Pathology MCQ Flashcards
Which of the following defines Pathology?
It is cause and effect
It is a medical procedure
It is the science of disease
It is the applied science of medicine
It is the science of disease
What is the process called when the body works to maintain a steady state?
Proliferation
Homeostasis
Organization
Inflammation
Homeostasis
Which term is defined as the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed?
Etiology
Sequelae
Pathogenesis
Manifestation
Pathogenesis
Which one of the following terms is equated with the elimination of worn out cells known as ‘cellular suicide’?
Apotosis
Necrosis
Fatty infiltration
Cellular swelling
Apotosis
Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six aspects of the disease process?
Etiology
Pathogenesis
Diagnosis
None of the above
None of the above
Cells constantly adapt to changes in the body’s internal environment. Based on these internal demands, body cells are able to change in size, number, and form. Which of the following terms defines cellular adaption in number quantity?
Atrophy
Hypertrophy
Hyperplasia
Metaplasia
Hyperplasia
A disease that is not clinically evident but is destined to progress to clinical disease is in:
Preclinical stage
Subclinical stage
Carrier stage
Clinical stage
Preclinical stage
Which of the following is the process that indicates that a cell has died?
Necrosis
Cellular atrophy
Cellular swelling
Cellular hyperplasia
Necrosis
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?
Aplasia
Atrophy
Hypoplasia
Hypertrophy
Hypoplasia
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a muscle increasing in size due to an increase in cell size?
Aplasia
Atrophy
Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy
Hypertrophy
During hemostasis what stage involves both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?
Vessel spasm
Blood coagulation
Clot retraction
Clot dissolution
Blood coagulation
Which suffix is used to indicate inflammation of a structure?
isis
itis
osis
lysis
itis
Which of the following is TRUE for acute inflammation?
It is hemodynamic
It is a response to the presence of bacteria only
It is a process that occurs at the same time as healing
It is a generalized overall reaction by the whole body at a single time
It is hemodynamic
Which of the following is considered to be one of the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?
Rubor
Dolor
Calor
All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
Heat
Redness
Swelling
Rapid onset
Rapid onset
Which of the following white blood cells is usually the first to arrive at a site of inflammation?
Basophils
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Which of the following is the process of a lymphocyte engulfing and digesting a foreign microbe?
Exudation
Emigration
Margination
Phagocytosis
Phagocytosis
Which term identifies the attraction of WBC’s toward a microbe?
Emigration
Chemotaxis
Pseudopodia
Phagocytosis
Chemotaxis
Which of the following white blood cells participate in phagocytosis?
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Basophils
Both A and B
Both A and B
During the vascular stage of inflammation, both vasoconstriction and vasodilation of blood vessels. Which process occurs first?
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Both A and B
None of the above
Vasoconstriction
What is the function of histamine during the inflammatory response?
Regenerate tissue
Control organization
To vasodilate capillaries
To vasoconstrict the capillaries
To vasodilate capillaries
Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?
Chronic inflammation is of a short duration
Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediator
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
Which of the following tissue types is able to response to injury and undergo tissue regeneration?
Parenchymal Tissue
Stromal Tissue
Nervous Tissue
None of the above
Parenchymal Tissue
Which type of body cells normally stops dividing when growth ceases?
Stable
Labile
Permanent
Mature
Stable
What causes a wound to heal with an excessively large scar?
The loss of blood
The presence of fibroblasts
Presence of minimal exudate
The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other
The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other
Which of the following indicates that Healing by Primary Intention will occur?
There is extensive tissue loss
There is little or no tissue loss
Diminished rate of healing
Formation of abundant scar tissue
There is little or no tissue loss
Which one of the following phases of wound healing accounts for the building of new tissues and the formation of granulation tissue?
Remodeling Phase
Proliferative Phase
Inflammatory Phase
Connective Tissue Phase
Proliferative Phase
Which one of the following statements regarding infectious disease is FALSE?
