Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rizk Review > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogen responsible for nail-puncture wound through tennis shoe?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Best treatment for Ecthyma Gangrenosum?

A

ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Best treatment for Pyoderma Gangrenosum?

A

Corticosteroids for treatment of underlying Crohn’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lab result seen in Salmonella Typhi infection?

A

Leukopenia … (rather than leukocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clinical presentation of Salmonella Typhi infection?

A

Truncal rose spots that appear ~1 week after fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Etiology of non-typhoidal salmonella?

A

Consumption of chicken/eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Complication of non-typhoidal salmonella infection?

A

Atherosclerotic aortic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why should non-typhoidal salmonella NOT be treated with ABX?

A

Increased risk of carrier state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vector for yersinia?

A

Flea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reservoir of yersinia?

A

Rodents … (prairie dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Appearance of yersinia on Gram stain?

A

Safety pin appearance … bipolar staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 DOC for yersinia infection?

A

Streptomycin, Tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Best treatment for bartonells henselae?

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Clinical presentation of Legionella infection?

A

PNA, diarrhea, hyponatremia, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment of Legionella infection?

A

Macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lab result seen in setting of Bordetella infection?

A

Lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lab result seen in setting of Rickettsii infection?

A

Hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cardiac manifestation of Coxiella infection?

A

Signs of endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aspect of HX that predisposes patients to Coxiella infection?

A

HX of heart valve damage … (murmur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a rickettsial infection that is not caused by classic Rickettsia?

A

Coxiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Should you order serology test for patient with suspected Lyme Disease?

A

No … (takes too long, need to start doxycycline before then)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a patient discovers tick on body, know it has been there for > 48 hours – what is best management?

A

1 dose of doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a patient discovers tick on body, know it has been there for < 48 hours – what is best management?

A

Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Clinical presentation of stage 2 Lyme disease?

A

Polyarthritis, Bell’s palsy, Cardiac conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which Cardiac conduction abnormality is associated with stage 2 Lyme disease?

A

3rd degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clinical presentation of stage 3 Lyme disease?

A

Polyarthritis, Encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causative agent of Granuloma Inguinale?

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Appearance of Granuloma Inguinale on biopsy?

A

Donovan bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Description of Granuloma Inguinale?

A

Beefy red granulomatous ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Appearance of lungs in Primary TB infection?

A

Calcified hilar LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

___ refers to Calcified hilar LN seen in Primary TB infection?

A

Gohn Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what level of PPD induration should patients be treated with isoniazid if they have had recent TB contacts?

A

> 5mm induration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what level of PPD induration should patients be treated with isoniazid if they have HIV?

A

> 5mm induration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long should latent TB patients be treated with Isoniazid?

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

32 yo Indian immigrant presents for PPD test that showed 11mm of induration; Reports HX of BCG vaccination in home country – next step?

A

CXR + sputum culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At what level of PPD induration should patients be treated with isoniazid if they have HX of BCG vaccination?

A

> 10mm induration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Next step of workup for patients with (+) PPD?

A

CXR + Sputum culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Next step of workup for patients with (+) PPD; (-) CXR and (-) Sputum culture?

A

Isoniazid for 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Next step of workup for patients with (+) PPD; (+) CXR and (+) Sputum culture?

A

RIPE therapy … 4 drugs for 2 months; 2 drugs for 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 2 TB drugs that should be given for 4 months?

A

Isoniazid + Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

AEs of streptomycin?

A

Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Treatment of Coccidioidomycosis?

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for Coccidioidomycosis?

A

Sarcoid-like … Pulmonary lesions + Arthralgias + Erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for Histoplasmosis?

A

Interstitial PNA, Splenomegaly, Pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Appearance of spleen in Histoplasmosis?

A

Calcified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 aspects of clinical presentation for Blastomycosis?

A

Skin + Bone involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Best treatment for aspergilloma (fungal ball)?

A

Surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Clinical presentation for aspergilloma (fungal ball)?

