Pelvis/Hip Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what is the inominate bone?

A

the fused pelvis - made up of ilium, ischium and pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the triradiate cartilage and when does it fuse?

A

the junction of ilium, ischium and pubis

at 14-16 years (puberty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
A

anterior gluteal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A

AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A

acetabular margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A

lunate surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

acetabular fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

acetabular notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A

superior ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

inferior ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A

ischial ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A

ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A

lesser sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A

ischial spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A

greater sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A

PIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A

PSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A

posterior gluteal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A

iliac tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

PSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

articular surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A

PIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A

greater sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A

ischial spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

lesser sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A

obturator foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A

ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
A

ischiopubic ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A

symphyseal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A

pubic angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A

pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A

obturator crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
A

pectineal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

pectineal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
A

arcuate line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
A

AIIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
A

ASIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

describe the 2 parts of the ischium

A

body - composed of spine and tuberosity

ramus - forms the obturator foramen when it joins inferior ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the 3 parts of the pubis

A

body

superior ramus - connects to ilium and ischium

inferior ramus - connects to ischial ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what attaches at the pubic tubercle?

A

inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the pectineal line?

A

the superior ridge from the pubic tubercle to the superior pubic ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe the symphysis pubis

A

non-synovial amphiarthroidal

composed of fibrocartilagenous disc

2 ligaments - superior pubic (stronger), inferior (arcuate) pubic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how many vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what makes up the medial sacral crest?

A

fused SPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what creates the sacral alae?

A

fused TPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what creates the SI articular processes?

A

fused costal processes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what exits through the anterior and posterior sacral foraminae?

A

ventral and dorsal primary rami respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how many vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx?

A

4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the difference between male and female coccyx?

A

male = anteriorly directed toward pubis

female = vertically directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

5 signs of sacral dysmorphism

A

sacralized L5

lumbarilized S1

presence of mammillary processes

oval or oblong foramen

“tongue in groove sign”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A patient is undergoing percutaneous S1 SI
screw fixation for a sacroiliac joint diastasis.
What is the most common strength deficit
sequela of this proposed screw trajectory?

A

loss of great toe extension (L5) because this nerve travels along the alar shelf of sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what type of joint is the SI?

A

diarthroidal gliding synovial

interestingly, the sacral side is hyaline cartilage and the ilial side is fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when does the SI fuse?

A

age 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

which superficial landmark corresponds to the SI joint?

A

fossae lumbales laterales (dimples of venus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
A

iliolumbar ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
A

posterior SI ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
A

sacrospinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
A

sacrotuberous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
A

interosseous sacroiliac ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A

anterior sacroiliac ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The inferior and superior gluteal nerves are
designated as such based on their
relationship to what structure?

A

piriformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

boundaries of the greater sciatic notch

A

ilium and sacrospinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

contents of greater sciatic notch

A

above piriformis:

superior gluteal artery and nerve

below piriformis (POP’S IQ):

pudendal nerve and internal pudendal vessels

obturator internus nerve

posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

sciatic nerve

inferior gluteal artery and nerve

quadratus femoris nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

boundaries of the lesser sciatic notch

A

sacrospinous ligament superior

sacrotuberous ligament inferior

ischial spine and ishial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

contents of the lesser sciatic foramen

A

obturator internus

obturator internus nerve

pudendal nerve

internal pudendal vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the obturator canal?

A

an opening in the superior part of the obturator foramen through which the nerve, artery and vein pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
A

obturator canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what type of joint is the hip?

A

synovial spheroidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

anteversion of the hip

A

15°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

neck-shaft angle of the hip

A

127°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

where does the hip capsule attach to the femur?

A

anteriorly to the intertrochanteric line via the ligament of bigelow (iliofemoral, Y-shaped, strongest in body) and the pubofemoral ligament

posteriorly to the femoral neck via the ischiofemoral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the zona orbicularis?

A

circular fibers that form a collar at the femoral neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

2 functions of the labrum

A

stability - it deepens the socket by 30%

seal for fluid, which protects cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

explain the attachement of the labrum

A

anteriorly it is marginally attached to cartilage

posteriorly it is continuous with cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

shape of labrum

A

triangular in cross-section

horseshoe-shaped and continuous with transverse acetabular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the 6 fundamental lines of an AP pelvis view?

A

posterior wall

anterior wall

roof of acetabulum

teardrop

ilioischial line (posterior column)

iliopectineal line (anterior column)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

4 ways to assess an AP pelvis view for adequacy

A

coccyx in line with pubis

symmetric teardrops

symmetric obturator foramina

symphysis - coccyx junction = 3 cm in men, 5 cm in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
A

crossover sign - where the proximal anterior wall projects more laterally than the proximal posterior wall

this is a sign of acetabular retroversion and could lead to femoral-acetabular impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
A

ischial spine sign

indicative of acetabular retroversion and potential for femoral-acetabular impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the tonnis angle?

A

horizontal along top of acetabulum

second line from edge of triradiate cartilage to edge of acetabulum

>10° is abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is CEA?

A

the center-edge angle

best acquired on false profile view

normal is between 25° and 40°

essentially it is the line from the middle of the femoral head vertically and the line from the middle of the femoral head to the anterolateral edge of the acetabulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

how do you take a cross-table lateral view?

A

supine

contralateral knee and hip flexed to >80° total

internal rotation of leg 15°

tube 45° to limb, parallel to table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how do you take a frog leg lateral and what is it good for?

A

supine

hip abducted 45°

knee flexed

foot on contralateral knee

aim between ASIS and symphysis

*this shows the head-neck junction very well (SCFE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is a Dunn view and why is it useful?

A

supine

hip flexed to 45° or 90°

20° abduction, neutral rotation

good for acquiring alpha angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is alpha angle?

A

normal is < 57° (according to recent papers, despite what this says)

greater than this suggests impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how do you take a false profile view?

A

standing

rotated 65°

beam centred on femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how do you take inlet and outlet views?

what are they good for?

A

inlet: beam parallel to sacrum
outlet: beam perpendicular to sacrum

inlet shows pelvic ring

outlet shows rami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

5 elementary fractures of the acetabulum according to Letournel

A

AC

AW

PC

PW

transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

5 associated fractures of the acetabulum according to Letournel

A

T-type

transverse + PW

PC + PW

anterior and posterior hemitransverse

both column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
A

anterior column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
A

anterior wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
A

posterior column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
A

posterior wall

96
Q
A

transverse

97
Q
A

T-type

98
Q
A

transverse + PW

99
Q
A

PC + PW

100
Q
A

anterior-posterior hemitransverse

101
Q
A

both column

102
Q
A

obturator oblique of R hip = will show PC and AW

*note this is also an iliac oblique of the L hip = will show AC and PW

103
Q
A

young-burgess

LC 1

104
Q
A

young-burgess

LC 2

105
Q
A

young-burgess

LC 3

106
Q
A

young-burgess

APC 1

107
Q
A

young-burgess

APC 2

108
Q
A

young-burgess

APC 3

109
Q
A

young-burgess

vertical shear

110
Q

level of the aortic bifurcation

A

L4

111
Q

level of the common iliac bifurcations

A

S1

112
Q

5 branches of the internal iliac artery

A

obturator

superior and inferior gluteals

internal pudendal

vesicular

lateral sacral

113
Q

what is the corona mortis?

A

an anatomical variant anastomosis between the obturator artery and the external iliac artery OR inferior epigastric artery

located behind superior pubic ramus 2-10 cm from the symphysis

114
Q

branches of the profunda femoris artery

A

lateral femoral circumflex

medial femoral circumflex

3 perforating branches

115
Q

course of the superficial femoral artery

A

medial thigh

between vastus medialis and adductor longus

deep to sartorius

into the adductor canal

116
Q

course of lateral circumflex

A

deep to rectus and sartorius

ascending branch supplies the GT

descending branch under lateral part of rectus

117
Q

course of medial circumflex artery

A

between pectineus and iliopsoas

then between obturator externus and adductor brevis

then between adductor magnus and brevis

then along superior edge of quadratus femoris

ascending branch runs over obturator externus and under piriformis

118
Q

primary blood supply to femoral head

A

medial circumflex artery

119
Q

secondary blood supply to femoral head

A

obturator artery through ligamentum teres

120
Q

what is the cruciate anastomosis?