It is normal for certain fungus to live in humans
Humans and microorganisms have beneficial contact
It is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine
Competition between fungi and bacteria for the same food source keep the populations under control in the human intestine
is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine
Which of the following contain DNA as a genome?
Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
All of the above
All of the above
Which one of the following terms describes an infection when only the infecting organism benefits from the relationship?
Communitism
Parasitism
Mutualism
Commensalism
Parasitism
Which one of the following terms describes an infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?
Communitism
Parasitism
Mutualistic flora
Commensalism
Mutualistic flora
Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?
The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Which of the following structures lack an organized nucleus?
Bacteria
Fungi
Eukaryotes
Both A and C
Bacteria
Which of the following is considered to be the smallest pathogen and incapable of replication outside of a living cell?
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungi
Parasites
Viruses
Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?
Virus
Piron
Fungus
Bacteria
Bacteria
Which one of the following terms describes the spread of disease across continents with the potential to affect the entire world?
Systemic
Endemic
Epidemic
Pandemic
Pandemic
Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Incubation period during the course of an infectious disease?
Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms
It is the initial stage where symptoms become visible
Total elimination of the pathogen begins
Rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen
Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms
Which one of the following terms regarding the course of a disease is characterized by containment of the infection, repair of damaged tissue, and progressive elimination of the pathogen?
Resolution
Acute stage
Prodromal stage
Convalescent period
Convalescent period
A symptom of an infectious disease that reflects the site of infection is called:
Covert
Obvious
Nonspecific
Specific
Specific
When infectious diseases are developed in hospitals, it is called:
Zoonoses
Nosomial
Community acquired
Zooitis
Nosomial
Which one of the following processes identifies why patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms?
The embolism is very small and heals well
The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation
The heart can push the embolism through the tissue without damage
The lungs contain macrophage that devour the pulmonary embolisms prior to oxygen loss
The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation
Which one of the following locations is the most likely source of a pulmonary embolism?
Portal artery
Pulmonary vein
Coronary artery
Deep Vein in the legs
Deep Vein in the legs
Which one of the following diseases causes severe chronic fluid secretion in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive systems in children?
Anaphylaxis
Cystic Fibrosis
Chronic Bronchitis
Acute Respiratory infection
Cystic Fibrosis
Which one of the following conditions is caused by a loss of elasticity to lung tissue, abnormal enlargement of the air spaces with destruction of the alveoli?
COPD
Asthma
Emphysema
Acute Bronchitis
Emphysema
Which one of the following diseases is a permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on neighboring bronchi?
Asthma
Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis
Which one of the following adaptive mechanisms does NOT occur during chronic inflammation in the respiratory system?
It results in more bacterial proliferation
There is a loss of ciliated epithelium along the bronchi
Destruction of the elastic tissue and loss of expansile lung tissue occurs
It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage
It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage
Which one of the following conditions is defined as: incomplete expansion of the lung?
COPD
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
Acute asthma attack
Atelectasis
hich one of the following anatomical changes is found with the disease Emphysema?
The posture is unaffected
Atrophy of the secondary breathing muscles
SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs
The lips will become red, with deep, slow, irregular breathing leading to sloping shoulders
SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs
Which one of the following lists of manifestations occurs with an asthma attack?
Persistent coughing
Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling
Persistent coughing, dyspnea with severe local chest pain
Intolerance to exercise, restlessness, anxiety, persistent cough, & mild dyspnea
Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling
Which one of the following processes is unique to the condition Bronchitis?
Inflammation of the alveoli
Inflammation of the trachea
Inflammation of the lung tissue
Inflammation of one or more bronchioles
Inflammation of one or more bronchioles
Which one of the following phrases describes a pneumothorax?
Blood in the pleural cavity
Water in the pleural cavity
Exudate in the pleural cavity
Air entering the pleural cavity
Air entering the pleural cavity
Which one of the following statements identifies the etiology of Pneumoconioses?
There is water in the pericardial sac
There is exudate in the pleural cavity
There is inhalation of organic dusts and related occupational antigens
There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos
There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos
Which one of the following statements describes the etiology of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
It is an Autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretions in exocrine glands
There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse
There is a severe immune reaction against the alveoli due to cross over of maternal blood
There is a combination of primary lung lesions and lymph node granulomas (Ghon’s complex)
There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse
Which one of the following pathologies develops from incompetent valves then venous stasis, congestion, edema and finally thrombosis formation?
Vasculitis
Varicose Veins
Arthroscleroses
Raynaud’s Disease
Varicose Veins
Which one of the following descriptions identifies Petechia?
Blood in a joint
Blood in the lungs
Pinpoint hemorrhage
Hemorrhage in soft tissues
Pinpoint hemorrhage
Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Smoking
Pregnancy
Anticoagulants
Postoperative immobilization
Anticoagulants
Which one of the following deficiencies occurs in neutropenia?
A deficiency of platelets
A deficiency of immune cells
A deficiency of red blood cells
A deficiency of white blood cells
A deficiency of white blood cells
hich one of the following conditions is suspected if a person has a Reed Sternberg cells present in their blood stream and tumors of the lymphatic tissue?
Hodgkin’s Disease
Hemolytic Anemia
Sickle Cell Anemia
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Hodgkin’s Disease
Which one of the following increases the risk for contracting Tuberculosis infections?
HIV infection
Living in Ontario
Drinking goats milk
Having a healthy immune system
HIV infection
Which one of the following congenital cardiac defect is known as a “hole in the heart”?
Cor pulmonale
Atrial Septal Defect
Narrowing of the aorta
Coarctation of the aorta
Atrial Septal Defect
Which one of the following descriptions identifies Angina Pectoris?
A form of heart attack
Severe pressure in the chest due to scaring
Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia
Death of the muscle tissue due to a blockage of blood flow
Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia
Which one of the following conditions is defined as: a failure of the heart to pump blood efficiently resulting in a build up of fluid in the bodies’ tissues?
Myocardial infarction
Valvular heart disease
Congestive heart failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Congestive heart failure
Which one of the following conditions is described as: ischemic death of myocardial tissue due to atherosclerotic disease of the coronary arteries?
Angina
Myocarditis
Infective endocarditis
Myocardial infarction
Myocardial infarction
Which one of the following processes is NOT a complication of shock?
Immune reaction
Acute renal failure
Multiple organ failure
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Immune reaction
Which one of the following terms defines a gene pair; one from the mother and one from the father?
Alleles
Genotype
Gene Locus
Gene Mutation
Alleles
Which one of the following terms describes a biochemical event such as a deletion that produces new alleles?
Genotype
Gene Locus
Gene Mutation
Gene expression
Gene Mutation
Which one of the following genes is responsible for a sex-linked disorder?
The wild-type allele
The ‘X’ chromosome
The ‘Y’ chromosome
The dominant autosomal chromosome
The ‘X’ chromosome
Which one of the following diseases is X-linked Recessive?
Sickle Cell
Cystic Fibrosis
Colour Blindness
Fragile X syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
In which one of the following situations will a child express an Autosomal Recessive Disorder?
If the father carries the gene
If the mother carries the gene
If both parents are carriers of the gene
When a mutation occurs spontaneously at delivery
If both parents are carriers of the gene
Which one of the following genetic disease results from a connective tissue disorder causing elongated limbs, fingers hyperflexion of the joints and heart conditions?
PKU
Tay-Sachs
Down Syndrome
Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s Syndrome
Which Chromosomal Disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 resulting in altered facial features, mental retardation and lax joints?
Down Syndrome
Turner’s Syndrome
Marfan’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome
Down Syndrome
Which one of the following statements describes a Teratogenic agent?
An agent that causes skin cancer.
