Patient Care Unit Flashcards

1
Q

What year did Robert Kash introduce germ theory?

A

1879

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2
Q

Environment of growth of microbes “something that is living”

A

Host

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3
Q

Host to host transmission?

Ex) sexual content, feces, flem, hand holding

A

Direct contact transmission

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4
Q

What is the transmission of disease spread by droplets or dust examples are speaking, sneezing, coughing?

A

Airborne

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5
Q

What is a transmission of a host to something, then gets transferred to you?

A

In direct contact

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6
Q

What is the transmission carrier the transfer is infectious disease to another by in anthropod carrier?

Ex) tics, rabbies, lime disease

A

Vector

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7
Q

What is the transmission disease that has been in contact with an inadamant object?

Ex) desk, water bottle etc.

A

Fomite

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8
Q

What is the affection between the patient and the doctor?

A

Laterogenic infection

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9
Q

Do you so-called meal infections originate where?

A

Hospitals

5% patients get something on top of why they came in the first place

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10
Q

What is it with micro organisms are found in the body are exposed to external environment?

A

Patient flora (through patient)

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11
Q

What is a disease causing microorganisms that are present in the blood?

A

Bloodborne pathogens

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12
Q

CDC

A

Centers for disease control

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13
Q

HHS

A

US Department of health and human services

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14
Q

What do you both the CDC and HHS both establish?

A

Establish guidelines for environmental control of infectious disease

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15
Q

OSHA

A

Department of labor’s occupational safety and health administration

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16
Q

Which department is federal and enforces policies at state and federal levels?

A

OSHA (Department of labor is occupational safety and health administration)

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17
Q

WHO

A

World health organization

at an international level

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18
Q

What is the state of being free of germs and freedom from infection?

A

Asepsis

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19
Q

What is the reduction in number of infections but it’s not at zero it’s not killing it but it illuminates it?

A

Medical asepsis

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20
Q

Which ASAP this illuminates pathogens and it’s the procedure used to prevent contamination of microbes in Endospores before, during and after surgery?

A

Surgical asepsis

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21
Q

What is the absolute killing of all life forms?

A

Sterilization

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22
Q

Which chemical method for a sepsis is applied topically?

A

Antiseptic

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23
Q

Which chemical method used for a sepsis stops a growth of bacteria but doesn’t necessarily kill it?

A

Bacteriostatic

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24
Q

Which chemical methods used for a sepsis kills bacteria?

A

Bacterocidal

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25
Q

What are some types of bacteriocidal (for asepsis)

A

Chlorine
Iodine
Hydrogen peroxide
Ethylene oxide

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26
Q

What is a physical method to control a sepsis by the absolute killing of all lifeforms?

A

Sterilization

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27
Q

Is the most frequently used method physically, to control asepsis?

A

Heat

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28
Q

What are the different heat types to physically control asepsis?

A

Heat
Autoclave
Dry heat
Pasteurization

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29
Q

What are the different cold types to physically control asepsis?

A

Freezing

Ultraviolet

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30
Q

What is the single most important means for venting spread of infection both chemically and physically?

A

Hand washing

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31
Q

What’s the method you use if you have to use needle re-capping?

A

The one handed scoop

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32
Q

How many injuries occur each year due to needle recapping?

A

800,000 injuries a year

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33
Q

What is the ratio for bleach used to clean up biospills?

A

10-1

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34
Q

What are the three forms of transmission to get a disease?

A

1) airborne
2) droplet
3) contact

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35
Q

What are some examples of airborne transmission disease?

A

TB
Varicella (chickenpox)
Rubella (measles)

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36
Q

For someone who is an airborne transmission disease where are the patients placed in the hospital?

A

Patients are placing a negative pressure isolation room with the door closed

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37
Q

What are some examples of a patient who has a droplet transmission disease?

A

1) rubella
2) mumps
3) influenza

*also a form of airborne

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38
Q

What is examples of a transmission disease that you get from contacting a person with that disease?

A

1) hepatitis A
2) chicken pox
3) MRSA

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39
Q

What are some aseptic technique’s that are typically surgical procedures?

A

Sterile field
Sterile draping
Sterile packs

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40
Q

What is the importance of a sterile Corredor in operating room?

A

Area between the patient and sterile drape and sterile instruments

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41
Q

What is a sterile procedure that’s used to remove fluid and blood and air from the plural cavity?

A

Chest tube

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42
Q

What is the sterile procedure that has the insertion of a tube into the bladder?

A

Urinary catheters

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43
Q

What are the two types of the urinary catheters?

A

1) foley
- balloon attached

2) straight type
- has no balloon attached

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44
Q

What is the purpose of arterial lines?

A

Draws the blood and measures a blood pressure it’s the “fresh stuff in the blood “

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45
Q

There’s a purpose of intravenous lines?

