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Rosh Review > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

distribution of histoplasmosis

A

mississippi and ohio river valleys

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2
Q

spelunkers, caves, bat and bird droppings- disease

A

histoplasmosis (fungal)

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3
Q

treatment for histoplasmosis

A

amphotericin

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4
Q

treatment for vibrio

A

fluoroquinolone or doxycycline (more serious-> cephalosporin)

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5
Q

management of possible rabies bite

A

Day 0- 20Iu/kg rabies IG around wound and in site distant from vaccine (or in deltoid/quad if not bite), vaccine
Days 3,7,14- rabies vaccine

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6
Q

how are HAV and HEV transmitted

A

oral-fecal (vowels hit your bowels)

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7
Q

anti-HBS

A

recovered or immunized

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8
Q

anti-HBc IgM

A

early marker of infection, positive in window period

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9
Q

anti-HBc IgG

A

best marker for prior HBV

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10
Q

HBeAg

A

high infectivity

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11
Q

Anti-HBeAb

A

low infectivity

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12
Q

fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, little vomiting, MC in kids 1-5 years old

A

shigella

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13
Q

two bacteria that may mimic appendicitis

A

campylobacter, shigella

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14
Q

bacteria associated with HUS

A

enterohemorrhagic e. Coli 0156:H7

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15
Q

mycobacterial infection with skin lesions and neuropathy

A

leprosy

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16
Q

mycobacterium with CD4<50, TB-like disease

A

mycobacterium avium intracellulare

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17
Q

mycobacterium with TB-like disease

A

mycobacterium kansasii

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18
Q

mycobacterium with fish contact, skin lesion, uncommon lymphadenopathy

A

mycobacterium marinum

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19
Q

mycobacterium with ulcerative skin lesions, rural tropical environment

A

mycobacterium ulcerans

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20
Q

additional coverage needed for meningitis >age 50

A

ampicillin (listeria)

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21
Q

brudzinskis sign

A

bend the brain- flex neck (causes flexion of hip and knees)

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22
Q

kernig’s sign

A

Knees- inability to extend the knees when hips are flexed

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23
Q

MC cause of meningitis

A

s. pneumo

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24
Q

MC pathogens in brain abscess

A

staph and strep species

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25
Q

new seizures and history of eating undercooked pork

A

cysticercosis

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26
Q

treatment for cysticercosis

A

albendazole

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27
Q

bug in neurocysticercosis

A

taenia solium

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28
Q

treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine (with leucovorin for treatment with pyrimethamine)

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29
Q

treatment for preseptal cellulitis

A

dc with augmentin x7d, f/u in 48 hours

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30
Q

indications for lateral canthotomy in orbital cellulitis

A
  1. decreased visual acuity
  2. intraocular pressure >40
  3. significant proptosis
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31
Q

spirochete borrelia burgdorferi causes

A

lyme disease

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32
Q

erythema migrans- diseae

A

lyme disease

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33
Q

petechiae involving palms and soles before spreading centrally

A

RMSF

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34
Q

treatment for lyme disease in pregnant women or kids >8 needing to be treated for more than 21 days

A

amoxicillin (<21d, kids can take doxy)

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35
Q

treatment for lyme disease with neuro or cardiac manifestations

A

admission for IV rocephin

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36
Q

two conditions that are associated with jarish herxheimer

A

lyme disease

syphilis

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37
Q

negative birefringent crystals

A

gout

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38
Q

MCC viral otitis media

A

RSV

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39
Q

MCC lung abscess

A

aspiration (anaerobic)

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40
Q

MCC of septic joint

A

s. aureus

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41
Q

extra bacteria that should be considered in septic joint in sexually active young adults

A

gonorrhea

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42
Q

crystals in pseudogout are composed of

A

calcium pyrophosphate

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43
Q

MCC flexor tenosynovitis

A

S. aureus (also consider disseminated gonorrhea)

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44
Q

treatment for h. pylori

A
  1. PPI
  2. clarithromycin
  3. amox or flagyl
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45
Q

how long does tick have to be attached to transmit lyme

A

48 hours

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46
Q

indications for post-exposure ppx from tick bite

A

tick was attached for > 36 hours based on certainty of time of exposure or degree of engorgement, the local rate of infection is greater than 20% and doxycycline is not contraindicated (single dose of doxy)

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47
Q

post-exposure prophylaxis after exposure to neisseria meningitidis

A
  1. rifampin 600mg BID x2d 2. single dose of cipro
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48
Q

MC protozoal cause of liver abscess

A

entemoeba histolytica (from contaminated water)

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49
Q

treatment of amebic liver abscess

A

flagyl 750mg TID x 7days

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50
Q

h/o camping in midwest US now with RUQ pain, fever, cramps, bloody diarrhea

A

amebic liver abscess, entemoeba histolytica

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51
Q

complications of amebic liver abscess

A

Pleural effusion, pneumonia, peritonitis, erosion into the pericardium.

