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Rosh Review > Peds > Flashcards

Peds Flashcards

1
Q

MC finding in child abuse

A

bucket handle fracture (metaphyseal fracture)

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2
Q

most distal part of bone

A

epiphysis

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3
Q

bowed appearance with an intact cortex

A

plastic deformation (bowing fracture)

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4
Q

complete fracture on tension side of bone with buckling of compression side

A

greenstick fracture

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5
Q

where do torus fractures most commonly occur

A

distal radius

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6
Q

system used to classify physeal fractures

A

salter harris

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7
Q

apophysitis at tibial tuberosity

A

osgood schlatter disease

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8
Q

what distinguishes a simple febrile seizure from complex febrile seizure

A

simple= 1 seizure, complex= 2-3 in 24 hours

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9
Q

risk of developing epilepsy in kids with febrile seizures

A

febrile seizure- 2-3% chance

normal= 1% chance

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10
Q

what are the concerning features of a complex febrile seizure

A

> 15 min duration, >5 min duration plus benzo, focal features, medication required, failure to return to baseline

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11
Q

empiric treatment for PNA in 1-6mos

A

rocephin or cefotaxime; azithro if concern for chlamydia

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12
Q

empiric treatment for PNA in >6 months (uncomplicated)

A

ampicilin or penicillin or cefotaxime or ceftriaxone

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13
Q

empiric treatment for complicated PNA in >6 mos

A

azithromycin OR erythromycin OR levfloxacin

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14
Q

treatment for pediatric complication PNA/abscess

A

rocephin/cefotoxime PLUS clindamycin (or vancomycin if allergy)

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15
Q

nosocomial pediatric PNA treatment

A

gentamicin or amikacin PLUS zosyn, meropenem, ceftazidime, cefepime, OR clindamycin

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16
Q

MCC death for children aged 1mo to 1 year

A

sudden infant death

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17
Q

initial pediatric defib dose

A

2-4J/kg

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18
Q

associations with coarctation of the aorta

A
  1. turner syndrome

2. intracranial aneurysms

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19
Q

rib notching on CXR

A

coarctation of the aorta

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20
Q

figure 3 sign on CXR

A

coarctation of the aorta

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21
Q

MC intra-abdominal complication of HSP

A

intussuseption

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22
Q

MCC LOWER GI bleeding in infants

A

meckel diverticulum

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23
Q

rule of 2s for meckel diverticulum

A
  1. 2in in length
  2. 2 years old
  3. 2x more prevalent in males
  4. 2% of children
  5. 2 feet from ileocecal valve
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24
Q

MC congenital malformation of GI tract

A

meckel’s diverticulum

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25
Q

differences in presentation of epiglottitis and bacterial tracheitis

A

epiglottitis- sudden onset

tracheitis- URI symptoms, then intensify

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26
Q

MC pathogen in bacterial tracheitis

A

s. aureus

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27
Q

treatment for strep pharyngitis with PCN allergy

A

clarithromycin, azithromycin, clindamycin, cephalexin

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28
Q

MC time for midgut volvulus to present

A

first month, most in first week of life

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29
Q

gold standard for diagnosis of malrotation with midgut volvulus

A

upper GI study (straight to ex-lap if HD unstable)

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30
Q

corkscrew appearance on GI series

A

malrotation with midgut volvulus

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31
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis, duodenal atresia, jejunoileal atresia all cause what

A

bilious vomiting

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32
Q

sudden onset bilious vomiting with hypotension and abdominal distension

A

malrotation with midgut volvulus

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33
Q

MC bacteria in AOM

A

haemophilus influenzae

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34
Q

platelet count in HSP

A

normal

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35
Q

erythroderma, fever, conjunctivitis, blisters at dependent site, nikolsky +

A

SSSS

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36
Q

treatment for SSSS

A

nafcillin/oxacillin or vanc if treatment resistant area

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37
Q

why can’t adults develop SSSS

A

develop anti-staph antibodies and have better renal clearance of the exfoliative toxin

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38
Q

splenomegaly in kid with SC disease concerning for

A

sickle cell sequestration crisis- rapid sequestration of RBCs in the spleen causing splenomegaly and severe anemia

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39
Q

MC of death in children with sickle cell disease

A

s. Pneumoniae sepsis

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40
Q

treatment of pinworms

A

single 100mg dose mebendazole or 400mg dose albendazole

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41
Q

enterobius vermicularis

A

pinworm

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42
Q

symptoms of kawasaki

A 
Conjunctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Hand/foot edema
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43
Q

virus responsible for most causes of croup

A

parainfluenza

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44
Q

MCC cyanosis in the first week of life

A

transposition of the great vessels

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45
Q

egg on a string CXR

A

transposition of great vessels

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46
Q

patient with PDA and TGC- when will symptoms of TGC begin to show themselves

A

hours to days of delivery- cyanosis starts when PDA begins to close

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47
Q

MCC meningitis in ages 16-21

A

n. meningitidis

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48
Q

waterhouse-friedrichson

A

adrenal hemorrhage after disseminated meninogococcemia

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49
Q

meningitis associated with sensorieneural hearing loss

A

h. influenzae

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50
Q

ppx for n. meningitidis

A

rifampin

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51
Q

when does is fetus at higher risk of teratogenicity

A

days 21-56 of gestation

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52
Q

cyanotic cogenital heart lesions

A

(1) transposition of the great vessels
(2) tetralogy of Fallot
(3) truncus arteriosus
(4) total anomalous pulmonary venous return
(5) tricuspid atresia
(6) pulmonary atresia
(7) Ebstein anomaly of the tricuspid valve

