Pathology MCQ Flashcards by Mic W

Which of the following defines Pathology?

It is cause and effect

It is a medical procedure

It is the science of disease

It is the applied science of medicine

It is the science of disease

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What is the process called when the body works to maintain a steady state?

Proliferation

Homeostasis

Organization

Inflammation

Homeostasis

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Which term is defined as the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed?

Etiology

Sequelae

Pathogenesis

Manifestation

Pathogenesis

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Which one of the following terms is equated with the elimination of worn out cells known as ‘cellular suicide’?

Apotosis

Necrosis

Fatty infiltration

Cellular swelling

Apotosis

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Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six aspects of the disease process?

Etiology

Pathogenesis

Diagnosis

None of the above

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Cells constantly adapt to changes in the body’s internal environment. Based on these internal demands, body cells are able to change in size, number, and form. Which of the following terms defines cellular adaption in number quantity?

Atrophy

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

Metaplasia

Hyperplasia

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A disease that is not clinically evident but is destined to progress to clinical disease is in:

Preclinical stage

Subclinical stage

Carrier stage

Clinical stage

Preclinical stage

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Which of the following is the process that indicates that a cell has died?

Necrosis

Cellular atrophy

Cellular swelling

Cellular hyperplasia

Necrosis

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Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?

Aplasia

Atrophy

Hypoplasia

Hypertrophy

Hypoplasia

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Which of the following types of adaptation describes a muscle increasing in size due to an increase in cell size?

Aplasia

Atrophy

Hyperplasia

Hypertrophy

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During hemostasis what stage involves both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

Vessel spasm

Blood coagulation

Clot retraction

Clot dissolution

Blood coagulation

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Which suffix is used to indicate inflammation of a structure?

isis

itis

osis

lysis

itis

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Which of the following is TRUE for acute inflammation?

It is hemodynamic

It is a response to the presence of bacteria only

It is a process that occurs at the same time as healing

It is a generalized overall reaction by the whole body at a single time

It is hemodynamic

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Which of the following is considered to be one of the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

Rubor

Dolor

Calor

All of the above

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Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

Heat

Redness

Swelling

Rapid onset

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Which of the following white blood cells is usually the first to arrive at a site of inflammation?

Basophils

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Monocytes

Neutrophils

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Which of the following is the process of a lymphocyte engulfing and digesting a foreign microbe?

Exudation

Emigration

Margination

Phagocytosis

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Which term identifies the attraction of WBC’s toward a microbe?

Emigration

Chemotaxis

Pseudopodia

Phagocytosis

Chemotaxis

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Which of the following white blood cells participate in phagocytosis?

Neutrophils

Macrophages

Basophils

Both A and B

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During the vascular stage of inflammation, both vasoconstriction and vasodilation of blood vessels. Which process occurs first?

Vasoconstriction

Vasodilation

Both A and B

None of the above

Vasoconstriction

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What is the function of histamine during the inflammatory response?

Regenerate tissue

Control organization

To vasodilate capillaries

To vasoconstrict the capillaries

To vasodilate capillaries

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Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?

Chronic inflammation is of a short duration

Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediator

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

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Which of the following tissue types is able to response to injury and undergo tissue regeneration?

Parenchymal Tissue

Stromal Tissue

Nervous Tissue

None of the above

Parenchymal Tissue

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Which type of body cells normally stops dividing when growth ceases?

Stable

Labile

Permanent

Mature

Stable

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What causes a wound to heal with an excessively large scar? The loss of blood The presence of fibroblasts Presence of minimal exudate The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other

The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other

Which of the following indicates that Healing by Primary Intention will occur? There is extensive tissue loss There is little or no tissue loss Diminished rate of healing Formation of abundant scar tissue

There is little or no tissue loss

Which one of the following phases of wound healing accounts for the building of new tissues and the formation of granulation tissue? Remodeling Phase Proliferative Phase Inflammatory Phase Connective Tissue Phase

Proliferative Phase

Which one of the following statements regarding infectious disease is FALSE? It is normal for certain fungus to live in humans Humans and microorganisms have beneficial contact It is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine Competition between fungi and bacteria for the same food source keep the populations under control in the human intestine

is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine

Which of the following contain DNA as a genome? Bacteria Fungi Viruses All of the above

All of the above

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when only the infecting organism benefits from the relationship? Communitism Parasitism Mutualism Commensalism

Parasitism

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship? Communitism Parasitism Mutualistic flora Commensalism

