of error in every approach procedure, or a pilot may want to admit that the landing cannot be completed and a missed approach must be initiated.

90
Q

Operational pitfalls

Scud running

A

This occurs when a pilot tries to maintain visual contact with the terrain at low altitudes while instrument conditions exist.

91
Q

Operational pitfalls

Continuing VFR into IMC

A

Spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles may occur when a pilot continues VFR into instrument conditions. This can be even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument rated or current.

92
Q

Operational pitfalls

Getting behind the aircraft

A

This pitfall can be caused by allowing events or the situation to control pilot actions. A constant state of surprise at what happens next may be exhibited when the pilot is getting behind the aircraft.

93
Q

Operational pitfalls

Loss of positional or situational awareness

A

In extreme cases, when a pilot gets behind the aircraft, a loss of positional or situational awareness may result. The pilot may not know the aircraft’s geographical location or may be unable to recognize deteriorating circumstances.

94
Q

Operational pitfalls

Operating without adequate fuel reserves

A

Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is generally the result of overconfidence, lack of flight planning, or disregarding applicable regulations.

95
Q

Operational pitfalls

Descent below the minimum en route altitude

A

The duck-under syndrome can also occur during the en route portion of an IFR flight.

96
Q

Operational pitfalls

Flying outside the envelope

A

The assumed high performance capability of a particular aircraft may cause a mistaken belief that it can meet the demands imposed by a pilot’s overestimated flying skills.

97
Q

Operational pitfalls

Neglect of flight planning, preflight inspections, and checklists

A

A pilot may rely on short- and long-term memory, regular flying skills, and familiar routes instead of established procedures and published checklists. This can be particularly true of experienced pilots.

98
Q

Stressors

Environmental

A

Conditions associated with the environment, such as temperature and humidity extremes, noise, vibration, and lack of oxygen.

99
Q

Stressors

Physiological stress

A

Physical conditions, such as fatigue, lack of physical fitness, sleep loss, missed meals (leading to low blood sugar levels), and illness.

100
Q

Stressors

Psychological stress

A

Social or emotional factors, such as a death in the family, a divorce, a sick child, or a demotion at work. This type of stress may also be related to mental workload, such as analyzing a problem, navigating an aircraft, or making decisions.

101
Q

When appropriate, the PIC can ask passengers to assist with certain tasks, such as…

A
  • Watching for traffic
  • Reading checklist items
  • Provide information in an irregular situation, especially if familiar with flying. A strange smell or sound may alert a passenger to a potential problem.
  • Confirm after the pilot that the landing gear is down.
  • Learn to look at the altimeter for a given altitude in a descent.
  • Listen to logic or lack of logic.
102
Q

Touching an object while verbally communicating…

A

Further enhances the probability an activity has been accomplished.

For this reason, many solo pilots read the checklist out loud; when they reach critical items, they touch the switch or control. For example, to ascertain the landing gear is down, the pilot can read the checklist. But, if he or she touches the gear handle during the process, a safe extension of the landing gear is confirmed.

103
Q

External Resources

Flight Service Stations (FSSs) are air traffic facilities that provide…

A
  • Pilot briefing
  • En route communications
  • VFR search and rescue services
  • Assist lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations
  • Relay ATC clearances
  • Originate Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)
  • Broadcast aviation weather and National Airspace System (NAS) information
  • Receive and process IFR flight plans
  • Monitor navigational aids (NAVAIDs)
  • In addition, at selected locations, FSSs provide En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch), issue airport advisories, and advise Customs and Immigration of transborder flights. Selected FSSs in Alaska also provide TWEB recordings and take weather observations.
104
Q

External Resources

What are additional FSS services at select locations?

A
  • En Route Flight Advisory Service (Flight Watch)
  • Issue airport advisories
  • Advise Customs and Immigration of transborder flights
105
Q

External Resources

What do select FSSs in Alaska provide?

A

TWEB recordings and take weather observations.

106
Q

What are the best external resources during flight?