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52
Q

where should pertussis samples be otbained from

A

nasopharynx

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53
Q

MC complication of pertussis in infants

A

apnea

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54
Q

treatment of pertussis

A

azithromycin

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55
Q

how many colony forming units are necessary for a positive urine culture

A

100,000

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56
Q

MCC UTI

A

e. coli

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57
Q

how long to refrain from contact sports after mono infection

A

4 weeks

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58
Q

generalized maculopapular rash after treatment with amoxicillin

A

mono

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59
Q

MC bacteria in nec fasc

A

b. fragilis and e. coli

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60
Q

3 causes of atypical PNA

A
  1. myocoplasma
  2. chlamydia
  3. legionella
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61
Q

MCC pneumonia

A

s. pneumo

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62
Q

MC abdominal CT finding in HSP

A

“thumbprinting” due to submucosal hemorrhage

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63
Q

age group for HSP

A

4-12

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64
Q

first line treatment for bacterial rhinosinusitis

A

augmentin or doxycycline

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65
Q

MC cause of viral pneumonia in adults

A

influenza

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66
Q

MC viral cause of rhabdo

A

influenza

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67
Q

multiple cavitary lesions suggestive of what viral infection

A

influenza (causing s. aureus lung infection)

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68
Q

how should lice be treated

A

permethrin followed by repeat treatment nine days later to kill any remaining eggs

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69
Q

what lice treatment should be avoided in infants and patients <50kg and why

A

lindane, causes seizures

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70
Q

typical agent that causes malignant otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

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71
Q

treatment of malignant otitis externa

A

surgical debridement and antipseudomonal abx

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72
Q

test that should be sent if concern for PJP pneumonia

A

LDH

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73
Q

which PCP PNA patients get steroids

A

PaO2 <70 or A-a gradient >35

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74
Q

MCC pneumonia in HIV positive patients

A

s. pneumo

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75
Q

mosquito in dengue fever

A

aedes aegypti

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76
Q

sudden onset of high fever, breakbone fever, retro-orbital headache

A

dengue fever (several days of fever followed by resolution then a period of resumption of symptoms)

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77
Q

reduviid bug is associated with

A

chagas disease

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78
Q

diagnosis of fever > 101.4 in any patient with a fever who recently traveled

A

malaria

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79
Q

MC organism from respiratory cultures in CF

A

pseudomonas

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80
Q

purulent drainage from a child eye that re-accumulates after it is wiped off

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

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81
Q

bacteria associated with bacterial conjunctivitis

A

s. aureus, s. pneumo, h. influenzae, moraxella

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82
Q

treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis in contact lens wearer

A

fluorquinolone

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83
Q

CD4 in PCP pnuemonia

A

<200

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84
Q

lab value that should be obtained in PCP pneumonia

A

LDH

85
Q

painful pustules that develop into painful ulcers with purulent bases one week after sexual exposure

A

h. ducreyi (chancroid)

86
Q

treatment for chancroid

A

azithro, rocephin, or cipro, should also consider empiric treamtent for syphilis

87
Q

what is a bubo

A

a large painful lymph node that can develop with h. ducreyi

88
Q

symptoms of latent/primary TB

A

asymptomatic

89
Q

CXR primary TB

A

ghon focus

90
Q

diagnosis of latent TB

A

PPD

91
Q

diagnosis of active/reactivation TB

A

sputum smears for AFB, sputum tissue culture for AFB

92
Q

treatment for latent TB

A

INH for 9 months, rifampin for 4 months, or INH/rifapentine for 3 months

93
Q

PPD cutoffs

A

15 mm: no ↑ risk
10 mm: high-risk, homeless, health-care workers, IVDU, foreign-born
5 mm: immunosuppressed, recent TB contact, abnormal CXR, steroid use

94
Q

what is the strongest risk factor for conversion of latent TB to active

A

coinfection with HIV

95
Q

treatment of secondary syphilis

A

single dose of IM penicillin

96
Q

when does rash from secondary syphilis occur

A

5-8 weeks after resolution of ulcer; trunk to extremities

97
Q

exudative pharyngitis with palatal petechiae and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

mono (EBV)

98
Q

pruritic annular lesion in athletes without lymphadenopathy

A

tinae corporis

99
Q

bacteria that most commonly causes acute mastoiditis

A

s. pneumo

100
Q

benefit of linezolid over vancomycin

A

linezolid inhibits bacterial toxin production

101
Q

tick bite defined by abrupt onset of fever, headache, myalgias and shaking chills