Mutualistic flora

Which one of the following statements describes Virulence? The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth. Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism. Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material. A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Which of the following structures lack an organized nucleus? Bacteria Fungi Eukaryotes Both A and C

Bacteria

Which of the following is considered to be the smallest pathogen and incapable of replication outside of a living cell? Viruses Bacteria Fungi Parasites

Viruses

Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms? Virus Piron Fungus Bacteria

Bacteria

Which one of the following terms describes the spread of disease across continents with the potential to affect the entire world? Systemic Endemic Epidemic Pandemic

Pandemic

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Incubation period during the course of an infectious disease? Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms It is the initial stage where symptoms become visible Total elimination of the pathogen begins Rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen

Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms

Which one of the following terms regarding the course of a disease is characterized by containment of the infection, repair of damaged tissue, and progressive elimination of the pathogen? Resolution Acute stage Prodromal stage Convalescent period

Convalescent period

A symptom of an infectious disease that reflects the site of infection is called: Covert Obvious Nonspecific Specific

Specific

When infectious diseases are developed in hospitals, it is called: Zoonoses Nosomial Community acquired Zooitis

Nosomial

Which one of the following processes identifies why patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms? The embolism is very small and heals well The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation The heart can push the embolism through the tissue without damage The lungs contain macrophage that devour the pulmonary embolisms prior to oxygen loss

The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

Which one of the following locations is the most likely source of a pulmonary embolism? Portal artery Pulmonary vein Coronary artery Deep Vein in the legs

Deep Vein in the legs

Which one of the following diseases causes severe chronic fluid secretion in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive systems in children? Anaphylaxis Cystic Fibrosis Chronic Bronchitis Acute Respiratory infection

Cystic Fibrosis

Which one of the following conditions is caused by a loss of elasticity to lung tissue, abnormal enlargement of the air spaces with destruction of the alveoli? COPD Asthma Emphysema Acute Bronchitis

Emphysema

Which one of the following diseases is a permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on neighboring bronchi? Asthma Bronchitis Pneumonia Bronchiectasis

Bronchiectasis

Which one of the following adaptive mechanisms does NOT occur during chronic inflammation in the respiratory system? It results in more bacterial proliferation There is a loss of ciliated epithelium along the bronchi Destruction of the elastic tissue and loss of expansile lung tissue occurs It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage

It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: incomplete expansion of the lung? COPD Atelectasis Pneumothorax Acute asthma attack

Atelectasis

hich one of the following anatomical changes is found with the disease Emphysema? The posture is unaffected Atrophy of the secondary breathing muscles SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs The lips will become red, with deep, slow, irregular breathing leading to sloping shoulders

SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs

Which one of the following lists of manifestations occurs with an asthma attack? Persistent coughing Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling Persistent coughing, dyspnea with severe local chest pain Intolerance to exercise, restlessness, anxiety, persistent cough, & mild dyspnea

Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling

Which one of the following processes is unique to the condition Bronchitis? Inflammation of the alveoli Inflammation of the trachea Inflammation of the lung tissue Inflammation of one or more bronchioles

Inflammation of one or more bronchioles

Which one of the following phrases describes a pneumothorax? Blood in the pleural cavity Water in the pleural cavity Exudate in the pleural cavity Air entering the pleural cavity

Air entering the pleural cavity

Which one of the following statements identifies the etiology of Pneumoconioses? There is water in the pericardial sac There is exudate in the pleural cavity There is inhalation of organic dusts and related occupational antigens There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos

There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos

Which one of the following statements describes the etiology of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)? It is an Autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretions in exocrine glands There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse There is a severe immune reaction against the alveoli due to cross over of maternal blood There is a combination of primary lung lesions and lymph node granulomas (Ghon's complex)

There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse

Which one of the following pathologies develops from incompetent valves then venous stasis, congestion, edema and finally thrombosis formation? Vasculitis Varicose Veins Arthroscleroses Raynaud's Disease

Varicose Veins

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Petechia? Blood in a joint Blood in the lungs Pinpoint hemorrhage Hemorrhage in soft tissues

Pinpoint hemorrhage

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Smoking Pregnancy Anticoagulants Postoperative immobilization

Anticoagulants

Which one of the following deficiencies occurs in neutropenia? A deficiency of platelets A deficiency of immune cells A deficiency of red blood cells A deficiency of white blood cells