A

Massive hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Aflatoxin (aspergillus flavus) is a risk factor for which type of CA?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Best treatment for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Steroids + Oral itraconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of Aspergillus infection in most common in immunocompromised patients?

A

Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Clinical presentation of Schistosoma mansoni?

A

Cirrhosis, portal HTN, varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Clinical presentation of Schistosoma hematobium?

A

Squamous cell bladder CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Clinical presentation of Diphyllbothrium latum?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Alternate name for Diphyllbothrium latum?

A

Fish tapeworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Alternate name for Enterobius vermicularis?

A

Pinworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

50 yo male with AML presents with fever; Finished CTX 10 days ago; Indwelling catheter with no redness or discharge; Labs show PML = 250 – next step in workup?

A

Draw blood and start IV piperacillin/tazobactam + IV aminoglycoside … covering for Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

50 yo male with AML presents with fever; Finished CTX 10 days ago; Indwelling catheter with no redness or discharge; Labs show PML = 250; Patient is started on IV piperacillin/tazobactam + IV aminoglycoside – fever does not resolve after 5-7 days … what is next step in management?

A

Add Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which 4 pathogens are most likely to infect patients with humoral deficiency?

A

Encapsulated organisms … Strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Neisseria meningitis, Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

2 bacteria that affect patients with T cell deficiency?

A

Listeria, Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

2 fungi that affect patients with T cell deficiency?

A

Histoplasma, Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

2 protozoa that affect patients with T cell deficiency?

A

Pneumocystis carinii, Toxoplasma, Strongyloides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

2 viruses that affect patients with T cell deficiency?

A

CMV, Varicella, HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Best treatment for Gonococcal arthritis?

A

IV ceftriaxone for 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Schedule for Hepatitis B vaccine?

A

Birth, 1-2 months, 6-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Best treatment for infants born to mothers with (+) HBsAg?

A

Hep B IgG, Hepatitis B vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What type of vaccine is Hepatitis B?

A

Inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What type of vaccine is Rotavirus?

A

Live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Route of administration for Rotavirus?

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Schedule for Rotavirus vaccine?

A

2 months, 4 months, 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Rotavirus vaccination should not be started on infants older than the age of …

A

15 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

AE of Rotavirus vaccination?

A

Intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Schedule for DTap vaccine?

A

2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 15-18 months, 4-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

AE of DTap vaccine?

A

Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Schedule for Haemophilus Influenzae vaccine?

A

2 months, 4 months, 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When is Haemophilus Influenzae booster vaccine given?

A

12-15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Schedule for PCV13 pneumococcal vaccine?

A

2 months, 4 months, 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When should PCV13 pneumococcal booster vaccine be administered?

A

12-15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Indication of PPSV23 pneumococcal vaccine?

A

Immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Schedule for PPSV23 pneumococcal vaccine?

A

After completing PCV13 vaccine (2 yo), then 7 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Schedule of Polio vaccine?

A

2 months, 4 months, 6-18 months, 4-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Schedule of MMR vaccine?

A

12-15 months, 4-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of vaccine is MMR?

A

Live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Contraindication to MMR vaccine?

A

Immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Schedule of Varicella Zoster vaccine?

A

12-15 months, 4-6 years

86
Q

Important consideration for patients 6 weeks after receiving VZV vaccine?

A

Avoid ASA … (risk for Reye Syndrome)

87
Q

Schedule for Hepatitis A vaccine?

A

Given between 12-24 mo (with 6 months between doses)

88
Q

When may intranasal flu vaccine be administered?

A

2+ yo

89
Q

Important consideration for patients 6 weeks after receiving influenza vaccine?

A

Avoid ASA … (risk for Reye Syndrome)

90
Q

When is Tdap virus first given?

A

11-12 yo

91
Q

How often is Tdap given?

A

Every 10 years

92
Q

Contraindication to Tdap vaccine?

A

HX of encephalopathy

93
Q

Timing of first meningococcal vaccine?