A

It’s the introduction of meds and intravenous fluids and the measurement of central venous pressure

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46
Q

What is the tool used to regulate heartbeat, use for bradycardia and is inserted under the skin with the lines go through the chambers of the heart?

A

Pacemaker

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47
Q

What is the nomseptic technique that has a plastic or rubber tube inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach?

A

Nasogastric tube (NG)

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48
Q

What is the nasogastric tube used for?

A

Decompression of gas

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49
Q

Why don’t you want to repeat the hypotonic anima technique on a patient?

A

Can give them water toxicity or fluid overload

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50
Q

Barium enema is a floral say I’m used to look at what organ?

A

Large intestine

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51
Q

What are the four steps of preparation for a barium enema?

A

1) low residue diet (no fruits, meat, milk)
2) purgation (laxatives)
3) overhydration
4) cleansing enema

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52
Q

Double contrast uses what?

A

Both barium and air

53
Q

What is double contrast used to look for?

A

Indication of diarrhea

High risked cancer

54
Q

Which is typically the most routine double contrast or single contrast?

A

Double contrast

55
Q

Single contrast only uses what?

A

Barium

56
Q

What does single contrast look for?

A
Checks Colon
 suspect fistula
Acute appendicitis 
Diverticulitis 
volvulus
57
Q

What must the patient do after the barium enema procedure?

A

Must eat things high in fiber
Drink fluids for a few days
Can use a mild laxative

58
Q

What can happen to the body if the barium isn’t flush out after the barium enema procedure?

A

Can cause a bowel obstruction

59
Q

What indicates failure of circulatory system to support vital body functions

A

Shock

60
Q

What type of shark is the most common and it’s from blood loss or tissue fluid

A

Hypovolmic

61
Q

What type of shock is due to cardiac disorder with a heart can’t pump enough blood into tissues?

A

Cardiogenic

62
Q

Which shock is due to spinal anesthesia or damage to the upper spinal cord?

A

Neurogenic

63
Q

Which shock is due to sepsis, deep anesthesia or anaphylactic major dilation do you to a mass of affection.

A

Vasogenic

64
Q

Which type of shock is caused by an allergic reaction?

A

Anaphylactic shock

65
Q

Which type of shock is caused by a massive infection?

A

Septic shock

66
Q

What are some preventions of shock?

A

Keep the patient warm and handle patients gently, reduce the pain, stress, and anxiety

67
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of shock?

A

1) Restlessness
2) Apprehension or general anxiety
3) Tachycardia
4) .Decreasing blood pressure
5) Cold and clammy skin
6) Pallor

68
Q

What type of diabetic crisis is caused by low blood sugar and where there is an excess of insulin present in the body?

A

Hypoglycemia

69
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Sweaty, shaky, nauseous, dizziness

70
Q

Which diabetic crisis has caused by excessive amount of sugar and not enough insulin in the body?

A

Hyper glycemia

71
Q

What are some symptoms of hyperglycemia?

A

Always thirsty, feels like you need to pee a lot, rapid and deep breathing, drowsiness

72
Q

Which diabetic crisis can lead to a diabetic coma?

Hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia

A

Hyperglycemia

73
Q

Which type of respiratory issue is it when there’s an obstruction present That prevents a patient from speaking or being able to breathe?

A

Choking

74
Q

Patient is vomiting why do you want to turn them on their side?

A

So they don’t aspirate their vomit

75
Q

What does epistasis mean and how do you treat it?

A

Nose bleed

Patient pinch and bend forward

76
Q

What is vertigo?

A

Dizziness

77
Q

What is syncope ?

A

Fainting

78
Q

What is the difference between petit Mal and grand mal?

A

Petite mal- mild, patient could stare and it stop talking

Grand mal- severe, experience muscle contractions, body is shaking and will urinate themselves

79
Q

What is a dehiscence wound?

A

When the patients sutures separates

80
Q

What fracture is it when the bone protrudes through the skin?

A

Compound (open)

81
Q

Which fracture does not break through the skin?

A

Closed/ simple

82
Q

What is the colles fracture?

A

Fracture on the distal radius with posterior displacement of Distal fragment

83
Q

How long do all fractures typically take to heal?

A

6-8 weeks

84
Q

Low blood sugar, insulin shock, excessive insulin present symptoms are sweaty, shaky, nausea, dizziness

A

Hypoglycemia

85
Q

What do you do if a patient is undergoing vertigo?

A

You elevate the feet and sit or leave the patient down with the level before the head

86
Q

Which contrast media is radioLucent ( it can x-ray through), shows up black on the x-ray, is produced in the area of increased density of an image?

A

Negative contrast media

87
Q

Which contrast media isRadiopaque (abbot x-Ray through), shows up white in image, produced in area of decreased density ?

A

Positive

88
Q

What is the inherent poderbxomposed of crystals that goes into the GI tracer and must be mixed with water for suspension?