A deficiency of white blood cells

hich one of the following conditions is suspected if a person has a Reed Sternberg cells present in their blood stream and tumors of the lymphatic tissue? Hodgkin's Disease Hemolytic Anemia Sickle Cell Anemia Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Hodgkin's Disease

Which one of the following increases the risk for contracting Tuberculosis infections? HIV infection Living in Ontario Drinking goats milk Having a healthy immune system

HIV infection

Which one of the following congenital cardiac defect is known as a "hole in the heart"? Cor pulmonale Atrial Septal Defect Narrowing of the aorta Coarctation of the aorta

Atrial Septal Defect

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Angina Pectoris? A form of heart attack Severe pressure in the chest due to scaring Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia Death of the muscle tissue due to a blockage of blood flow

Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: a failure of the heart to pump blood efficiently resulting in a build up of fluid in the bodies' tissues? Myocardial infarction Valvular heart disease Congestive heart failure Constrictive pericarditis

Congestive heart failure

Which one of the following conditions is described as: ischemic death of myocardial tissue due to atherosclerotic disease of the coronary arteries? Angina Myocarditis Infective endocarditis Myocardial infarction

Myocardial infarction

Which one of the following processes is NOT a complication of shock? Immune reaction Acute renal failure Multiple organ failure Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Immune reaction

Which one of the following terms defines a gene pair; one from the mother and one from the father? Alleles Genotype Gene Locus Gene Mutation

Alleles

Which one of the following terms describes a biochemical event such as a deletion that produces new alleles? Genotype Gene Locus Gene Mutation Gene expression

Gene Mutation

Which one of the following genes is responsible for a sex-linked disorder? The wild-type allele The 'X' chromosome The 'Y' chromosome The dominant autosomal chromosome

The 'X' chromosome

Which one of the following diseases is X-linked Recessive? Sickle Cell Cystic Fibrosis Colour Blindness Fragile X syndrome

Fragile X syndrome

In which one of the following situations will a child express an Autosomal Recessive Disorder? If the father carries the gene If the mother carries the gene If both parents are carriers of the gene When a mutation occurs spontaneously at delivery

If both parents are carriers of the gene

Which one of the following genetic disease results from a connective tissue disorder causing elongated limbs, fingers hyperflexion of the joints and heart conditions? PKU Tay-Sachs Down Syndrome Marfan's Syndrome

Marfan's Syndrome

Which Chromosomal Disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 resulting in altered facial features, mental retardation and lax joints? Down Syndrome Turner's Syndrome Marfan's Syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome

Down Syndrome

Which one of the following statements describes a Teratogenic agent? An agent that causes skin cancer. An agent that causes leukemia in pregnant women. An agent that assists in the normal development of children. An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development

An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development

Which one of the following diseases manifests from pregnant mothers drinking alcohol? German measles Down Syndrome Turner's Syndrome Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

Which one of the following vitamins do pregnant women take prior to and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube disorders? Folic acid Vitamin A Vitamin C Vitamin D

Folic acid

Which one of the following statements describes angiogenesis? Growth of blood vessels A loss of function in a cell Development of cancer cells Normal cell number increase

Growth of blood vessels

Which one of the following terms is defined as a swelling due to inflammation or trauma? Tumor Neoplasm Hypoplasia Hyperplasia

Tumor

When naming a tumor, what is the suffix added to the tissue type? – oma – itis – logy – ase

oma

Which one of the following types of tumor grows in a capsule and can compress nearby structures? Anaplasia Benign Tumors Malignant Tumors Metastatic Neoplasms

Benign Tumors

Which one of the following tumors grows using invasive crab like extensions into neighbouring tissue? Lipoma Fibroma lloma Adenocarcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

Which one of the following terms describes a chemical agent that is capable of causing cancer in the body? Biogen Endogen Teratogen Carcinogen

Carcinogen

Which one of the following events must occur for any tumor to enlarge and its cells to spread? Necrosis of the tumor Apoptosis in the tumor Angiogenesis in the tumor Switching on of tumor suppressor gene

Angiogenesis in the tumor

Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer? Surgery Hormonal and Biotherapy Chemotherapy and Radiation Application of massage therapy

Application of massage therapy

Which one of the following as a symptom of bone cancer? Fever Abdominal pain An uneven nevi Worsening pain at night in the affected area

Worsening pain at night in the affected area

What type of tumor is present if the symptoms include no pain, no palpable mass and an unexplained bone fracture? Skin cancer Breast cancer Ewing's sarcoma Benign bone tumor

