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Rizk Review > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Timing of Neisseria conjunctivitis?

A

Days 1-5

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2
Q

Best treatment for Neisseria conjunctivitis?

A

IM ceftriaxone, Topical erythromycin

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3
Q

Description of discharge in Neisseria conjunctivitis?

A

Purulent

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4
Q

Timing of Chlamydia conjunctivitis?

A

2 Weeks

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5
Q

Best treatment for Chlamydia conjunctivitis?

A

IM ceftriaxone,

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6
Q

Description of discharge in Chlamydia conjunctivitis?

A

Systemic erythromycin

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7
Q

Timing of Chemical conjunctivitis?

A

Day 1

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8
Q

Best treatment for Chemical conjunctivitis?

A

Irrigation + reassurance

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9
Q

How long are children with strep pharyngitis considered to be contagious?

A

2 days after starting ABX

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10
Q

Deviation of uvula in setting of peritonsillar abscess?

A

Towards unaffected side

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11
Q

Best IV ABX for peritonsillar abscess?

A

Clindamycin

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12
Q

Best IV ABX for epiglottitis?

A

Ceftriaxone

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13
Q

Complication of RSV?

A

Increased risk of asthma

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14
Q

Best treatment for RSV?

A

Symptomatic

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15
Q

Best treatment for RSV in immunocompromised patients?

A

Ribavirin

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16
Q

Best treatment for pertussis infection?

A

Erythromycin, 14 days

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17
Q

2 best tests for diagnosis of pertussis infection?

A

Nasopharyngeal swabs on Bordet agar; PCR testing

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18
Q

Difference between DPT and TDaP vaccines?

A

DPT = contains whole killed pertussis cells; TDaP = contains acellular pertussis

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19
Q

2 most common viral pathogens responsible for otitis media?

A

Influenza A, Parainfluenza

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20
Q

Clinical presentation of Mastoiditis?

A

Tenderness, erythema, edema of retroauricular region

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21
Q

DOC for treatment of otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin for 10 days

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22
Q

DOC for treatment of otitis media that does not improve with 3-4 day course of amoxicillin?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

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23
Q

4 yo male presents with honey crusted perioral lesions – best ABX?

A

Dicloxacillin

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24
Q

When is chickenpox contagious?

A

2 days before onset of rash … Until crusting of all lesions

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25
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for varicella?

A

Varicella Zoster Ig (VZIG)

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26
Q

3 steps in spread of measles infection?

A

Upper respiratory tract >> Reticuloendothelial cells in LN >> Blood

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27
Q

Oral manifestation of measles?

A

Koplik spots

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28
Q

Treatment that improves the morbidity + mortality of measles?

A

Vitamin A

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29
Q

Where does Rubella virus multiply?

A

Nasopharynx

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30
Q

What type of vaccine is MMR?

A

Live attenuated … contraindicated in pregnancy

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31
Q

Classic tetrad seen in Congenital Rubella?

A

Sensorineural deafness, Congenital cataracts, Blueberry muffin rash, PDA

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32
Q

Why is retinoblastoma so dangerous?

A

Early metastasis to liver, brain, bones

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33
Q

Which virus is associated with postauricular LAD?

A

Rubella

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34
Q

Name of rash associated with Parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Erythema infectiosum

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35
Q

Structure of Parvovirus B19?

A

ssDNA

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36
Q

Virus associated with Roseola?

A

HHV-6

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37
Q

Name of rash associated with HHV-6 infection?

A

Exanthem subitum

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38
Q

Description of rash in Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis?

A

Pus-filled blisters that are not surrounded by erythema … rupture, then leave behind pigmented macules

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39
Q

Epidemiology of Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis?

A

AA, Full-term

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40
Q

Clinical manifestation of Coxsackie A infection?

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth syndrome, Conjunctivitis

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41
Q

Clinical manifestation of Coxsackie B infection?

A

Myocarditis

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42
Q

Pathognomonic finding within infected neurons in Rabies infection?

A

Negri bodies

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43
Q

Best treatment after animal bite from animal with suspected rabies infection?

A

Human Rabies Ig + Vaccination

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44
Q

Cave explorer was attacked by bat; Died in a week – diagnosis?

A

Rabies

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45
Q

Cave explorer was attacked by bat; Few weeks later presents with hepatosplenomegaly, erythema nodosum, lung lesions – diagnosis?

A

Histoplasmosis

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46
Q

Is deafness or blindness associated with congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Blindness

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47
Q

Best treatment for toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyramidine + sulfadiazine

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48
Q

Age of pincer grip?