A

11-12 yo

94
Q

Timing of first meningococcal booster?

A

16 yo

95
Q

Which group of patients should receive meningitis vaccine before 11 yo?

A

Travelling to endemic region, Asplenia, Complement deficiency

96
Q

Medication that allows for patients should receive meningitis vaccine before 11 yo?

A

Eculizumab

97
Q

MOA of Eculizumab?

A

C5 inhibitor

98
Q

When should HPV vaccine be given?

A

11-12 yo (with 6 months between doses)

99
Q

Coagulase (+) staphylococcus?

A

Staph aureus

100
Q

Coagulase (-) staphylococcus?

A

Staph epidermidis, Staph saprophyticus

101
Q

What type of toxin is TSST-1 in Toxic Shock Syndrome due to Staph aureus?

A

Exotoxin

102
Q

Most common type of nosocomial infection?

A

UTI

103
Q

What is best ABX for treatment of post-influenza Staph aureus PNA?

A

IV nafcillin … (this is MSSA)

104
Q

3 outpatient treatments for MRSA?

A

Clindamycin, TMP-SMX, Doxycycline

105
Q

Common pathogen responsible for post-partum endometritis?

A

GBS

106
Q

Which virulence factor is responsible for Scarlet fever cause by Strep pyogenes?

A

Exotoxin A-B-C

107
Q

Which virulence factor is responsible for Necrotizing Fasciitis cause by Strep pyogenes?

A

Exotoxin B

108
Q

Which ABX is important to add to cases of Necrotizing Fasciitis?

A

Clindamycin

109
Q

In a patient with Toxic Shock Syndrome (hypotension, desquamating rash, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PTT) – how can you tell between TSS due to Strep pyogenes vs. Staph aureus?

A

Strep pyogenes = (+) culture; Staph aureus = (-) blood culture

110
Q

32 yo male develops dry cough for 2 days; No exudate, no fever, no LAD – next step?

A

Observe … strep pharyngitis = fever, no cough, LAD, exudate

111
Q

Patient presents with mucopurulent urethral discharge, multiple sexual partners, absence of bacteria on UA – diagnosis?

A

Chlamydial urethritis

112
Q

In addition to strep bovis, which bacteria is associated with colon CA?

A

Clostridium septicum

113
Q

Most common pathogen responsible for subacute bacterial endocarditis in native valves in patients without drug use HX?

A

Streptococcus viridans

114
Q

Strep pneumoniae is most common cause of which 2 conditions in adults?

A

Pneumonia, Meningitis

115
Q

3 DOCs for treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A

vanComycin, Corticosteroids, Ceftriaxone

116
Q

Leading cause of invasive bacterial respiratory disease in patients with HIV infection?

A

Strep pneumoniae … (not PCP)

117
Q

Best treatment for suspected meningitis caused by Listeria (patient is on chronic steroids)?

A

Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin

118
Q

Best treatment for Cornyebacterium Diphtheria?

A

Erythromycin + Diphtheria toxin

119
Q

Complication of Cornyebacterium Diphtheria infection?

A

Myocarditis

120
Q

Clinical presentation of Cornyebacterium JK infection?

A

IV catheter infection in bone marrow transplant

121
Q

Best treatment for Cornyebacterium JK infection?

A

Vancomycin

122
Q

Toxin used by Clostridium perfringens in setting of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Lecithinase … phopholipidase

123
Q

Etiology of neonatal tetanus?

A

Umbilical stump infection

124
Q

Does tetanus infection induce protective immunity?

A

No … need to give vaccine after tetanus infection

125
Q

If patient is diagnosed with C. diff infection, but unable to take medications orally – what is DOC?

A

IV metronidazole

126
Q

Cutaneous manifestation of Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Painless black ulcers

127
Q

Best treatment for Cutaneous Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Ciprofloxacin

128
Q

Pulmonary manifestation of Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis

129
Q

Clinical presentation of Hemorrhagic mediastinitis in Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Widened mediastinum

130
Q

Best treatment for Pulmonary Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Ciprofloxacin + Tetracycline

131
Q

Route of transmission for Pulmonary Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

Spore inhalation … not person-to-person transmission like PNA

132
Q

Best treatment for bacillus cereus gastroenteritis?