A

ehrlichiosis

102
Q

haemophilis ducreyi gram stain

A

gram negative coccobacillus

103
Q

neisseria gonorrhea graim stain

A

gram negative diplococcus

104
Q

chlamydia trachomatis gram stain

A

obligate intracellular gram negative

105
Q

lesions in secondary phase of syphilis

A

condyloma lata

106
Q

most common viral infection associated with erythema multiforme

A

HSV

107
Q

most common bacteria that causes erythema multiforme

A

mycoplasma

108
Q

erythema multiforme minor

A

no mucosal involvement

109
Q

erythema multiforme major

A

mucoal involvement

110
Q

perioral numbness, heat/cold confusion, bradycardia, hypotension from what fish ingestion

A

ciguatera

111
Q

treatment for cigatuera

A

fluids, iv emetics, atropine for bradycardia, mannitol for neuro instability

112
Q

bacteria most responsible for foodborne illness in US

A

s. aureus

113
Q

most common bacterial cause of paronychia

A

s. aureus

114
Q

nail plate infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa, related to prolonged water exposure

A

green nail syndrome, or chloronychia

115
Q

most common precipitant of guillan barre

A

c. jejuni

116
Q

treatment of erysipelas

A

with systemic symptoms- IV abx

without systemic symptoms- oral abx

117
Q

bacteria associated with RMS

A

rickettsia rickettsi

118
Q

hyponatremia and thrombocytopenia should make you think of

A

RMSF

119
Q

lung disease after exposure to rat

A

hantavirus

120
Q

treatment for hantavirus

A

supportive care

121
Q

most common complication of meningococcemia

A

myocarditis and AV block

122
Q

best diagnostic test for primary syphilis

A

dark field microscopy from lesions

123
Q

best test for secondary syphilis

A

RPR or or VDRL

124
Q

best test for tertiary syphilis

A

fluorescent treponemal absorption test

125
Q

rash that overlaps with secondary syphilis

A

pityriasis rosea

126
Q

MCC traveler’s diarrhea from S. America/Mexico

A

e. coli (ETEC)

127
Q

MCC traveler’s diarrhea from southeast asia

A

c. jejuni, salmonella, shigella

128
Q

MCC diarrhea in the US

A

norovirus

129
Q

treatment for traveler’s diarrhea

A

cipro or azithromycin

130
Q

MCC nec fasc

A

polymicrobial

131
Q

treatment of dacrocystitis

A

oral abx (clindamycin if mild) and topical abx

132
Q

treatment of epididymitis in >35

A

levaquin or bactrim (targeting e. coli, pseudomonas)

133
Q

most common presentation of arterial gas embolism in divers

A

unconsciousncess 10 min after ascent

134
Q

treatment of CMV retinitis

A

ganciclovir

135
Q

what is #1 cause of blindness in AIDs

A

CMV retinitis

136
Q

cotton wool exudates and retinal hemorrhage in AIDs

A

CMV retinitis

137
Q

most common causes of hand, foot, mouth disease

A

enterovirus, coxsackie virus

138
Q

ANUG is associated with what bacteria

A

prevotella intermedia

139
Q

treatment for prostatitis with high risk sex behavior

A

IM rocephin and 10 days of doxycycline

140
Q

treatment of acute prostatitis without high risk sex havriour

A

bactrim or fluqoroquinolone x 4-6 weeks

141
Q

most common location for zoster to occur

A

thorax, followed by face (trigeminal nerve)

142
Q

MCC infectious diarrhea

A

c. jejuni

143
Q

MCC malignant otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

144
Q

treatment of malignant otitis externa

A

ciprofloxacin

145
Q

CN that can be involved in malignant otitis externa

A

CNVII

146
Q

most common form of extrapulmonary TB

A

lymphadenitis

147
Q

MCC spinal epidural abscess

A

s. aureus

148
Q

what is the cervical lymphadenitis of TB called

A

scrofula

149
Q

gold standard for diagnosis of rabies

A

histologic evaluation of the white matter- negri bodies

150
Q

treatment of tularemia

A

streptomycin (add chloremphenicol for meningeal involvement)

