Pediatric ENT infections Flashcards
Measles
Q: What are the early symptoms of measles?
Q: What rash is associated with measles, and when does it appear?
Q: Name one rare complication of measles.
A: Fever, conjunctivitis, cough, coryza, and lymphadenopathy.
A: A maculopapular rash that becomes confluent, typically appearing around day 4.
A: Encephalitis.
Rubella
Q: How long is rubella infectious?
Q: What are the pregnancy risks associated with rubella?
Q: What does the rubella rash look like?
A: 7 days before and 7 days after the rash appears.
A: Congenital defects like cataracts, deafness, and microcephaly if infected before 20 weeks.
A: A pinkish maculopapular rash lasting about 3 days.
Slapped Cheek Disease (Erythema Infectiosum)
Q: What is the causative agent of slapped cheek disease?
Q: Describe the rash in slapped cheek disease.
A: Parvovirus B19.
A: A red facial “slapped cheek” rash with a reticular pattern on the body.
Chicken Pox
Q: How does the chickenpox rash progress?
Q: Why is ibuprofen not recommended for chickenpox?
Q: What virus causes chicken pox ?
A: Macule → papule → vesicle → scabs over.
A: It increases the risk of severe bacterial skin infections.
A: Varicella- Zoster Virus
Q: What is the Fever PAIN score used for?
Q: What Fever PAIN score warrants antibiotics?
A: To assess the likelihood of bacterial pharyngitis and the need for antibiotics.
A: A score of 4 or 5.
Croup
Q: What are the classic symptoms of croup?
Q: What is the first-line treatment for mild croup?
A: Barking cough, stridor, hoarse voice, and respiratory distress.
A: A single oral dose of dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg).
Epiglottitis
Q: Why should you avoid examining a child with suspected epiglottitis?
Q: What are hallmark signs of epiglottitis?
A: It may worsen airway obstruction.
A: Stridor, drooling, fever, and upright posture.
Q: When should antibiotics be prescribed for otitis media?
Q: What is the first-line antibiotic for otitis media?
A: For bilateral infection in children under 2, or if there is ear discharge or systemic illness.
A: Amoxicillin.
Q: What test is used to diagnose glandular fever?
Q: What age group is most commonly affected by glandular fever?
A: The Monospot or Paul Bunnell test.
A: 15 to 25 years.
Roseola Infantum (Sixth Disease)
Q: What is the typical presentation of roseola infantum?
Q: What is the age group most affected by roseola?
A: High fever for 3 days, followed by a maculopapular rash as the fever subsides.
A: Children under 2 years.
Mumps
Q: What are the key symptoms of mumps?
Q: Name two complications of mumps.
A: Fever, malaise, and tender parotid or submandibular glands.
A: Epididymo-orchitis and aseptic meningitis.
Bronchiolitis
Q: What is bronchiolitis, and who is most at risk?
Q: What are severe signs of bronchiolitis requiring hospital care?
A: Inflammation of the bronchioles, common in infants under 1 year.
A: Tachypnea, chest recession, poor feeding, or oxygen saturation below 90%.
Quinsy (Peritonsillar Abscess)
Q: What are the distinguishing features of quinsy?
Q: How is quinsy managed?
A: Unilateral peritonsillar swelling, trismus, and severe throat pain.
A: Admission for IV fluids, antibiotics, or drainage of the abscess.
Fever PAIN vs Centor Scores
Q: What are the key differences between Fever PAIN and Centor scores?
Q: What score thresholds indicate antibiotic use for both systems?
A: Fever PAIN includes rapid presentation and severity of tonsillar inflammation, while Centor focuses on lymphadenopathy and age.
A: Fever PAIN: 4-5; Centor: 3-4.
Chickenpox in Pregnancy
Q: What are the risks of chickenpox during pregnancy?
Q: What is the management for a pregnant woman exposed to chickenpox?
A: Maternal varicella pneumonitis, hepatitis, encephalitis, and fetal varicella syndrome.
A: Check immunity and consider zoster immune globulin (VZIG) within 10 days of exposure.