A

ATC and flight service specialists

107
Q

Situational Awareness

What are the five fundamental risk factors?

A

Flight
Pilot
Aircraft
Environment
Type of operation that comprise any given aviation situation

108
Q

Situational Awareness

What is situational awareness?

A

The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the five fundamental risk elements that affect safety before, during, and after the flight.

109
Q

Obstacles to Maintaining Situational Awareness

Many flight deck distractions begin as a minor problem, such as a gauge that is not reading correctly, but result in accidents as…

A

The pilot diverts attention to the perceived problem and neglects proper control of the aircraft.

110
Q

Managing Risks

Brief passengers using the SAFETY list:

A
  • Seat belts fastened for taxi, takeoff, landing
  • Shoulder harness fastened for takeoff, landing
  • Seat position adjusted and locked in place
    ~
  • Air vents (location and operation)
  • All environmental controls (discussed)
  • Action in case of any passenger discomfort
    ~
  • Fire extinguisher (location and operation)
    ~
  • Exit doors (how to secure; how to open)
  • Emergency evacuation plan
  • Emergency/survival kit (location and contents)
    ~
  • Traffic (scanning, spotting, notifying pilot)
  • Talking, (“sterile flight deck” expectations)
    ~
  • Your questions? (Speak up!)
111
Q

Managing Risks

In addition to the SAFETY list, discuss with
passengers

A
  • Whether or not smoking is permitted
  • Flight route altitudes
  • Time en route
  • Destination
  • Weather during flight
  • Expected weather at the destination
  • Controls and what they do
  • The general capabilities and limitations of the aircraft
112
Q

Managing Risks

Use a sterile flight deck (one that is completely silent with no pilot communication with passengers or by passengers)…

A

From the time of departure to the first intermediate altitude and clearance from the local airspace.

113
Q

Managing Risks

Use a sterile flight deck during arrival…

A

From the first radar vector for approach or descent for the approach.

114
Q

Managing Risks

When is a good time to keep the passengers informed?

A

During times when the workload is low.

115
Q

Consider using the passenger in the right seat for simple tasks, such as…

A

Holding the chart. This relieves the pilot of a task.

116
Q

What is a TAA?

A

Technically Advanced Aircraft

117
Q

What is a TAA equipped with?

A
  • Advanced avionics systems, including a GPS navigator and moving map display.
  • Autopilot capability.
  • An electronic primary flight display (PFD) and/or multifunction display (MFD).
118
Q

What is the single most important advance in aviation technologies.

A

Automation

119
Q

Respect for Onboard Systems

It is important to fly the aircraft using minimal information from the…

A

PFD

120
Q

Understand the Platform

Two simple rules for use of an EFD:

A
  • Be able to fly the aircraft to the standards in the PTS.
  • Read and understand the installed electronic flight systems manuals to include the use of the autopilot and the other onboard electronic management tools.
121
Q

Managing Aircraft Automation

Three key flight management skills are needed to fly the advanced avionics safely:

A
  1. Information
  2. Automation
  3. Risk.
122
Q

Information Management

Examples of managing information display for a specific operation include:

A
  • Program map scale settings for en route versus terminal area operation.
  • Utilize the terrain awareness page on the MFD for a night or IMC flight in or near the mountains.
  • Use the nearest airports inset on the PFD at night or over inhospitable terrain.
  • Program the weather datalink set to show echoes and METAR status flags.
123
Q

Enhanced Situational Awareness

Other ways to maintain situational awareness include:

A
  • Perform verification check of all programming before departure.
  • Check the flight routing before departure. Do not assume the computer data is correct.
  • Verify waypoints.
  • Make use of all onboard navigation equipment. (e.g. use VOR to back up GPS and vice versa.)
  • Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency. Stay within personal limitations.
  • Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness.
  • Be ready to verify computer data entries. (e.g. Incorrect keystrokes could lead to loss of situational awareness because the pilot may not recognize errors made during a high workload period.)