An agent that causes leukemia in pregnant women.
An agent that assists in the normal development of children.
An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development
An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development
Which one of the following diseases manifests from pregnant mothers drinking alcohol?
German measles
Down Syndrome
Turner’s Syndrome
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Which one of the following vitamins do pregnant women take prior to and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube disorders?
Folic acid
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Folic acid
Which one of the following statements describes angiogenesis?
Growth of blood vessels
A loss of function in a cell
Development of cancer cells
Normal cell number increase
Growth of blood vessels
Which one of the following terms is defined as a swelling due to inflammation or trauma?
Tumor
Neoplasm
Hypoplasia
Hyperplasia
Tumor
When naming a tumor, what is the suffix added to the tissue type?
– oma
– itis
– logy
– ase
oma
Which one of the following types of tumor grows in a capsule and can compress nearby structures?
Anaplasia
Benign Tumors
Malignant Tumors
Metastatic Neoplasms
Benign Tumors
Which one of the following tumors grows using invasive crab like extensions into neighbouring tissue?
Lipoma
Fibroma
lloma
Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Which one of the following terms describes a chemical agent that is capable of causing cancer in the body?
Biogen
Endogen
Teratogen
Carcinogen
Carcinogen
Which one of the following events must occur for any tumor to enlarge and its cells to spread?
Necrosis of the tumor
Apoptosis in the tumor
Angiogenesis in the tumor
Switching on of tumor suppressor gene
Angiogenesis in the tumor
Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer?
Surgery
Hormonal and Biotherapy
Chemotherapy and Radiation
Application of massage therapy
Application of massage therapy
Which one of the following as a symptom of bone cancer?
Fever
Abdominal pain
An uneven nevi
Worsening pain at night in the affected area
Worsening pain at night in the affected area
What type of tumor is present if the symptoms include no pain, no palpable mass and an unexplained bone fracture?
Skin cancer
Breast cancer
Ewing’s sarcoma
Benign bone tumor
Benign bone tumor
What is Metastatic Bone Disease?
Cartilage cancer
Fibrous dysplasia
Loss of storage of calcium and phosphate
Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate
Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate
During the aging process, which one of the following event describes electrons being ‘stolen’ from proteins and lipids?
Dehydration
Loss of glucose
Free radical formation
Programmed cell death
Free radical formation
What theory holds that aging is a result of accumulated random events or damage from environmental agents?
Aging Theory
Stochastic theory
Gene mutation theory
Genetically programmed cell death
Stochastic theory
Which one of the following events does NOT occur in aging muscles?
Loss of strength
Loss of flexibility
Increased reflexes
Loss of muscle mass
Increased reflexes
Which one of the following changes in physiology will occur when joints age?
Maintenance of the cartilage
Strengthening of the joint capsule
Increased production of synovial fluid
Loss of flexibility and ligament length
Loss of flexibility and ligament length
What is esophagitis?
Esophageal spasms
Inflammation of the stomach
What is esophagitis?
Esophageal spasms
Inflammation of the stomach
Inflammation of the esophagus
Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx
Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx
Inflammation of the esophagus
Which of the following are complications of chronic gastroesophageal reflux?
Diabetes
Some heartburn
Fibrous restrictions only
Anemia & fibrous restrictions
Anemia & fibrous restrictions
Which one of the following forms of Diabetes is caused by the catabolism of pancreatic beta cells resulting in the complete loss of insulin production?
Secondary Diabetes
Gestational Diabetes
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT?
Women are most commonly affected
They are found most often in the duodenum.
Eating does not make the client feel any better.
The entire gastric mucosa inflames resulting in achlorhydria.
They are found most often in the duodenum.
Which one of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that only affects the mucosa and submucosa of the colon & rectum?
Esophagitis
Crohn’s disease
Ulcerative colitis
Duodenal Ulceration
Ulcerative colitis
Which one of the following is associated with Crohn’s disease?