A

Supportive

133
Q

Best treatment for bacillus cereus eye trauma?

A

Vancomycin

134
Q

Oxygen requirement of Nocardia?

A

Aerobe

135
Q

Oxygen requirement of Actinomyces?

A

Anaerobe

136
Q

Which is acid-fast staining – Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

Nocardia

137
Q

In addition to dental procedures, what is another exposure that might lead to infection with Actinomyces?

A

IUD insertion

138
Q

Clinical presentation of Nocardia infection?

A

Abscess in lungs + brain

139
Q

Best treatment for Nocardia infection?

A

TMP

140
Q

Most common infectious cause of blindness in developed world?

A

HSV-1 keratitis

141
Q

Complication of HSV-1?

A

Encephalitis

142
Q

Classic smell associated with HSV-1 encephalitis?

A

Smell of burning runner

143
Q

Complication of HSV-2?

A

Meningitis

144
Q

Structure of Sporotrichosis on tissue culture?

A

Cigar-shaped yeast

145
Q

What should you NOT do in Franciscella infection?

A

Aspirate the LN

146
Q

Patient presents with non-healing ulcer after working around fish tank – pathogen responsible?

A

M. marinum

147
Q

Pathogen most likely to cause genital herpes?

A

HSV-2

148
Q

Best treatment for pregnant female with genital lesions?

A

C-Section

149
Q

AE of valacyclovir?

A

Nephrotoxicity

150
Q

Complication of HHV-6 treated with ASA?

A

Reye Syndrome

151
Q

Is hairy leukoplakia seen in patients with HIV infection pre-malignant?

A

No

152
Q

How can you differentiate varicella (chickenpox) from smallpox?

A

Smallpox = same stage; Varicella chickenpox = all different stages

153
Q

Which specific type of immunodeficiency results in Varicella-Zoster Virus reactivation?

A

T cell deficiency

154
Q

Which branch of CN V1 accounts for Hutchinson sign in VZV reactivation?

A

Nasociliary

155
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Ear pain, ipsilateral facial weakness, Vesicular lesions on external ear

156
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome results from reactivation of VZV from within …

A

Geniculate ganglion

157
Q

Appearance of Tzanck smear in VZV infection?

A

Multinucleated giant cells

158
Q

2 DOC for post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

TCA, gabapentin

159
Q

Value of treating herpes zoster infection with acyclovir?

A

Shortened course of illness, but does not decrease incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia

160
Q

Which 2 medications can decrease the likelihood of post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

Famicyclovir, Valacyclovir

161
Q

Which pathogen is most commonly responsible for ocular complications in HIV patients?

A

CMV

162
Q

Ocular effect of CMV in HIV patients?

A

Chorioretinitis

163
Q

AE of ganciclovir?

A

Granulocytopenia

164
Q

Appearance of EBV infection on blood smear?

A

Atypical lymphocytes … indentation of cytoplasm (ballerina skirt)

165
Q

3 malignancies associated with EVB infection?

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin Lymphoma

166
Q

Flu vaccination decreases influenza mortality by about ___%

A

33

167
Q

Amatidine is effective against Influenza A or Influenza B?

A

A

168
Q

Oseltamivir is effective against Influenza A or Influenza B?

A

Both

169
Q

MOA of Oseltamivir in treatment of Influenza A and B?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

170
Q

Best treatment for patients in nursing home in which influenza infection is spreading?

A

Give oseltamivir to slow spread of infection … No point in giving influenza vaccination … Only effective in preventing spread of influenza on population basis

171
Q

Antigenic ___ in influenza infection is responsible for minor spontaneous mutations of HA or NA

A

Drift

172
Q

Antigenic ___ in influenza infection is responsible for major changes in viral RNA segments

A

Shift

173
Q

Which is responsible for yearly flu endemic infections – drift or shift?