151
Q

ulcerated skin and regional lymphadenopathy in patient with rabbit exposure

A

tularemia

152
Q

first line treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

pyrimethamine (also leucovorin), sulfadiazine

153
Q

CD4 for primary CNS lymphoma

A

<50

154
Q

side effects of pyrimethamine

A

bone marrow suppression, rash, nausea

155
Q

chronic watery diarrhea in HIV

A

cryptosporidium

156
Q

ring enhancing lesions+focal deficits in HIV patient

A

toxoplasmosis

157
Q

irremovable lesions on the tongue in HIV patient

A

hairy leukoplakia

158
Q

ring enhancing lesion + progressive AMS in patient with HIV

A

primary CNS lymphoma

159
Q

Focal neurologic deficits, non-enhancing white matter lesions, CD4 < 200

A

PML (JC virus)

160
Q

organism that is most likely to cause osto after a dog bite

A

pasteurella multocida

161
Q

MC organism that causes osteo

A

s. aureus

162
Q

how is osteo most commonly spread in adult

A

contiguous

163
Q

how is oste most commonly spread in kids

A

hematogenous

164
Q

SW united states exposure causing chest pain, dyspnea, rash, myalgias

A

coccidiomycosis

165
Q

treatment for coccidiomycosis

A

fluconazole or ampho (severe)

166
Q

4 cancers that are considered AIDS-defining

A
  1. cervical cancer
  2. kaposi’s sarcoma
  3. burkitt’s lymphoma
  4. primary CNS lymphoma
167
Q

treatment of amebic abscess

A

IV flagyl

168
Q

most common cause of amebic abscess

A

entomaeba histolytica

169
Q

treatment of pyogenic liver abscess

A

third/fourth gen cephalosporin + flagyl or clinda

170
Q

what mosquito spreads malaria

A

anopholes

171
Q

most lethal form of malaria

A

p. falciparum

172
Q

two species of malaria that have a long dormant phase

A

p. vivax, p. ovale

173
Q

cerebral malaria, blackwater fever

A

p. falciparum

174
Q

uncomplicated malaria, in low resistance area- treatment

A

chloroquine

175
Q

treatment of complicated p. falciparum

A

quinidine + doxycycline

176
Q

Most common pathogen in dog bite

A

Pasteurella

177
Q

Organism that causes cat scratch

A

Bartonella

178
Q

intracellular gram negaitve bacilius

A

yersinia pestis

179
Q

ebola-type of virus

A

RNA virus

180
Q

tender pustules, tenosynovitis, septic arthritis, rash, fevers/chills consistent with dissemination of what STI

A

disseminated gonorrhea

181
Q

MCC septic arthritis in patients less than 35yo

A

gonorrhea

182
Q

treatment of disseminated gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone x7days + single dose azithromycin

183
Q

Organism that causes tinea versicolor

A

Malasezzia

184
Q

Treatmnet of tinea versicolor

A

Selenium sulfide, oral fluconazole, or topical imidazole

185
Q

Headache, periorbital edema, and ophthalmoplegia- think

A

Cavernous venous thrombosis

186
Q

MCC of erysipelas

A

S. Pyogenes

187
Q

MCC external shunt infection

A

S. Epidermis

188
Q

Infection from dog bite that causes death

A

Capnocytophagia canimorsus

189
Q

what precautions should someone be placed on in the hospital for flu

A

droplet

190
Q

tick associated with ehrlichiosis

A

lone star tick

191
Q

morulae, or intracellular mulberry-like clusters, on peripheral smear- diagnosis

A

ehrlichiosis

192
Q

tick bite that causes abrupt onset headache, fevers, myalgias

A

ehrlichiosis

193
Q

What is the name of the phenomenon seen in Rocky Mountain spotted fever when petechiae form after blood pressure cuff inflation

A

Rumpel-Leede phenomenon

194
Q

tick that causes RMSF

A

dermacentor

195
Q

centripetal rash from ankles/hands to trunk

A

RMSF

196
Q

Side effect of didanosine

A

Pancreatitis

197
Q

Side effect of efavirinz

A

Vivid dreams, Headache, severe rash, dizziness

198
Q

HIV medication that causes radiolucent kidney stones

A

Indinavir

199
Q

Hepatitis, nausea, vomiting, hepatitis- HIV medication

A

Lopinavir

200
Q

HIV medication that causes bone marrow suppresion

A

Zinovadine

201
Q

HIV medications that causes lactic acidosis

A

NRTIs

202
Q

HIV medication that causes paresthesias

A

Ritonavir

203
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum- caused by what bacteria

A

c. trachomatis

204
Q

enlarged lymph nodes after PAINLESS genital ulcer

A

LGV

205
Q

treatment for LGV

A

doxycycline x21d

206
Q

treatment for chancroid

A

250mg IM rocephin

207
Q

azithromycin causes what cardiac abnormality

A

prolonged QTc

208
Q

treatment of severe malaria

A

IV artesenate

Rosh Review (17 decks)

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