Inflammation of the duodenum
Inflammation of the distal ileum
Blockage of the blood flow to the distal ileum
H.pylori bacterial infection causing duodenal ulceration
Inflammation of the distal ileum
Which one of the following diseases causes a client to suffer from abdominal cramping alternating constipation and diarrhea?
Enteritis
Crohn’s Disease
Irritable bowel syndrome
Inflammatory bowel syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?
Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus
Lower right quadrant pain
Extreme bloody diarrhea
Lower left quadrant pain
Lower left quadrant pain
Which of the following describes cirrhosis?
A disease related to the colon
Response of the colon to chronic damage
The development of fatty infiltration in liver cells
Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver
Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver
What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?
Jaundice
Cirrhosis
No symptoms
Dark colour stool
Jaundice
Which Viral Hepatitis strain is highly contagious?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis A
Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones?
Cholangitis
Cholecystitis
Cholelithiasis
Choledocholithiasis
Choledocholithiasis
Which of the following occur due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?
Cirrhotic liver
Portal hypertension
Heptocellular necrosis
Fibrotic hepatocyte development
Portal hypertension
Which of the following is an ‘end stage’ complication in cirrhosis?
Hepatitis
Portal hypertension
Vascular derangement
Fatty infiltration in heptocytes
Portal hypertension
Which of the following complications is associated with Portal Hypertension?
Diabetes
Hepatitis
Esophagitis
Varicose veins
Varicose veins
Which one of the following terms indicates sensory impairment?
Paresis
Flaccidity
Anesthesia
Paresthesia
Paresthesia
Which one of the following symptoms is NOT found below the level of a spinal cord injury?
Loss of sensory input
Loss of motor control
Loss of vascular supply
Loss of autonomic functions
Loss of vascular supply
Which one of the following factors will NOT affect the regeneration of a nerve?
The presence of neuritis
The speed of axonal regeneration
The amount of scar tissue formed
Size of the gap between the proximal stump and the distal connective tissue sheath
The presence of neuritis
Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms include: altered sensation on the lateral and anterior surface of the lower leg, arch of the foot and web between the great and second toes?
Tibial nerve
Sciatic nerve
Femoral nerve
Peroneal nerve
Peroneal nerve
Which one of the following conditions has occurred with an inability to close the right eye, ability to open the right eye, flaccid paralysis of the muscles on the right side of the face including the forehead, eye, cheek and mouth with normal function below the head?
Bell’s Palsy
Left-sided Stroke
Right-sided Stroke
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Bell’s Palsy
Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to the compression of the brachial plexus and its accompanying artery in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
Clavicle
Anterior Scalene
Pectoralis Minor
Sternocleidomastoid
Sternocleidomastoid
Which one of the following statements is NOT a cause of Piriformis Syndrome?
The sciatic nerve runs through the piriformis muscle
A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles
Driving a vehicle with a wallet in the back pocket of one’s pants
The consistent use of step machine causing internal rotation of the thigh
A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles
Which one of the following injuries occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion?
Damage to the anterior spinal artery
A lesion to the grey matter of the cord
Damage to the anterior nerve roots on the right
Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema
Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema
Which one of the following changes describes the cause of spasticity in CNS conditions?
Loss of control of beta motor neurons
Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons
Decreased function of dopamine in the basal ganglia
No response of the neuromuscular junction to acetylcholine
Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons
Which one of the following pathological changes is the etiology for ALS?
Motor neuron degeneration
Sensory neuron demyelination
Anterior horn cell demyelination
Neuromuscular junction destruction
Motor neuron degeneration
Which one of the following phrases defines a Brain Attack (Stroke)?
Chronic vascular deformity in the brain
Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder
Chronic general neurological deficit from a vascular disorder
Acute neurological disorder of the glios and underlying neural structure
Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder
Which one of the following infections is self-limiting, mild and occurs in the meninges of the brain?