A

Drift

174
Q

Which is responsible for yearly flu pandemic infections – drift or shift?

A

Shift

175
Q

Which group of patients should receive pre-exposure rabies prophylaxis?

A

Veterinarians

176
Q

Patient is attacked by animal (thinks it was a raccoon) – should you start with rabies IgG + vaccination?

A

Yes

177
Q

Hint for West Nile infection?

A

Dead birds

178
Q

Vector for West Nile infection?

A

Aedes mosquito

179
Q

In addition to Parvovirus B19, what are 2 other causes of Red Cell Aplasia?

A

Diamond-Blackfan Anemia … Thymoma

180
Q

Which cells are targeted by HIV?

A

CD4+ T cells

181
Q

Acute retroviral syndrome in HIV infection mimics …

A

Infectious mononucleosis

182
Q

Majority of HIV spread occurs in …

A

Heterosexual patients … but homosexual sexual behavior is higher risk

183
Q

Is HIV or Hepatitis B more likely to be transferred via needle stick?

A

Hepatitis B … 1:3

184
Q

Best management of needlestick from known HIV patient?

A

Begin HAART therapy for 1 month

185
Q

Best test for diagnosis of HIV infection?

A

ELISA, confirm with Western Blot

186
Q

4 infectious diseases that should be screened for in newly-diagnosed HIV patients?

A

Syphilis, toxoplasma, Hepatitis B + C

187
Q

Which 3 vaccines are contraindicated in all HIV patients?

A

Polio, varicella, yellow fever

188
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in HIV patients with CD4 < 200?

A

MMR

189
Q

Best management of pregnant HIV patient?

A

Begin zidovudine after 10-12 weeks (regardless of CD4 count) + IV zidovudine during delivery + Zidovudine for infant for 6 weeks

190
Q

CD4 count associated with CD4 < 200?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

191
Q

Best prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

TMP-SMX

192
Q

Best prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci in patient with TMP-SMX allergy?

A

Dapsone

193
Q

CD4 count associated with CD4 < 100?

A

Toxoplasma

194
Q

Best prophylaxis for Toxoplasma?

A

TMP-SMX

195
Q

Best prophylaxis for Toxoplasma in patient with TMP-SMX allergy?

A

Dapsone

196
Q

CD4 count associated with CD4 < 50?

A

Mycoplasma Avium Carinum (MAC)

197
Q

Best prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci?

A

Macrolides

198
Q

When should HAART therapy be started in HIV patient?

A

CD4 < 500

199
Q

3 AEs of AZT therapy?

A

3 M’s … macrocytic anemia, myelosuppression, myopathy

200
Q

HAART drug associated with HSN reaction?

A

Abacavir

201
Q

3 AEs of Protease inhibitors?

A

Lipodystrophy, Inhibition of P450, DM

202
Q

Which HAART drug should be avoided in patients with TB?

A

Rifampin … use Rifabutin instead

203
Q

2 examples of Protease inhibitors?

A

Indinavir, Ritonavir

204
Q

AE associated with indinavir?

A

Nephrolithiasis

205
Q

AE associated with ritonavir?

A

Lipodystrophy

206
Q

Most common pathogen causing invasive pulmonary disease in HIV patients?

A

Strep pneumoniae

207
Q

Which pathogen is associated with CNS lymphoma in AIDs?

A

EBV

208
Q

AE of pentamidine used in treatment of Pneumocystis Jiroveci?

A

Atypical PNX

209
Q

3 ring-enhancing lesions of brain in HIV patients?

A

Toxoplasmosis, CNS lymphoma, Brain abscess

210
Q

Best treatment for Cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Amphotericin B until CSF is negative + Oral fluconazole indefinitely

211
Q

Special stain for Cryptococcal meningitis?

A

India ink

Rizk Review (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions