ID Flashcards

1
Q

distribution of histoplasmosis

A

mississippi and ohio river valleys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

spelunkers, caves, bat and bird droppings- disease

A

histoplasmosis (fungal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

treatment for histoplasmosis

A

amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment for vibrio

A

fluoroquinolone or doxycycline (more serious-> cephalosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

management of possible rabies bite

A

Day 0- 20Iu/kg rabies IG around wound and in site distant from vaccine (or in deltoid/quad if not bite), vaccine
Days 3,7,14- rabies vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how are HAV and HEV transmitted

A

oral-fecal (vowels hit your bowels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

anti-HBS

A

recovered or immunized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

anti-HBc IgM

A

early marker of infection, positive in window period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

anti-HBc IgG

A

best marker for prior HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HBeAg

A

high infectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anti-HBeAb

A

low infectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, little vomiting, MC in kids 1-5 years old

A

shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

two bacteria that may mimic appendicitis

A

campylobacter, shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

bacteria associated with HUS

A

enterohemorrhagic e. Coli 0156:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mycobacterial infection with skin lesions and neuropathy

A

leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mycobacterium with CD4<50, TB-like disease

A

mycobacterium avium intracellulare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mycobacterium with TB-like disease

A

mycobacterium kansasii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mycobacterium with fish contact, skin lesion, uncommon lymphadenopathy

A

mycobacterium marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mycobacterium with ulcerative skin lesions, rural tropical environment

A

mycobacterium ulcerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

additional coverage needed for meningitis >age 50

A

ampicillin (listeria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

brudzinskis sign

A

bend the brain- flex neck (causes flexion of hip and knees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

kernig’s sign

A

Knees- inability to extend the knees when hips are flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MC cause of meningitis

A

s. pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MC pathogens in brain abscess

A

staph and strep species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
new seizures and history of eating undercooked pork
cysticercosis
26
treatment for cysticercosis
albendazole
27
bug in neurocysticercosis
taenia solium
28
treatment of toxoplasmosis
sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine (with leucovorin for treatment with pyrimethamine)
29
treatment for preseptal cellulitis
dc with augmentin x7d, f/u in 48 hours
30
indications for lateral canthotomy in orbital cellulitis
1. decreased visual acuity 2. intraocular pressure >40 3. significant proptosis
31
spirochete borrelia burgdorferi causes
lyme disease
32
erythema migrans- diseae
lyme disease
33
petechiae involving palms and soles before spreading centrally
RMSF
34
treatment for lyme disease in pregnant women or kids >8 needing to be treated for more than 21 days
amoxicillin (<21d, kids can take doxy)
35
treatment for lyme disease with neuro or cardiac manifestations
admission for IV rocephin
36
two conditions that are associated with jarish herxheimer
lyme disease | syphilis
37
negative birefringent crystals
gout
38
MCC viral otitis media
RSV
39
MCC lung abscess
aspiration (anaerobic)
40
MCC of septic joint
s. aureus
41
extra bacteria that should be considered in septic joint in sexually active young adults
gonorrhea
42
crystals in pseudogout are composed of
calcium pyrophosphate
43
MCC flexor tenosynovitis
S. aureus (also consider disseminated gonorrhea)
44
treatment for h. pylori
1. PPI 2. clarithromycin 3. amox or flagyl
45
how long does tick have to be attached to transmit lyme
48 hours
46
indications for post-exposure ppx from tick bite
tick was attached for > 36 hours based on certainty of time of exposure or degree of engorgement, the local rate of infection is greater than 20% and doxycycline is not contraindicated (single dose of doxy)
47
post-exposure prophylaxis after exposure to neisseria meningitidis
1. rifampin 600mg BID x2d 2. single dose of cipro
48
MC protozoal cause of liver abscess
entemoeba histolytica (from contaminated water)
49
treatment of amebic liver abscess
flagyl 750mg TID x 7days
50
h/o camping in midwest US now with RUQ pain, fever, cramps, bloody diarrhea
amebic liver abscess, entemoeba histolytica
51
complications of amebic liver abscess
Pleural effusion, pneumonia, peritonitis, erosion into the pericardium.
52
where should pertussis samples be otbained from
nasopharynx
53
MC complication of pertussis in infants
apnea
54
treatment of pertussis
azithromycin
55
how many colony forming units are necessary for a positive urine culture
100,000
56
MCC UTI
e. coli
57
how long to refrain from contact sports after mono infection
4 weeks
58
generalized maculopapular rash after treatment with amoxicillin
mono
59
MC bacteria in nec fasc
b. fragilis and e. coli
60
3 causes of atypical PNA
1. myocoplasma 2. chlamydia 3. legionella
61
MCC pneumonia
s. pneumo
62
MC abdominal CT finding in HSP
"thumbprinting" due to submucosal hemorrhage
63
age group for HSP
4-12
64
first line treatment for bacterial rhinosinusitis
augmentin or doxycycline
65
MC cause of viral pneumonia in adults
influenza
66
MC viral cause of rhabdo
influenza
67
multiple cavitary lesions suggestive of what viral infection
influenza (causing s. aureus lung infection)
68
how should lice be treated
permethrin followed by repeat treatment nine days later to kill any remaining eggs
69
what lice treatment should be avoided in infants and patients <50kg and why
lindane, causes seizures
70
typical agent that causes malignant otitis externa
pseudomonas
71
treatment of malignant otitis externa
surgical debridement and antipseudomonal abx
72
test that should be sent if concern for PJP pneumonia
LDH
73
which PCP PNA patients get steroids
PaO2 <70 or A-a gradient >35
74
MCC pneumonia in HIV positive patients
s. pneumo
75
mosquito in dengue fever
aedes aegypti
76
sudden onset of high fever, breakbone fever, retro-orbital headache
dengue fever (several days of fever followed by resolution then a period of resumption of symptoms)
77
reduviid bug is associated with
chagas disease
78
diagnosis of fever > 101.4 in any patient with a fever who recently traveled
malaria
79
MC organism from respiratory cultures in CF
pseudomonas
80
purulent drainage from a child eye that re-accumulates after it is wiped off
bacterial conjunctivitis
81
bacteria associated with bacterial conjunctivitis
s. aureus, s. pneumo, h. influenzae, moraxella
82
treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis in contact lens wearer
fluorquinolone
83
CD4 in PCP pnuemonia
<200
84
lab value that should be obtained in PCP pneumonia
LDH
85
painful pustules that develop into painful ulcers with purulent bases one week after sexual exposure
h. ducreyi (chancroid)
86
treatment for chancroid
azithro, rocephin, or cipro, should also consider empiric treamtent for syphilis
87
what is a bubo
a large painful lymph node that can develop with h. ducreyi
88
symptoms of latent/primary TB
asymptomatic
89
CXR primary TB
ghon focus
90
diagnosis of latent TB
PPD
91
diagnosis of active/reactivation TB
sputum smears for AFB, sputum tissue culture for AFB
92
treatment for latent TB
INH for 9 months, rifampin for 4 months, or INH/rifapentine for 3 months
93
PPD cutoffs
15 mm: no ↑ risk 10 mm: high-risk, homeless, health-care workers, IVDU, foreign-born 5 mm: immunosuppressed, recent TB contact, abnormal CXR, steroid use
94
what is the strongest risk factor for conversion of latent TB to active
coinfection with HIV
95
treatment of secondary syphilis
single dose of IM penicillin
96
when does rash from secondary syphilis occur
5-8 weeks after resolution of ulcer; trunk to extremities
97
exudative pharyngitis with palatal petechiae and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
mono (EBV)
98
pruritic annular lesion in athletes without lymphadenopathy
tinae corporis
99
bacteria that most commonly causes acute mastoiditis
s. pneumo
100
benefit of linezolid over vancomycin
linezolid inhibits bacterial toxin production
101
tick bite defined by abrupt onset of fever, headache, myalgias and shaking chills
ehrlichiosis
102
haemophilis ducreyi gram stain
gram negative coccobacillus
103
neisseria gonorrhea graim stain
gram negative diplococcus
104
chlamydia trachomatis gram stain
obligate intracellular gram negative
105
lesions in secondary phase of syphilis
condyloma lata
106
most common viral infection associated with erythema multiforme
HSV
107
most common bacteria that causes erythema multiforme
mycoplasma
108
erythema multiforme minor
no mucosal involvement
109
erythema multiforme major
mucoal involvement
110
perioral numbness, heat/cold confusion, bradycardia, hypotension from what fish ingestion
ciguatera
111
treatment for cigatuera
fluids, iv emetics, atropine for bradycardia, mannitol for neuro instability
112
bacteria most responsible for foodborne illness in US
s. aureus
113
most common bacterial cause of paronychia
s. aureus
114
nail plate infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa, related to prolonged water exposure
green nail syndrome, or chloronychia
115
most common precipitant of guillan barre
c. jejuni
116
treatment of erysipelas
with systemic symptoms- IV abx | without systemic symptoms- oral abx
117
bacteria associated with RMS
rickettsia rickettsi
118
hyponatremia and thrombocytopenia should make you think of
RMSF
119
lung disease after exposure to rat
hantavirus
120
treatment for hantavirus
supportive care
121
most common complication of meningococcemia
myocarditis and AV block
122
best diagnostic test for primary syphilis
dark field microscopy from lesions
123
best test for secondary syphilis
RPR or or VDRL
124
best test for tertiary syphilis
fluorescent treponemal absorption test
125
rash that overlaps with secondary syphilis
pityriasis rosea
126
MCC traveler's diarrhea from S. America/Mexico
e. coli (ETEC)
127
MCC traveler's diarrhea from southeast asia
c. jejuni, salmonella, shigella
128
MCC diarrhea in the US
norovirus
129
treatment for traveler's diarrhea
cipro or azithromycin
130
MCC nec fasc
polymicrobial
131
treatment of dacrocystitis
oral abx (clindamycin if mild) and topical abx
132
treatment of epididymitis in >35
levaquin or bactrim (targeting e. coli, pseudomonas)
133
most common presentation of arterial gas embolism in divers
unconsciousncess 10 min after ascent
134
treatment of CMV retinitis
ganciclovir
135
what is #1 cause of blindness in AIDs
CMV retinitis
136
cotton wool exudates and retinal hemorrhage in AIDs
CMV retinitis
137
most common causes of hand, foot, mouth disease
enterovirus, coxsackie virus
138
ANUG is associated with what bacteria
prevotella intermedia
139
treatment for prostatitis with high risk sex behavior
IM rocephin and 10 days of doxycycline
140
treatment of acute prostatitis without high risk sex havriour
bactrim or fluqoroquinolone x 4-6 weeks
141
most common location for zoster to occur
thorax, followed by face (trigeminal nerve)
142
MCC infectious diarrhea
c. jejuni
143
MCC malignant otitis externa
pseudomonas
144
treatment of malignant otitis externa
ciprofloxacin
145
CN that can be involved in malignant otitis externa
CNVII
146
most common form of extrapulmonary TB
lymphadenitis
147
MCC spinal epidural abscess
s. aureus
148
what is the cervical lymphadenitis of TB called
scrofula
149
gold standard for diagnosis of rabies
histologic evaluation of the white matter- negri bodies
150
treatment of tularemia
streptomycin (add chloremphenicol for meningeal involvement)
151
ulcerated skin and regional lymphadenopathy in patient with rabbit exposure
tularemia
152
first line treatment for toxoplasmosis
pyrimethamine (also leucovorin), sulfadiazine
153
CD4 for primary CNS lymphoma
<50
154
side effects of pyrimethamine
bone marrow suppression, rash, nausea
155
chronic watery diarrhea in HIV
cryptosporidium
156
ring enhancing lesions+focal deficits in HIV patient
toxoplasmosis
157
irremovable lesions on the tongue in HIV patient
hairy leukoplakia
158
ring enhancing lesion + progressive AMS in patient with HIV
primary CNS lymphoma
159
Focal neurologic deficits, non-enhancing white matter lesions, CD4 < 200
PML (JC virus)
160
organism that is most likely to cause osto after a dog bite
pasteurella multocida
161
MC organism that causes osteo
s. aureus
162
how is osteo most commonly spread in adult
contiguous
163
how is oste most commonly spread in kids
hematogenous
164
SW united states exposure causing chest pain, dyspnea, rash, myalgias
coccidiomycosis
165
treatment for coccidiomycosis
fluconazole or ampho (severe)
166
4 cancers that are considered AIDS-defining
1. cervical cancer 2. kaposi's sarcoma 3. burkitt's lymphoma 4. primary CNS lymphoma
167
treatment of amebic abscess
IV flagyl
168
most common cause of amebic abscess
entomaeba histolytica
169
treatment of pyogenic liver abscess
third/fourth gen cephalosporin + flagyl or clinda
170
what mosquito spreads malaria
anopholes
171
most lethal form of malaria
p. falciparum
172
two species of malaria that have a long dormant phase
p. vivax, p. ovale
173
cerebral malaria, blackwater fever
p. falciparum
174
uncomplicated malaria, in low resistance area- treatment
chloroquine
175
treatment of complicated p. falciparum
quinidine + doxycycline
176
Most common pathogen in dog bite
Pasteurella
177
Organism that causes cat scratch
Bartonella
178
intracellular gram negaitve bacilius
yersinia pestis
179
ebola-type of virus
RNA virus
180
tender pustules, tenosynovitis, septic arthritis, rash, fevers/chills consistent with dissemination of what STI
disseminated gonorrhea
181
MCC septic arthritis in patients less than 35yo
gonorrhea
182
treatment of disseminated gonorrhea
ceftriaxone x7days + single dose azithromycin
183
Organism that causes tinea versicolor
Malasezzia
184
Treatmnet of tinea versicolor
Selenium sulfide, oral fluconazole, or topical imidazole
185
Headache, periorbital edema, and ophthalmoplegia- think
Cavernous venous thrombosis
186
MCC of erysipelas
S. Pyogenes
187
MCC external shunt infection
S. Epidermis
188
Infection from dog bite that causes death
Capnocytophagia canimorsus
189
what precautions should someone be placed on in the hospital for flu
droplet
190
tick associated with ehrlichiosis
lone star tick
191
morulae, or intracellular mulberry-like clusters, on peripheral smear- diagnosis
ehrlichiosis
192
tick bite that causes abrupt onset headache, fevers, myalgias
ehrlichiosis
193
What is the name of the phenomenon seen in Rocky Mountain spotted fever when petechiae form after blood pressure cuff inflation
Rumpel-Leede phenomenon
194
tick that causes RMSF
dermacentor
195
centripetal rash from ankles/hands to trunk
RMSF
196
Side effect of didanosine
Pancreatitis
197
Side effect of efavirinz
Vivid dreams, Headache, severe rash, dizziness
198
HIV medication that causes radiolucent kidney stones
Indinavir
199
Hepatitis, nausea, vomiting, hepatitis- HIV medication
Lopinavir
200
HIV medication that causes bone marrow suppresion
Zinovadine
201
HIV medications that causes lactic acidosis
NRTIs
202
HIV medication that causes paresthesias
Ritonavir
203
Lymphogranuloma venereum- caused by what bacteria
c. trachomatis
204
enlarged lymph nodes after PAINLESS genital ulcer
LGV
205
treatment for LGV
doxycycline x21d
206
treatment for chancroid
250mg IM rocephin
207
azithromycin causes what cardiac abnormality
prolonged QTc
208
treatment of severe malaria
IV artesenate