A

inferior gluteal artery

MFCA

LFCA

first perforator ascending branch

*allows distal flow if there is a blockage of the external iliac

121
Q

borders of the femoral triangle

A

sartorius

adductor longus

inguinal ligament

122
Q

contents of the femoral triangle lateral to medial

A

NAVEL

123
Q

floor of the femoral triangle lateral to medial

A

iliacus

psoas

pectineus

adductor longus

124
Q

how do you define the four quadrants of the acetabulum?

A

line from ASIS to center of acetabulum, another perpendicular to this

125
Q

where is the safe zone for acetabular screws?

A

posterior superior

126
Q

when is the posterior inferior corner safe for acetabular screws?

A

when they are less than 20 mm

127
Q

why should you avoid acetabular screws in the anterior inferior quadrant?

A

obturator nerve

obturator artery

obturator vein

128
Q

why should you avoid screws in the anterior superior quadrant of the acetabulum?

A

external iliac artery

external iliac vein

129
Q

3 hip flexors

A

iliopsoas

sartorius

rectus femoris

130
Q

4 hip extensors

A

glut max

semi T

semi M

biceps femoris

131
Q

3 abductors of the hip

A

glut med

glut min

TFL

132
Q

5 adductors of the hip

A

adductor longus

adductor brevis

adductor magnus

pectineus

gracilis

133
Q

6 short external rotators of the hip

A

piriformis

superior gemellus

obturator internus

obturator externus

inferior gemellus

quadratus femoris

134
Q

7 internal rotators of the hip

A

glut med (anterior fibres)

glut min (anterior fibres)

TFL

semi M

semi T

pectineus

adductor magnus (posterior fibres)

135
Q

origin and insertion of iliacus

A

iliac fossa to lesser T

136
Q

origin and insertion of psoas

A

TP of L1-5 to lesser T

137
Q

origin and insertion of pectineus

A

pectineal line of pubis to pectineal line of femur

138
Q

origin and insertion of rectus femoris

A

AIIS and acetabular rim to patella

139
Q

origin and insertion of adductor magnus

A

inferior pubic ramus/ischial tuberosity to linea aspera/adductor tubercle

140
Q

origin and insertion of adductor brevis

A

inferior pubic ramus to linea aspera/pectineal line

141
Q

origin and insertion of adductor longus

A

anterior pubic ramus to linea aspera

142
Q

origin and insertion of gracilis

A

inferior symphysis to proximal medial tibia

143
Q

origin and insertion of glut max

A

ilium above gluteal line to IT band

144
Q

origin and insertion of piriformis

A

anterior sacrum to proximal GT

145
Q

origin and insertion of obturator externus

A

ishiopubic rami/obturator membrane to trochlear fossa (posterior groove between GT and LT)