A

Barium sulfate

89
Q

What is the “water soluble” iodine that has a high osmolality where:
1 particle= neg charge (anion)
1 particle= positive charge (cation)

A

“Ionic”

90
Q

Which has a lower osmolality where more water it is now Soluble and has less allergic reactions?

A

“Non-ionic”

91
Q

What needs to be discontinued for up to 48 hrs BEFORE & AFTER an iodine contest agent if you are on insulin ?

A

Morfornin or glucophage

92
Q

In order, what is the order of patients that are seen on a day of fasting for an apt?

A

1) elderly/ debilitated patients
2) diabetics
3) children
4) adults

93
Q

Name, action, methods of legal purchase…… are part of what?

A

Pharmacology

94
Q

From pharmacology, what identifies the structure of the drug?

A

The name

95
Q

Part of pharmacology, what identifies the drug family

Ex) an anti inflammatory

A

Action

96
Q

Part of pharmacology, what is the “legal” aspect used to identify?

A

If the medicine is “prescription” or “no -prescription”

97
Q

What is the name of the granulated drug compressed into solid, hard disks and that is most used and can often be coated?

A

Tablet

98
Q

Why could a tablet sometimes be coated?

A

So it doesn’t dissolve in the stomach quickly

99
Q

What form of medication is a powder or liquid form contained in a gelatin shell and can dissolve quickly?

A

Capsule

100
Q

Which form of drug can be inserted into the Rec turn, vagina, urethra and can be either :
Local= sm area
Systemic effect = “whole body”

A

Suppository

101
Q

What are 3 classifications if drugs?

A

Analgesics
Antihistamines
Diuretics

102
Q

Analgesics
Antihistamines
Diuretics

Which drug are pan relievers, nonopoids (non-narcotic) or opioids (narcotics) and can cause addiction!!

A

Analgesics

103
Q

Analgesics
Antihistamines
Diuretics

Which drug can test allergic reactions or common cold and can be sedative and non-sedative
Ex) Benadryl (sedative) Claritin (non-sedative)

A

Antihistamines

104
Q

Analgesics
Antihistamines
Diuretics

Which drug can have a high amount of urine excretion and has lasix?

A

Diuretics

105
Q

What are the 5 principles ( 5 rights) of administration?

A

1) right Drug
2) right Amount/ dose
3) right Patient
4) right Time
5) right Route

106
Q

Which for of administration is taken by swallowing and is the most common method?

A

Oral

107
Q

Which form of administration is used under the tongue and gets into the body quicker?

A

Sublingual

108
Q

Which form of administration is approved on the skin?

A

Topical

109
Q

Which form of administration is injected or uses other routes EXCLUDING the GI tract?

(Must use needle, syringe and a container)

A

Parenteral

110
Q

What form of parenteral is used into the muscle where most common sites are the deltoid, Vastus lateralis, and gluteus Maximus?

A

Intramuscular

111
Q

Which form of parenteral is “under the skin” where the common sites are the anterior thigh, upper back, upper arm, and Lower abdomen?

A

Subcutaneous

112
Q

Which form of parenteral is “into the vein” where the common sites are elbow, hand and foot?

A

Intravenous

113
Q

What intravenous type that is injected slowest?

A

Single administration

114
Q

Which type of intravenous is a fast injection (1-5 min)?

A

Intravenous bolus

115
Q

What does bolus mean?

A

The amount of fluid injected

116
Q

What type of intravenous had large amounts of fluid, typically drips (such as an IV), and is an “open” system (glass bottle) or “closed” system (plastic bag)

A

Infusion

117
Q

What intravenous type is injected btw layers of the skin?

A

Intradermal

118
Q

Which type of intravenous is injected into the artery?

A

Intra-arterial

119
Q

Which type of intravenous is injected into the spinal cord?

A

Intrathecal

120
Q

Which type of intravenous is into the lungs?

A

Inhalation

121
Q

How many diff types of intravenous are there?

A

7

122
Q

What 3 types of intravenous are injected?

A

Intradermal
Intra-arterial
Intrathecal

123
Q

What is nosocomial infection?

A

Infection that is originated in the hospital

5% hospital patients get something in hospital that they originally didn’t come in for

124
Q

What is the diff between medical and surgical asepsis?

A

Medical - REDUCTION in # of infections

Surgical - ELIMINATES pathogens

125
Q

What is the #1 area where disease is spread?

A

HANDS!!!!

126
Q

What is the MOST IMPORTANT MEANS OF PREVENTING SOEAD OF INFECTION?!!!

(BOTH CHEMICAL AND PHYSICAL PROCESS)

A

HANDWASHING!!!

127
Q

What is the most common sterilization method used?

A

Heat

128
Q

With a gage of 14, would the needle be bigger or smaller?

A

Bigger

129
Q

With the gage of 28, would the meddle be bigger or smaller?

A

Smaller