Encephalitis
Viral meningitis
Encephalomyelitis
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
Which one of the following forms of dementia results from chronic alcoholism?
Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s
Huntington’s disease
Multi infarct dementia
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
Which one of the following types of pain is due to inflammation of a spinal nerve root?
Parietal pain
Somatic pain
Radicular pain
Phantom limb pain
Radicular pain
Which one of the following conditions is a compression mononeuropathy of the median nerve?
Klumpky’s Palsy
Erb-Duchenne Palsy
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms of foot drop occur?
Tibial nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Lateral plantar nerve
Superficial peroneal nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Which one of the following nerves has been compressed if the symptoms of “ape hand deformity” occur?
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Axillary nerve
Median nerve
Which one of the following conditions manifests as: edema in the lower arm, dystrophic flexor muscles, and spontaneous burning pain with movement of the hand after a shoulder joint injury was immobilized?
Neuritis
Causalgia
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy
Which one of the following symptoms is unique to bipolar depression?
Mania
Depressed mood
Thoughts of death or suicide
Inability to experience pleasure
Mania
Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by repetitive thoughts and acts?
Panic disorder
Social anxiety disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by numerous physiological changes such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath?
Panic disorder
Social anxiety disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Panic disorder
Which one of the following types of dementia is inherited and manifests as: chronic progressive chorea, psychological changes and dementia?
Pick’s disease
Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s
Huntington’s disease
Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
Huntington’s disease
Which one of the following statements regarding Pain is FALSE?
Pain can be physiological and psychological
Sensory stimulation and perception are required to experience pain
The meaning of the situation can influence the individuals reaction to pain
The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people
The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people
Which one of the following types of pain occurs with direct damage to a nerve?
Nociceptive pain
Endogenous pain
Neuropathic pain
Neurological pain
Neuropathic pain
Which one of the following areas of the brain generates the emotional experience of pain?
Midbrain
Brain Stem
Limbic System
Somatosensory Cortex
Limbic System
Which one of the following theories of pain states that there are neural mechanisms at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information to the brain?
Pattern theory
Specificity theory
Gate control theory
Neuromatrix theory
Gate control theory
Which one of the following terms identifies the maximum intensity or duration of pain a person can accept as a result of psychological, cultural, familial, and environmental influences?
Pain Tolerance
Pain Threshold
Pain Sensations
Pain Perceptions
Pain Tolerance
Which one of the following terms is defined as: an absence of pain?
Analgesia
Allodynia
Hyperalgesia
Hyperesthesia
Analgesia
one of the following statements regarding Phantom Limb Pain is FALSE?
There is no treatment for phantom limb pain
It is neurologic pain felt by 70% of amputees
People continue feel painful sensations that were present in the limb prior to amputation
The pain in the amputated limb is described as shooting, cramping, tingling, burning, or a change in heat and cold
There is no treatment for phantom limb pain
Which one of the following statements regarding pain in children is FALSE?
Neonates and premature infants react to various types of pain
As infants grow they develop more complex responses to pain
It is very difficult to assess the location and intensity of pain in children
Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain
Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain
Which one of the following types of headaches can present with an aura?
Cluster headaches
Tension headaches
Migraine headaches
Aneurysm headaches
Migraine headaches
Which one of the following types of headaches is described as a neurovascular headache, with severe one-sided unrelenting pain that comes on rapidly, builds in intensity for up to 15 minutes lasting up to 3 hours?
Cluster headaches
Tension headaches
Migraine headaches
Aneurysm headaches
Cluster headaches
Which one of the following types of headaches are said to be more responsive to treatment using massage therapy, acupuncture, relaxation and imagery than pharmacological treatment?
Cluster headaches
Tension headaches
Migraine headaches
Aneurysm headaches
Tension headaches
Which one of the following spinal segments bears the most pathological forces leading to disc injury and herniation?
Upper sacral spine
Lower lumbar spine
Lower cervical spine
Upper thoracic spine
Lower lumbar spine
Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?