Benign bone tumor

What is Metastatic Bone Disease? Cartilage cancer Fibrous dysplasia Loss of storage of calcium and phosphate Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate

Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate

During the aging process, which one of the following event describes electrons being 'stolen' from proteins and lipids? Dehydration Loss of glucose Free radical formation Programmed cell death

Free radical formation

What theory holds that aging is a result of accumulated random events or damage from environmental agents? Aging Theory Stochastic theory Gene mutation theory Genetically programmed cell death

Stochastic theory

Which one of the following events does NOT occur in aging muscles? Loss of strength Loss of flexibility Increased reflexes Loss of muscle mass

Increased reflexes

Which one of the following changes in physiology will occur when joints age? Maintenance of the cartilage Strengthening of the joint capsule Increased production of synovial fluid Loss of flexibility and ligament length

Loss of flexibility and ligament length

What is esophagitis? Esophageal spasms Inflammation of the stomach What is esophagitis? Esophageal spasms Inflammation of the stomach Inflammation of the esophagus Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx

Inflammation of the esophagus

Which of the following are complications of chronic gastroesophageal reflux? Diabetes Some heartburn Fibrous restrictions only Anemia & fibrous restrictions

Anemia & fibrous restrictions

Which one of the following forms of Diabetes is caused by the catabolism of pancreatic beta cells resulting in the complete loss of insulin production? Secondary Diabetes Gestational Diabetes Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT? Women are most commonly affected They are found most often in the duodenum. Eating does not make the client feel any better. The entire gastric mucosa inflames resulting in achlorhydria.

They are found most often in the duodenum.

Which one of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that only affects the mucosa and submucosa of the colon & rectum? Esophagitis Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis Duodenal Ulceration

Ulcerative colitis

Which one of the following is associated with Crohn's disease? Inflammation of the duodenum Inflammation of the distal ileum Blockage of the blood flow to the distal ileum H.pylori bacterial infection causing duodenal ulceration

Inflammation of the distal ileum

Which one of the following diseases causes a client to suffer from abdominal cramping alternating constipation and diarrhea? Enteritis Crohn's Disease Irritable bowel syndrome Inflammatory bowel syndrome

Irritable bowel syndrome

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis? Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus Lower right quadrant pain Extreme bloody diarrhea Lower left quadrant pain

Lower left quadrant pain

Which of the following describes cirrhosis? A disease related to the colon Response of the colon to chronic damage The development of fatty infiltration in liver cells Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream? Jaundice Cirrhosis No symptoms Dark colour stool

Jaundice

Which Viral Hepatitis strain is highly contagious? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis D

Hepatitis A

Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones? Cholangitis Cholecystitis Cholelithiasis Choledocholithiasis

Choledocholithiasis

Which of the following occur due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow? Cirrhotic liver Portal hypertension Heptocellular necrosis Fibrotic hepatocyte development

Portal hypertension

Which of the following is an 'end stage' complication in cirrhosis? Hepatitis Portal hypertension Vascular derangement Fatty infiltration in heptocytes

Portal hypertension

Which of the following complications is associated with Portal Hypertension? Diabetes Hepatitis Esophagitis Varicose veins

Varicose veins

Which one of the following terms indicates sensory impairment? Paresis Flaccidity Anesthesia Paresthesia

Paresthesia

Which one of the following symptoms is NOT found below the level of a spinal cord injury? Loss of sensory input Loss of motor control Loss of vascular supply Loss of autonomic functions

Loss of vascular supply

Which one of the following factors will NOT affect the regeneration of a nerve? The presence of neuritis The speed of axonal regeneration The amount of scar tissue formed Size of the gap between the proximal stump and the distal connective tissue sheath

The presence of neuritis

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms include: altered sensation on the lateral and anterior surface of the lower leg, arch of the foot and web between the great and second toes? Tibial nerve Sciatic nerve Femoral nerve Peroneal nerve

Peroneal nerve

Which one of the following conditions has occurred with an inability to close the right eye, ability to open the right eye, flaccid paralysis of the muscles on the right side of the face including the forehead, eye, cheek and mouth with normal function below the head? Bell's Palsy Left-sided Stroke Right-sided Stroke Trigeminal Neuralgia

Bell's Palsy

Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to the compression of the brachial plexus and its accompanying artery in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome? Clavicle Anterior Scalene Pectoralis Minor Sternocleidomastoid

Sternocleidomastoid

Which one of the following statements is NOT a cause of Piriformis Syndrome? The sciatic nerve runs through the piriformis muscle A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles Driving a vehicle with a wallet in the back pocket of one's pants The consistent use of step machine causing internal rotation of the thigh

A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles

Which one of the following injuries occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion? Damage to the anterior spinal artery A lesion to the grey matter of the cord Damage to the anterior nerve roots on the right Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema

Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema

Which one of the following changes describes the cause of spasticity in CNS conditions? Loss of control of beta motor neurons Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons Decreased function of dopamine in the basal ganglia No response of the neuromuscular junction to acetylcholine

Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons

Which one of the following pathological changes is the etiology for ALS? Motor neuron degeneration Sensory neuron demyelination Anterior horn cell demyelination Neuromuscular junction destruction

Motor neuron degeneration

Which one of the following phrases defines a Brain Attack (Stroke)? Chronic vascular deformity in the brain Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder Chronic general neurological deficit from a vascular disorder Acute neurological disorder of the glios and underlying neural structure

Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

Which one of the following infections is self-limiting, mild and occurs in the meninges of the brain? Encephalitis Viral meningitis Encephalomyelitis Bacterial meningitis

Viral meningitis

Which one of the following forms of dementia results from chronic alcoholism? Creutzfeldt-Jakob's Huntington's disease Multi infarct dementia Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

Which one of the following types of pain is due to inflammation of a spinal nerve root? Parietal pain Somatic pain Radicular pain Phantom limb pain

Radicular pain

Which one of the following conditions is a compression mononeuropathy of the median nerve? Klumpky's Palsy Erb-Duchenne Palsy Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Guillain-Barre Syndrome

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms of foot drop occur? Tibial nerve Deep peroneal nerve Lateral plantar nerve Superficial peroneal nerve

Deep peroneal nerve

Which one of the following nerves has been compressed if the symptoms of "ape hand deformity" occur? Ulnar nerve Radial nerve Median nerve Axillary nerve

Median nerve

Which one of the following conditions manifests as: edema in the lower arm, dystrophic flexor muscles, and spontaneous burning pain with movement of the hand after a shoulder joint injury was immobilized? Neuritis Causalgia Trigeminal Neuralgia Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

Which one of the following symptoms is unique to bipolar depression? Mania Depressed mood Thoughts of death or suicide Inability to experience pleasure

Mania

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by repetitive thoughts and acts? Panic disorder Social anxiety disorder Generalized anxiety disorder Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by numerous physiological changes such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath? Panic disorder Social anxiety disorder Generalized anxiety disorder Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Panic disorder

Which one of the following types of dementia is inherited and manifests as: chronic progressive chorea, psychological changes and dementia? Pick's disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob's Huntington's disease Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

Huntington's disease

Which one of the following statements regarding Pain is FALSE? Pain can be physiological and psychological Sensory stimulation and perception are required to experience pain The meaning of the situation can influence the individuals reaction to pain The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people

The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people

Which one of the following types of pain occurs with direct damage to a nerve? Nociceptive pain Endogenous pain Neuropathic pain Neurological pain

Neuropathic pain

Which one of the following areas of the brain generates the emotional experience of pain? Midbrain Brain Stem Limbic System Somatosensory Cortex

Limbic System

Which one of the following theories of pain states that there are neural mechanisms at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information to the brain? Pattern theory Specificity theory Gate control theory Neuromatrix theory

Gate control theory

Which one of the following terms identifies the maximum intensity or duration of pain a person can accept as a result of psychological, cultural, familial, and environmental influences? Pain Tolerance Pain Threshold Pain Sensations Pain Perceptions

Pain Tolerance

Which one of the following terms is defined as: an absence of pain? Analgesia Allodynia Hyperalgesia Hyperesthesia

Analgesia

one of the following statements regarding Phantom Limb Pain is FALSE? There is no treatment for phantom limb pain It is neurologic pain felt by 70% of amputees People continue feel painful sensations that were present in the limb prior to amputation The pain in the amputated limb is described as shooting, cramping, tingling, burning, or a change in heat and cold

There is no treatment for phantom limb pain

Which one of the following statements regarding pain in children is FALSE? Neonates and premature infants react to various types of pain As infants grow they develop more complex responses to pain It is very difficult to assess the location and intensity of pain in children Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain

Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain

Which one of the following types of headaches can present with an aura? Cluster headaches Tension headaches Migraine headaches Aneurysm headaches

