perioperative Flashcards

0
Q

wound infection if strep how many ours after contamination

A

24-48 hrs

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1
Q

potential onset of wound infection postoperatively usually is how many days

A

5-7

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2
Q

the wound layers are sutured together and have no gaping edges

A

primary intention

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3
Q

the wound heals by filling in with granulation tissue and by contracting where the skin edges are not approximated

A

secondary intention

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4
Q

the approximation of tissue edges is delayed

A

tertiary intention

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5
Q

occurs when the wound edges separate

A

dehiscence

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6
Q

occurs when the wound separates completely and the viscera protrude from the wound

A

evisceration

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7
Q

slower onset of action, water soluble, longer duration, used in PCA pumps, will cause itching

A

morphine

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8
Q

what do we give for itching due to morphine

A

benadryl

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9
Q

when are the antibiotics given before cut time

A

30-60 mins

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10
Q

infants are prone to

A

hypothermia

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11
Q

the ______ client is more sensitive to central nervous system depressants used during the perioperative period

A

elderly

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12
Q

surgical care performed under general, regional, or local anesthesia involving less than 24 hours of hospitalization

A

ambulatory surgery

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13
Q

treatment of injury, disease, or deformity through invasive operative methods

A

surgery

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14
Q

surgery presenting little risk to life

A

minor surgery

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15
Q

surgery possibly involving risk to life

A

major surgery

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16
Q

how can a nurse ease the fear of the unknown

A

educate

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17
Q

9 classifications of surgery

A
  1. diagnostic
  2. curative
  3. restorative
  4. palliative
  5. cosmetic
  6. emergency
  7. urgent
  8. required
  9. elective
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18
Q

what classification of surgery is removing tissue for diagnosis; example biopsy for cancers

A

diagnostic

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19
Q

what classification of surgery is removal of diseased gallbladder, CABG, or appendicitis

A

curative

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20
Q

herniorrhaphy, knee replacement

A

restorative

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21
Q

pt has mets to colon from liver cancer, fix a bowel obstruction for comfort of the patient

A

palliative

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22
Q

nose, lips, breast implants

A

cosmetic

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23
Q

gun shot wound

A

emergency

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24
Q

GI bleed

A

urgent

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25
Q

fractures

A

required

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26
Q

gastric bypass

A

elective

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27
Q

absence of pathogenic microoganisms

A

asepsis

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28
Q

surgical skin preparation

A

check allergies especially iodine; cleanse in circular motion from “clean to dirty”

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29
Q

intraoperative nursing care

A

the client is to be free from infection and injury related to positioning, foreign objects, or chemical, physical, and electrical hazards

30
Q

the time during the surgical experience that begins with the end of surgical procedure and lasts until client is discharged from medical care

A

postoperative phase

31
Q

_____ nurse makes sure we have the right pt

A

circulation

32
Q

when do we do vital sign assessments after surgery

A

q15 min for 1 hr; q30 mins for 2 hrs; q1hr for 4 hrs

33
Q

minimally depressed level of consciousness during which the patient remains his ability to maintain a continuously patent airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal commands produced by the administration of IV sedative, hypnotic and opioid drugs

A

conscious sedation

34
Q

2 levels of sedation and what they are

A

light: respond to verbal stimuli
deep: weak or absent protective reflexes

35
Q

unresponsive to all stimuli

A

general anesthesia

36
Q

always want pain to rate under

A

4

37
Q

What 5 things does the sedation/analgesic scoring system check for

A

level of consciousness; respiration; color; circulation; Sp O2; activity

38
Q

the sedation/analgesic scoring system score need to be

A

9 or above

39
Q

if antagonist is administered how long must pt be monitored

A

2

40
Q

region of the body is temporarily rendered insensible to pain by injection

A

regional anesthesia

41
Q

T4

A

nipple line

42
Q

T6

A

xiphyoid process

43
Q

T10

A

umbilicus

44
Q

L1

A

hip

45
Q

L2,3

A

thigh

46
Q

L4,5

A

calf

47
Q

S1

A

toes

48
Q

atelectasis potential onset is

A

first 48 hrs

49
Q

to prevent atelectasis what nursing interventions

A

TCDB, ambulate asap, incentive spirometry

50
Q

gastric distention potential onset is

A

24-36hrs

51
Q

inability of bolus to move through intestinal tract r/t adhesions or intusseption or volvulus or twisting

A

intestinal obstruction

52
Q

never give laxative if ____ is suspected

A

obstruction

53
Q

if pt has NG drainage green to yellow 1-2L/24h what might they have

A

paralytic ileus

54
Q

dehiscence/evisceration potential onset is

A

7-14 days

55
Q

pain/tenderness in distal thigh and popliteal region; swelling extends to level of knee

A

femoral vein thrombosis

56
Q

____ is a sign of peristalsis has began

A

flatus

57
Q

4 stages of general anesthesia

A

induction, maintenance, emergence,recovery

58
Q

what stage of general anesthesia is going to sleep, inserting an oral airway

A

induction

59
Q

what stage of general anesthesia is anesthesia maintained with combination of IV and inhaled drugs

A

maintenance

60
Q

the stage of general anesthesia that drugs allowed to wear off

A

emergence

61
Q

the stage of general anesthesia that may take days or weeks

A

recovery

62
Q

what does PQRSTU stand for

A

provokes/palliative; quality; region/radiation; severity; timing; how is the pain affecting U

63
Q

if a person is hemorrhaging what will the bp and HR do

A

decrease bp; increase HR

64
Q

with postdural puncture headache what might they have to do

A

autologous blood patch

65
Q

put 20mL of pt’s blood into epidural space to serve as hemostatic plug closing the dural tear and prevent CSF leakage

A

autologous blood patch

66
Q

caine drugs will cause local

A

irritation

67
Q

epidural anesthesia are contraindicated for pt’s with

A

elevated INR and PT; clotting disorder and antiplatelet therapy

68
Q

epidural done in child is done in caudal space and called

A

caudal block with 18 gauge needle

69
Q

reduction of stress, excitement, or irritability and involves central nervous system depression

A

sedation

70
Q

the person who is the manager of personnel , equipment, supplies, environment and communication throughout a surgical procedure, perform outside the sterile field

A

circulating nurse

71
Q

prepares and maintains the integrity safety and efficiency of the sterile field; to provide surgeon with instruments and supplies during surgery

A

scrub nurse

72
Q

ones personal principles and morals that guide on to maintain strict asepsis and sterile techniques at all times

A

sterile conscience