Fever and edema
Stiffness, heat and headache
Redness, swelling, edema and tingling
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?
Influx of histamine
Influx of red blood cells
Release of chemical mediators from the liver
Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?
Stretching of the phagocytes
Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
St
Which one of the following cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?
Fixed cells
Stable cells
Labile cells
Permanent cell
Labile cells
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?
Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis
Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?
Sprained knee
Fall from a ladder
Muscular Dystrophy
Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident
Muscular Dystrophy
Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?
Contusion
Laceration
Hematoma
Closed Fracture
Laceration
Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?
Strain
Sprain
Fracture
Loose body
Loose body
Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?
Microflora
Parasitic flora
Mutualistic flora
Commensal flora
Commensal flora
Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?
The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?
Systemic
Endemic
Epidemic
Pandemic
Epidemic
Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?
Osteoma
Osteomyelitis
Osteonecrosis
Chondromalacia
Osteoma
Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?
Fracture
Thrombosis
Tuberculosis
Idiopathic Ischemia
Tuberculosis
Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?
Osteoporosis
Osteomyelitis
Osteonecrosis
Osteosarcoma
Osteonecrosis
Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Articular cartilage
Intrinsic ligaments
Extrinsic ligaments
Synovial membrane
Articular cartilage
Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?
The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage.
Correct Answer
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.
Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue.
Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane
Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?
Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Chondrocytes
Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?
Sclerosis at the joint margins
Thickening of the subchondral bone
Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage
Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone
Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone
Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?
Erosion of the periosteum
Extrinsic ligament fibrosis
Surface cracks in the cartilage
Eburnation of the subchondral bone
Surface cracks in the cartilage
Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?
Osteophytes
Syndesmophytes
Pannus formation
Uric Acid crystallization
Osteophytes
Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?
Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology.
Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA.
Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA.
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?
Tophi
Swan Neck Deformity
Boutonniere Deformity
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?
Correct Answer
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia.
The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications.
Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?
Knees
Sacroiliac
Metacarpalphalangeal
First metatarsalphalangeal
Sacroiliac
Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain
Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue
Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
hich one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?
The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood
Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?
The formation of Tophi
The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes
The formation of multiple swan neck deformities
The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments
The formation of Tophi
Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?
Liver
Heart
Kidneys
Large Intestine
Kidneys
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?
Fever and facial skin rash
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?
Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue
Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Formation of asymptomatic tophi
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Formation of asymptomatic tophi
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Spondyloarthropathies
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Osteoarthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?
Gout
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?
Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity
Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism
Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
gout
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psoriatic Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?
Gout
Osteoarthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?
The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints
In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity.
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?
Pannus formation
Osteophyte formation
Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?
Bluge sign
Baker’s cyst
Bouchard’s nodes
Occipital headaches
Bouchard’s nodes
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?
Toeing-in
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Bowed legs
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?
Flat foot
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Flat foot
In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?
Tailor position
Torsion position
Cross leg position
Straight leg position
Torsion position
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?
Toeing-in
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Knock-knee
Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?
Lax lateral collateral ligaments
Lax medial collateral ligaments
Weak anterior cruciate ligaments
Weak posterior cruciate ligaments
Lax medial collateral ligaments
Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?
Curvature in the femoral body
Curvature of the tibia and fibula
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?
Thickening of the subtalar joint
Abnormal variations in knee rotation
Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?
Tibial torsion
Genu valgum
Fibular torsion
Femoral anteversion
Femoral anteversion
Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?
The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age.
All children have pes planus when they begin to walk.
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Curvature in the femoral body
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores
Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips
Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee
Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?
Osteochondroses
Osgood-Schlatter Disease
Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?
To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?
Invasive surgery shortly after birth
Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations
Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?
Abnormal development of bone in-utero
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?
Abnormal development of bone in-utero
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?
Age
Hormone levels
Phosphate levels
Malabsorption disorders
Phosphate levels