A

9 mo

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49
Q

Age of pull to stand?

A

9 mo

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50
Q

Age of non-specific Mama + Dada?

A

9 mo

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51
Q

Age of lifting head?

A

2 mo

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52
Q

Age of coo?

A

2 mo

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53
Q

Age of social smile?

A

2 mo

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54
Q

Age of rolling?

A

4-5 mo

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55
Q

Age of sitting alone?

A

6 mo

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56
Q

Age of stranger anxiety beginning?

A

6 mo

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57
Q

Age of walking?

A

12 mo

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58
Q

Age of 2-cube tower?

A

12 mo

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59
Q

Age of climbing stairs, no alternation of feet?

A

2 yo

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60
Q

Age of imitating others?

A

2 yo

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61
Q

Age of babbling?

A

6 mo

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62
Q

Age of rolling from back to front?

A

6 mo

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63
Q

Age of climbing stairs, alternation of feet?

A

3 yo

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64
Q

Age of specific Mama + Dada?

A

12 mo

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65
Q

Age of 4-6 word vocab?

A

15 mo

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66
Q

Age of 4-20 word vocab?

A

18 mo

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67
Q

Age of 2-word phrases?

A

2 yo

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68
Q

Age of 6-cube tower?

A

2 yo

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69
Q

Age of 3-word phrases?

A

3 yo

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70
Q

Age of copying circle?

A

3 yo

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71
Q

Age of brushing teeth?

A

3 yo

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72
Q

Age of washing hands?

A

3 yo

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73
Q

Age of eating with fork + spoon?

A

3 yo

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74
Q

Age of copying cross?

A

4 yo

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75
Q

Age of hopping?

A

4 yo

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76
Q

Age of counting to 10?

A

4 yo

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77
Q

Age of cooperative play?

A

4 yo

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78
Q

When is medication indicated for nocturnal enuresis?

A

After 5 yo

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79
Q

Most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis?

A

Bet-wetting alarms

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80
Q

2 DOC for nocturnal enuresis?

A

DDAVP, Imipramine

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81
Q

5 steps of tooth eruption?

A

Central incisors, lateral incisors, first molars, canines, second molars

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82
Q

In females, puberty begins with …

A

Breast budding

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83
Q

Immediate puberty step before menarche?

A

Axillary hair

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84
Q

In females, puberty ends with …

A

Menarche

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85
Q

In males, puberty begins with …

A

Testes enlargement

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86
Q

In males, puberty ends with …

A

Body growth

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87
Q

Etiology of vaginal bleeding?

A

Transplacental transfer of estrogen to fetus

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88
Q

Etiology of testicular feminization?

A

Lack androgen receptors … inability of DHT to act

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89
Q

Genotype of testicular feminization?

A

46 XY

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90
Q

Etiology of feminization of penis + scrotum?

A

5a-reductase deficiency … Decreased DHT

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91
Q

Genotype of feminization of penis + scrotum?

A

46 XY

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92
Q

Structures that are driven into development by DHT?

A

External sexual organs, prostate, epididymis, seminal vesicles, vas deferens

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93
Q

Significance of 1-minute APGAR score?

A

Condition during labor/delivery … need to resuscitation

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94
Q

Significance of 5-minute APGAR score?

A

Effectiveness of resuscitation efforts, Survival prognosis

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95
Q

Best treatment for APGAR score 4-7?

A

Observation … may need respiratory support

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96
Q

Low-dose steroid?

A

< 10 mg/day

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97
Q

Medium-dose steroid?

A

10-20 mg/day

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98
Q

High-dose steroid?

A

> 20 mg/day

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99
Q

Best location of vaccine placement for children/infants?

A

Anterolateral thigh

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100
Q

Best location of vaccine placement for children/infants?

A

Deltoid

101
Q

When do infants double their birth weight?

A

4-5 months

102
Q

Best treatment for children with galactosemia?

A

Diet that avoids lactose

103
Q

Safest position for baby’s to sleep?

A

Supine

104
Q

Most likely complication during first 24 hours for patients who are small for gestational age?

A

Hypoglycemia

105
Q

When should children begin eating baby foods?

A

6 mo

106
Q

Most common cause of PNA in children ages 2-5 yo?

A

RSV >> Strep pneumoniae >> Haemophilus influenzae

107
Q

Best treatment for RSV bronchiolitis?

A

Supportive care

108
Q

Who should receive DTAP vaccine?