146
Q

origin and insertion of obturator internus

A

ishiopubic rami/obturator membrane to medial GT

147
Q

origin and insertion of superior gemellus

A

outer ischial spine to MGT

148
Q

origin and insertion of inferior gemellus

A

ischial tuberosity to MGT

149
Q

origin and insertion of quadratus femoris

A

ischial tuberosity to quadrate line of femur

150
Q

origin and insertion of glut med

A

ilium between posterior and anterior gluteal lines to GT

151
Q

origin and insertion of glut min

A

ilium between anterior and inferior gluteal lines to anterior border of GT

152
Q

origin and insertion of TFL

A

anterior iliac crest to IT band

153
Q
A

piriformis

154
Q
A

psoas minor

155
Q
A

pectineus

156
Q
A

adductor longus

157
Q
A

adductor brevis

158
Q
A

gracillis

159
Q
A

obturator externus

160
Q
A

vastus intermedius

161
Q
A

articularis genus

162
Q
A

patellar ligament

163
Q
A

sartorius

164
Q
A

gracillis

165
Q
A

semi T

166
Q
A

adductor magnus

167
Q
A

iliopsoas

168
Q
A

biceps femoris

169
Q
A

IT band

170
Q
A

vastus medialis

171
Q
A

vastus lateralis

172
Q
A

glut min

173
Q
A

piriformis

174
Q
A

rectus femoris

175
Q
A

sartorius

176
Q
A

TFL

177
Q
A

iliacus

178
Q
A

psoas major

179
Q
A

glut med

180
Q
A

glut min

181
Q
A

TFL

182
Q
A

sartorius

183
Q
A

rectus femoris

184
Q
A

glut med

185
Q
A

obturator internus

186
Q
A

long head biceps femoris

187
Q
A

quadratus femoris

188
Q
A

glut max

189
Q
A

vastus medialis

190
Q
A

vastus intermedius

191
Q
A

vastus lateralis

192
Q
A

short head biceps femoris

193
Q
A

biceps femoris

194
Q
A

semi M

195
Q
A

adductor magnus

196
Q
A

adductor longus

197
Q
A

vastus intermedius

198
Q
A

adductor brevis

199
Q
A

pectineus

200
Q
A

iliopsoas

201
Q
A

adductor magnus

202
Q
A

semi M

203
Q
A

semi T

204
Q
A

inferior gemellus

205
Q
A

obturator internus

206
Q
A

superior gemellus

207
Q
A

glut max

208
Q

location of the lumbosacral plexus

A

deep to psoas on the anterior surface of quadratus lumborum

209
Q

nerves that compose the lumbar plexus

A

L1-4

210
Q

nerves that compose the sacral plexus

A

L4-S4

211
Q

what is the order of the 8 nerves arising from the lumbosacral plexus anteriorly with respect to psoas?

A

subcostal

IH

II

LFCN

femoral

genitofemoral

obturator

lumbosacral trunk

212
Q

where is the LFCN vulnerable?

A

as it emerges under the inguinal ligament 2 cm medial to ASIS

213
Q

During total hip arthroplasty (THA) via a posterior
approach, where is the sciatic nerve most likely to
be found?

A

deep to piriformis and superficial to the short external rotators

214
Q

course of obturator nerve

A

exits pelvis through obturator foramen

anterior division goes anterior to externus and posterior to pectineus to supply longus, brevis, gracillis,skin of medial thigh

posterior division supplies obturator externus, brevis, upper part of magnus and the knee joint

215
Q

what nerve is at risk with retraction behind the transverse acetabular ligament in THA?

A

posterior division of the obturator nerve

216
Q

from where does the saphenous nerve arise?

A

a terminal branch of the femoral nerve arising at the apex of the femoral triangle and travelling deep to sartorius

217
Q

most common nerve injured during THA

A

sciatic, peroneal division (because it is more lateral i.e. closer to the retractor)

218
Q

only muscle innervated by the common peroneal nerve?

A

short head of biceps

219
Q

During a posterior approach to the acetabulum, the nerve exiting above piriformis is damaged. This will lead
to weakness in:

A

glut med

glut min

TFL

(they are talking about superior gluteal nerve)

220
Q

When harvesting posterior iliac bone graft, the structure most at risk is:

A

superior gluteal artery

221
Q

Following an intrapelvic obturator neurectomy, continued hip adduction is possible because of:

A

pectineus (femoral nerve)

222
Q

What structure do you need to take down to access the quadrilateral plate through an ileo-inguinal incision?

A

insertion of rectus abdominus

223
Q

In the ilioinguinal approach, which interval exposes the quadrilateral plate?

A

between iliopsoas and neurovascular bundle

224
Q

In the Smith-Peterson anterior approach to the hip, the most common injury is to the:

A

LFCN

225
Q

In the anterior Smith-Peterson approach the deep interval is between rectus femoris and:

A

glut med

226
Q

Often during total hip replacement there is a vessel at the insertion of the ligamentum teres that
bleeds. This vessel arises from:

A

posterior branch of the obturator artery

227
Q

Which vessel would be most likely involved
adult avascular necrosis of the hip

A

lateral epiphyseal vessels of the MFCA

228
Q

draw the lumbosacral plexus

A
229
Q

innervation of piriformis

A

S1-2

230
Q

innervation of superior gemellus

A

nerve to obturator internus

L5-S2

231
Q

innervation of obturator internus

A

nerve to obturator internus

L5-S2

232
Q

innervation of gemellus inferior

A

nerve to quadratus femoris

L4-S1

233
Q

innervation of quadratus femoris

A

nerve to quadratus femoris

L4-S1

234
Q

innervation of obturator externus

A

posterior branch of obturator nerve

L3-4

235
Q

innervation of psoas

A

L1-3

236
Q

innervation of iliacus

A

femoral nerve