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53
Q

first treatment for cyanotic baby a few days after birth

A

PGE1

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54
Q

MC congenital heart defect

A

VSD

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55
Q

posterior cervical LN with rash that spreads from face downwards

A

rubella

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56
Q

neonatal conjunctivitis in first five days of life

A

gonorrhea

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57
Q

neonatal conjunctivitis in days 6-10

A

chlamydia

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58
Q

treatment for gonorrhea conjunctivitis

A

IV abx as it can be disseminated and can cause corneal perforation

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59
Q

most common cause of heel pain in athletic boys aged 8-12

A

sever disease (calcaneal apophysitis)

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60
Q

most common TEF

A

proximal esophageal atresia with distal anastamosis

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61
Q

abrupt onset of fever that for 3-4 days goes away followed by rash

A

roseola HHV6

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62
Q

slapped cheek followed by maculopapular rash on trunk and extremities

A

parvovirus B19, erythema infectiosum

63
Q

painless fluctuant mass at midline of neck that moves with movement of tongue

A

thyroglossal duct cyst

64
Q

treatment of thyroglossal duct cyst

A

surgical incision

65
Q

rule of 80 for pediatric neck masses

A

80% of them are benign

66
Q

MCC croup

A

parainfluenza virus

67
Q

most common cause of idiopathic CM in kids

A

idiopathic

68
Q

sudden onset of bilious vomiting within first year of life

A

intestinal malrotation

69
Q

double bubble sign

A

intestinal malrotation

70
Q

most common congenital heart defect

A

VSD

71
Q

MV type for neonates

A

pressure controlled ventilation

72
Q

4 acyanotic peds heart lesions

A

VSD, ASD, PDA, coarctation of the aorta

73
Q

treatment for neonatal seizure

A

phenobarbitol 20-30mg/kg

74
Q

what medication should be given to neonates with seizures refractory to multiple medications

A

pyridoxine

75
Q

at which age is tetrology surgically corrected

A

3 years old

76
Q

abnormalities found in ToF

A

PROVe: Pulmonic stenosis, RV hypertrophy, overriding aorta, VSD

77
Q

what portends a poor prognosis in NEC

A

portal vein air

78
Q

side effects of giving prostaglandin

A

apnea, fever, hypotension

79
Q

what is the hyperoxia test

A

put neonate on 100% FIO2 for 15 minutes and then check and ABG, paO2 after 15 minutes less than 150 suggests cardiac problem

80
Q

trwatment for pda

A

indomethacin

81
Q

fixed split s2

A

ASD

82
Q

indication for racemic epi with croup

A

stridor at rest

83
Q

thickened prevertebral space at C2-C4 on a soft tissue lateral neck XR

A

retropharyngeal abscess

84
Q

rash on anterior mouth and hands and palms

A

hand, foot, mouth disease

85
Q

posterior pharyngeal lesions

A

herpangina

86
Q

benign, raised, non-painful nodule on palate of neonates

A

epstein pearl

87
Q

who should get a needle cricothyroidotomy

A

age <10 years

88
Q

renal complications of impetigo

A

PSGN

89
Q

MCC impetigo

A

s. aureus

90
Q

options for treatment of tet spells

A

knee to chest, morphine, bicarb, phenylephrine

91
Q

most useful lab test to assess degree of dehydration in child

A

bicarb

92
Q

most common infection <7d

A

pneumonia >meningitis (opposite in >7d)

93
Q

most common salter fracture

A

salter II

94
Q

dose of IM epi for asthma

A

0.01 mg/kg to a maximum of 0.5 mg subcutaneously.

95
Q

staccato cough + eye findings

A

c. trachomatis

96
Q

buzzword PNA in 0-3mos

A

GBS

97
Q

PNA in 3 weeks to 3 montsh

A

chlamydia trachomatis

98
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

A 
CATCH-22
Cardiac abnormalities
Abnormal facies
Thymic absence, t cell abnormality
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
Chromosome 22
99
Q

3 day measles

A

rubella

100
Q

Course of rubella

A

day 1. race on fash that spreads downaward to involve to chest

  1. rash on trunk becomes coalescent
  2. rash disappears
101
Q

when are patients contagious with measles

A

from 1-2 days before symptoms and 4 days after rash appears

102
Q

viral illness treated with aspirin

A

reye syndrome

103
Q

small sports on the tongue and mouth taht then develop into sores and spontaneously rupture