A

Children < 7 yo

109
Q

Who should receive TDAP vaccine?

A

Children > 11 yo

110
Q

Best treatment for suspected Transposition of Great Vessels?

A

Prostaglandin E1

111
Q

Role of PGE1 as treatment for Transposition of Great Vessels?

A

Maintains patent ductus arteriosus

112
Q

Clinical presentation of Transposition of Great Vessels?

A

Development of cyanosis during first few days of life

113
Q

Cobblestoning of oropharynx in patient with nasal discharge is suggestive of …

A

Allergic rhinitis

114
Q

Name the Tanner Stage – growth of nipple + areola without separation in contours; Pubic hair is coarse but sparse?

A

Tanner Stage 3

115
Q

Name the Tanner Stage – nipple + areola form a separate mound; Pubic hair is similar in adult appearance, without spread to thighs?

A

Tanner Stage 4

116
Q

Inheritance pattern of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?

A

X-linked recessive

117
Q

Change to Ig levels in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?

A

Low IgM, High IgA, NML IgE

118
Q

Change to Ig levels in Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Low IgE + IgA

119
Q

2 types of CA associated with Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, Gastric CA

120
Q

Inheritance pattern of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?

A

AR

121
Q

Which pathogens are patients with Chediak-Higashi Syndrome more susceptible to?

A

Staph + Strep

122
Q

At what age can patients be diagnosed with Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Age > 15 yo

123
Q

___ refers to premature fusion/ossification of skull stutures … leading to abnormal pattern of skull growth

A

Craniosynostoses

124
Q

Most common congenital heart disease in all patients?

A

VSD

125
Q

Most common cause of primary amenorrhea?

A

Turners Syndrome

126
Q

Best management of atrophic ovaries in Turner Syndrome?

A

Bilateral oophorectomy

127
Q

Most common heart defect seen in Turner Syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aorta

128
Q

2nd most common heart defect seen in Turner Syndrome?

A

Aortic coarctation

129
Q

Fabry’s disease results in accumulation of …

A

Trihexosyl ceramide

130
Q

4 most common organs affected by Fabry’s disease?

A

Heart, skin, CNS, kidneys

131
Q

Hunter Syndrome results in accumulation of …

A

Mucopolysaccharide

132
Q

Is corneal clouding more common in Hunter Syndrome or Hurler Syndrome?

A

Hurler

133
Q

Inheritance pattern of Hunter Syndrome?

A

AR

134
Q

Inheritance pattern of Hurler Syndrome?

A

AR

135
Q

Gaucher Disease results in accumulation of …

A

Glucocerebroside

136
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for Gaucher Disease?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, aspectic necrosis

137
Q

Classic cell seen in Gaucher Disease?

A

Tissue paper macrophages … lipid-filled

138
Q

Niemann-Pick Disease results in accumulation of …

A

Sphingomyelin

139
Q

Classic cell seen in Niemann-Pick Disease?

A

Foam cells

140
Q

Clinical presentation of Niemann-Pick Disease – Type A?

A

CNS disturbance, Life span ~ 3 yo

141
Q

Clinical presentation of Niemann-Pick Disease – Type B?

A

Progressive pulmonary disease

142
Q

Inheritance pattern of Niemann-Pick Disease?

A

AR

143
Q

Inheritance pattern of all glycogen storage diseases?

A

AR

144
Q

Type I glycogen storage disease?

A

Von Gierke Disease

145
Q

2 lab changes in Von Gierke Disease?

A

Lactic acidosis, Hyperuricemia

146
Q

Von Gierke Disease results from accumulation of glycogen in …

A

Liver

147
Q

Type II glycogen storage disease?

A

Pompe Disease

148
Q

Pompe Disease results from accumulation of glycogen in …

A

Lysosomes

149
Q

Clinical presentation of Pompe Disease?

A

Cardiomyopathy

150
Q

Type III glycogen storage disease?

A

Cori Disease

151
Q

Etiology of Cori Disease?

A

Incomplete breakdown of glycogen

152
Q

Clinical presentation for Cori Disease?

A

Myopathy

153
Q

3 lab changes seen in Cori Disease?

A

Hypoglycemia, NML lactate, hyperlipidemia

154
Q

Type V glycogen storage disease?

A

McArdle Disease

155
Q

McArdle Disease results from accumulation of glycogen in …

A

Muscle

156
Q

Complication of McArdle Disease?

A

Renal failure

157
Q

What accounts for risk of renal failure in McArdle Disease?