Migraine headaches

Which one of the following types of headaches is described as a neurovascular headache, with severe one-sided unrelenting pain that comes on rapidly, builds in intensity for up to 15 minutes lasting up to 3 hours? Cluster headaches Tension headaches Migraine headaches Aneurysm headaches

Cluster headaches

Which one of the following types of headaches are said to be more responsive to treatment using massage therapy, acupuncture, relaxation and imagery than pharmacological treatment? Cluster headaches Tension headaches Migraine headaches Aneurysm headaches

Tension headaches

Which one of the following spinal segments bears the most pathological forces leading to disc injury and herniation? Upper sacral spine Lower lumbar spine Lower cervical spine Upper thoracic spine

Lower lumbar spine

Which one of the following groups lists all the "cardinal signs" of inflammation? Fever and edema Stiffness, heat and headache Redness, swelling, edema and tingling Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site? Influx of histamine Influx of red blood cells Release of chemical mediators from the liver Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain? Stretching of the phagocytes Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury St

Which one of the following cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily? Fixed cells Stable cells Labile cells Permanent cell

Labile cells

Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE? Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage? Sprained knee Fall from a ladder Muscular Dystrophy Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident

Muscular Dystrophy

Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection? Contusion Laceration Hematoma Closed Fracture

Laceration

Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space? Strain Sprain Fracture Loose body

Loose body

Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship? Microflora Parasitic flora Mutualistic flora Commensal flora

Commensal flora

Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection? The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth. Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism. Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material. A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected? Systemic Endemic Epidemic Pandemic

Epidemic

Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor? Osteoma Osteomyelitis Osteonecrosis Chondromalacia

Osteoma

Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis? Fracture Thrombosis Tuberculosis Idiopathic Ischemia

Tuberculosis

Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap? Osteoporosis Osteomyelitis Osteonecrosis Osteosarcoma

Osteonecrosis

Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)? Articular cartilage Intrinsic ligaments Extrinsic ligaments Synovial membrane

Articular cartilage

Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE? The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage. Correct Answer There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane. Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue. Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane

Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA? Osteocytes Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Chondrocytes

Chondrocytes

Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts? Sclerosis at the joint margins Thickening of the subchondral bone Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes? Erosion of the periosteum Extrinsic ligament fibrosis Surface cracks in the cartilage Eburnation of the subchondral bone

Surface cracks in the cartilage

Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA? Osteophytes Syndesmophytes Pannus formation Uric Acid crystallization

Osteophytes

Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE? Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology. Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA. Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA. Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA? Tophi Swan Neck Deformity Boutonniere Deformity Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE? Correct Answer Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height. Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia. The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications. Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis? Knees Sacroiliac Metacarpalphalangeal First metatarsalphalangeal

Sacroiliac

Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis? Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis? Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

hich one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE? The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout? The formation of Tophi The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes The formation of multiple swan neck deformities The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments

The formation of Tophi

Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome? Liver Heart Kidneys Large Intestine

Kidneys

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis? Fever and facial skin rash Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout? Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Formation of asymptomatic tophi Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis? Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Formation of asymptomatic tophi Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity? Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Spondyloarthropathies Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Osteoarthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease? Gout Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA? Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

gout

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Psoriatic Arthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone? Gout Osteoarthritis Ankylosing Spondylitis Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE? The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity. RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA? Pannus formation Osteophyte formation Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA? Bluge sign Baker's cyst Bouchard's nodes Occipital headaches

Bouchard's nodes

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum? Toeing-in Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Bowed legs

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus? Flat foot Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Flat foot

In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion? Tailor position Torsion position Cross leg position Straight leg position

Torsion position

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum? Toeing-in Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Knock-knee

Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum? Lax lateral collateral ligaments Lax medial collateral ligaments Weak anterior cruciate ligaments Weak posterior cruciate ligaments

Lax medial collateral ligaments

Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children? Curvature in the femoral body Curvature of the tibia and fibula Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children? Thickening of the subtalar joint Abnormal variations in knee rotation Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls? Tibial torsion Genu valgum Fibular torsion Femoral anteversion

Femoral anteversion

Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE? The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age. All children have pes planus when they begin to walk. Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA. True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta? Curvature in the femoral body Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta? Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates? Osteochondroses Osgood-Schlatter Disease Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease? To prevent deformity in the distal tibia. To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head. To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone. To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease? To prevent deformity in the distal tibia. To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head. To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone. To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity? Invasive surgery shortly after birth Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia? Abnormal development of bone in-utero Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets? Abnormal development of bone in-utero Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis? Age Hormone levels Phosphate levels Malabsorption disorders

Phosphate levels