A

small pox

104
Q

what drugs that can be given in peds through ETT

A 
LANE
Lidocaine
Atropine
Naloxone
Epi
(no vasopressing like adults)
105
Q

pediatric PNA with shaggy right heart border

A

pertussis PNA

106
Q

MCC of AOM in kids (bacteria)

A

h. influenzae (non-typable-> NOT type b anymore)

107
Q

describe what toddler fracture looks like on XR

A

minimally or non-displaced spiral fracture of distal tibia

108
Q

age range for toddler’s fracture

A

9mos to 3 years

109
Q

management of toddler’s fracture

A

CAM boot or short leg case

110
Q

calculation to estimate weight in kids based on age

A

(2 x age in years) + 8

111
Q

what dextrose should be given to kids 1-8yo, and at what dose

A

D25 @ 2cc/kg

112
Q

what dextrose should be given to kids >8yo, and at what dose

A

D50 @ 1cc/kg

113
Q

what dextrose should be given to kids <1yo and at what dose

A

D10 @ 5cc/kg

114
Q

peak age for kawasaki disease

A

18-24 months (all less than 24 months)

115
Q

five findings in kawasaki disease

A
  1. conjunctival injection
  2. oral mucus membrane changes
  3. peripheral extremity changes
  4. polymorphous rash
  5. cervical lymphadenopathy
116
Q

treatment of kawasaki disease

A

IVIG/steroids

117
Q

treatment of pertussis

A

azithromycin

118
Q

most common cause of cyanotic CHD

A

ToF

119
Q

what is considered an inappropriate response on an ABG to the hyperoxia test

A

rise of paO2< 20 suggests cyanotic heart defect (right to left shunt)

120
Q

most common ages for bacterial tracheitis

A

age 3-5

121
Q

most common ages for RPA

A

ages 3-5

122
Q

position of comfort in transient synovitis

A

flexion, abduction, external rotation

123
Q

position of leg in SCFE

A

held in external rotation with decreased or loss of internal rotation, abduction, and flexion

124
Q

how to tell a SCFE on XR

A

using the klein line- straight line drawn along lateral aspect of the femoral neck normally intersects the femoral head, whereas the line passess outside the epiphysis in SCFE

125
Q

management of SCFE

A

ortho consult- operative to precent osteonecrosis

126
Q

distinguish bacterial tracheitis and RPA

A

bacterial tracheitis- sick croup suddenly gets sick, normal neck XR
RPA- sore throat, develops over a few days, widening on XR

127
Q

what measure can you use to guide your resuscitation in pediatric sepsis

A

UOP, goal >1cc/kg/hr

128
Q

compare herpes gingivostomatitis vs hand food mouth

A

herpes- prodrome followed by oral lesions (vesicles and friability of gingiva, usually posterior)
HFM- begins abruptly with body rash, anterior mouth lesions

129
Q

under what circumstances should an LP be considered in febrile seizure

A
  1. 6mo-12mo bc not fully vaccinated
  2. sick bacterial contacts
  3. on abx which may mask meningismus
130
Q

lithium can cause what fetal anomaly

A

ebstein anomaly

131
Q

indications for HD in ASPGN

A

pulmonary edema, hyperkalemia, uremia (pericardial effusion)

132
Q

progression of measles

A

three Cs followed by rash 2-5 days later

133
Q

MCC of AKI in children

A

HUS

134
Q

most common cause of HUS

A

E. coli O157:H7

135
Q

management of HUS

A

supportive care, avoid abx

136
Q

describe chlamydia trachomatis in baby

A

5 days to 5 months (unlike ophthalmic version)

usually causes pneumonia

137
Q

MCC neonatal chemical conjunctivitis

A

erythromycin

138
Q

What blood types most commonly cause hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Type 0 mom with Type A/B baby (IgG antibodies in O type blood are able to cross the placenta)

139
Q

serious complications of hand, foot, mouth disease

A

meningoencephalitis, pneumonia, myocarditis

140
Q

test to differentiate maternal from fetal blood

A

apt test

141
Q

MC joint affected by hem A

A

Ankle

142
Q

How to calculate normal bp in kids aged 1-10

A

70 + (2xage)

143
Q

Hypotension in any kid older than 10

A

<90mmHg

144
Q

most common bony tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

145
Q

bone with sunburst pattern or codman triangle- dx

A

osteosarcoma

146
Q

benign tumors of bone with soap bubble appearance

A

giant cell tumor

147
Q

bony spur arising from bone

A

osteochondroma

148
Q

what is considered a positive urine culture for a bag sample/clean catch

A

> 100,000 cfu

149
Q

what is considered a positive urine culture for catheter specimum

A

> 50,000 cfu

150
Q

what is considered a positive urine culture for suprapubic aspiration

A

> 1,000 cfu

151
Q

MCC bulbous myringits

A

H. Influenzae, s. Pneumon before vaccine

152
Q

MC bug involved in bacterial tracheitis

A

S. `Aureus

153
Q

What extra fluid should be given to kids less than 5 with burns

A

Maintenance IVF

154
Q

estimate weight in kids

A

(2xage in years)+8

Rosh Review (17 decks)

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