A

Myoglobinuria … muscle cramps, high CPK

158
Q

21a hydroxylase deficiency – hypertension OR hypotension?

A

Hypotension

159
Q

11a hydroxylase deficiency – hypertension OR hypotension?

A

HTN

160
Q

17a hydroxylase deficiency – hypertension OR hypotension?

A

HTN

161
Q

21a hydroxylase deficiency – electrolyte changes?

A

Hyponatremia, Hyperkalemia

162
Q

11a hydroxylase deficiency – electrolyte changes?

A

Hypernatremia, Hypokalemia

163
Q

17a hydroxylase deficiency – electrolyte changes?

A

Hypernatremia, Hypokalemia

164
Q

Location of brachial cleft cysts in relation to SCM?

A

Anterior

165
Q

Location of cystic hygroma in relation to SCM?

A

Posterior

166
Q

___ refers to rapidly-progressing swelling of submandibular space with cellulits

A

Ludwig angina

167
Q

Most common etiology of Ludwig angina?

A

Dental disease

168
Q

___ refers to physically NML eye in which visual stimulation fails to transmit via optic nerve

A

Amblyopia

169
Q

Best treatment for Amblyopia?

A

Patch good eye … to enforce use of amblyotic eye

170
Q

___ refers to genetic disorder that presents with night blindness, then tunnel vision

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

171
Q

Which direction of heart shunting results in cyanosis?

A

R-to-L

172
Q

Next step of workup for retinal hemorrhages … (after alerting social services)

A

CT scan to look for SAH

173
Q

Which nerve roots are responsible for Klumpke’s Palsy?

A

C8/T1

174
Q

Which aspect of clinical presentation can distinguish Erb’s Palsy from Klumpke’s Palsy?

A

Erb = intact grip strength; Klumpke = weak grip strength

175
Q

___ fracture refers to bending of periosteum without fracture

A

Buckle

176
Q

___ fracture refers to bending of periosteum with contralateral bone fracture

A

Greenstick

177
Q

Type I Salter Harris fracture?

A

Through growth plate

178
Q

Type II Salter Harris fracture?

A

Through growth plate + metaphysis

179
Q

Type III Salter Harris fracture?

A

Through growth plate + epiphysis

180
Q

Type IV Salter Harris fracture?

A

Through growth plate + epiphysis + metaphysis

181
Q

Type V Salter Harris fracture?

A

Compression of growth plate

182
Q

Lab change associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Elevated alkaline phosphatase

183
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea in children ages 6 mo – 2 yo?

A

Rotavirus

184
Q

Most common cause of pediatric pancreatitis?

A

Blunt abdominal trauma

185
Q

Main aspect of clinical presentation for Riboflavin deficiency?

A

Cheilosis

186
Q

Pulmonary immaturity occurs before gestational age …

A

26 weeks

187
Q

Most common cause of death in children < 15 yo?

A

MVC

188
Q

NML hydration during first 24 hours of life?

A

1 wet diaper

189
Q

Only vaccination given to neonates (0-1 mo)?

A

Hepatitis B

190
Q

Vaccines given at 2 months?

A

Haemophilus, Polio, DTAP, Pneumococcal

191
Q

Vaccines given at 4 months?

A

Haemophilus, Polio, DTAP, Pneumococcal

192
Q

Vaccines given at 6 months?

A

Haemophilus, Polio, DTAP, Pneumococcal

193
Q

When should birth weight double?

A

3 months

194
Q

Most common timeframe for risk of SIDS?

A

2-4 months

195
Q

Contraindication for circumcision?

A

Hypospadias

196
Q

5 contraindications for breastfeeding?

A

HIV, active TB, HSV lesion on breast, illicit drug use, XRT + CXTX

197
Q

___ refers to benign condition in which skin turns blue with mottled appearance when neonate is exposed to cold; Skin returns to NML with warming

A

Cutis marmorata

198
Q

___ refers to cutaneous vascular disorder that is present at birth, skin turns blue with mottled appearance when neonate is exposed to cold; Skin does not return to NML after warming

A

Cutis marmorata telangiectatica

199
Q

Next step in management of suspected tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

Surgical repair

200
Q

Condition associated with tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

Down Syndrome

201
Q

Complication of surgical repair of tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

Thoracic duct injury … chylothorax

202
Q

Condition associated with Congenital Pyloric Stenosis?

A

Turner Syndrome

203
Q

Diagnostic tool for Congenital Pyloric Stenosis?

A

Abdominal US

204
Q

Change to amniotic fluid in Congenital Pyloric Stenosis?

A

Polyhydramnios

205
Q

Condition associated with Duodenal Atresia?

A

Down Syndrome

206
Q

Is Meckel Diverticulum a true or false diverticulum?

A

True

207
Q

Appearance of Hirschsprung Disease on abdominal XR?

A

Dilated sigmoid colon, with narrowing of bowel distally

208
Q

Appearance of donor in Twin-to-Twin transfusion?

A

Stick to amniotic sac

209
Q

Appearance of recipient in Twin-to-Twin transfusion?

A

Hemolysis, jaundice

210
Q

Alternate name for Mongolian Spots?

A

Congenital dermal melanocytosis

211
Q

Prognosis for Mongolian Spots?

A

Disappears by age 3-5 yo

212
Q

MSK condition associated with Prune Belly Syndrome?

A

Clubfoot

213
Q

2 tumors associated with NF-1?

A

Pheochromocytoma, Optic glioma

214
Q

2 tumors associated with NF-2?

A

Acoustic neuroma, Meningioma

215
Q

Ocular condition associated with NF-2?

A

Cataracts

216
Q

Appearance of ash-leaf lesions in Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Hypopigmented

217
Q

Immunodeficiency seen in Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Combined immunodeficiency … Low Ig, T cell dysfunction

218
Q

What accounts for T cell dysfunction in Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Thymic hypoplasia

219
Q

2 aspect of clinical presentation for Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

A

Port-Wine Stains, Seizures

220
Q

2 tumors associated with VHL Syndrome?

A

Pheochromocytoma, Renal cell carcinoma

221
Q

Role of VHL gene?

A

TSG

222
Q

Location of VHL gene?

A

Chromosome 3

223
Q

Ocular portion affected by VHL Syndrome?

A

Retina … (angiomatosis)

224
Q

Ocular portion affected by NF-1 Syndrome?

A

Iris … (hamartomas)

225
Q

Sign of pathologic jaundice in neonates?

A

Present beyond 1 week in term infants; 2 weeks in pre-term infants

226
Q

Onset of pathologic jaundice?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia present < 24 hours old

227
Q

Indication for Phototherapy in neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Total Bilirubin > 15

228
Q

Role of Phototherapy in neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Isomerization of bilirubin … water-soluble isomers

229
Q

Peak of Transient Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

2-3 days of life

230
Q

XR appearance of Necrotizing Enterocolitis?

A

Portal venous gas, Pneumatosis intestinalis

231
Q

Onset of Transient Tachypnea of Newborn?

A

First few hours of life

232
Q

NML RR of newborns?

A

40-60 x per minute

233
Q

Prognosis of Transient Tachypnea of Newborn?

A

Self-limited

234
Q

3 pathogens responsible for early sepsis in neonates?

A

GBS, E. coli, Listeria

235
Q

3 pathogens responsible for late sepsis in neonates?

A

GBS, E. coli, Staph

236
Q

Most common cause of Retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Excessive O2 supplementation

237
Q

Change to vitals in Intraventricular Hemorrhage?

A

Bradycardia

238
Q

Next step of workup for neonate who presents with rectal bleeding or hematemesis shortly after delivery?

A

Apt test … (not EGD or colonoscopy)

239
Q

Role of Apt test in fetal rectal bleeding or fetal hematemesis?

A

Checks HGB of blood to distinguish maternal blood from fetal blood

240
Q

Which route of delivery is needed for Vitamin K at birth?

A

IM

241
Q

Clinical presentation of acute neonatal narcotic withdrawal?

A

Sneezing, rhinorrhea, diarrhea

242
Q

Treatment of choice for acute neonatal narcotic withdrawal?

A

Opium solution

243
Q

Etiology of Neonatal RDS?

A

Deficiency of surfactant

244
Q

Appearance of Neonatal RDS on CXR?

A

Ground glass, Reticulogranulocyte densities

245
Q

2 aspects of treatment for Neonatal RDS?

A

Surfactant replacement, O2 supplementation

246
Q

2 complications of excessive O2 supplementation in neonates?

A

Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia, Retinopathy of prematurity

247
Q

Etiology of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia?

A

Necrotizing bronchiolitis

248
Q

Etiology of Retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Fibrovascular proliferation of retinal vessels

249
Q

Which vaccine is indicated for patients with chronic lung conditions?

A

Influenza

Rizk Review (19 decks)

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