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Module 8 > Pathology MCQ > Flashcards

Pathology MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following defines Pathology?

It is cause and effect

It is a medical procedure

It is the science of disease

It is the applied science of medicine

A

It is the science of disease

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2
Q

What is the process called when the body works to maintain a steady state?

Proliferation

Homeostasis

Organization

Inflammation

A

Homeostasis

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3
Q

Which term is defined as the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place at initial contact with a causative agent until the disease is expressed?

Etiology

Sequelae

Pathogenesis

Manifestation

A

Pathogenesis

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4
Q

Which one of the following terms is equated with the elimination of worn out cells known as ‘cellular suicide’?

Apotosis

Necrosis

Fatty infiltration

Cellular swelling

A

Apotosis

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the six aspects of the disease process?

Etiology

Pathogenesis

Diagnosis

None of the above

A

None of the above

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6
Q

Cells constantly adapt to changes in the body’s internal environment. Based on these internal demands, body cells are able to change in size, number, and form. Which of the following terms defines cellular adaption in number quantity?

Atrophy

Hypertrophy

Hyperplasia

Metaplasia

A

Hyperplasia

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7
Q

A disease that is not clinically evident but is destined to progress to clinical disease is in:

Preclinical stage

Subclinical stage

Carrier stage

Clinical stage

A

Preclinical stage

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8
Q

Which of the following is the process that indicates that a cell has died?

Necrosis

Cellular atrophy

Cellular swelling

Cellular hyperplasia

A

Necrosis

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9
Q

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?

Aplasia

Atrophy

Hypoplasia

Hypertrophy

A

Hypoplasia

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10
Q

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a muscle increasing in size due to an increase in cell size?

Aplasia

Atrophy

Hyperplasia

Hypertrophy

A

Hypertrophy

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11
Q

During hemostasis what stage involves both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

Vessel spasm

Blood coagulation

Clot retraction

Clot dissolution

A

Blood coagulation

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12
Q

Which suffix is used to indicate inflammation of a structure?

isis

itis

osis

lysis

A

itis

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13
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for acute inflammation?

It is hemodynamic

It is a response to the presence of bacteria only

It is a process that occurs at the same time as healing

It is a generalized overall reaction by the whole body at a single time

A

It is hemodynamic

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14
Q

Which of the following is considered to be one of the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

Rubor

Dolor

Calor

All of the above

A

All of the above

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

Heat

Redness

Swelling

Rapid onset

A

Rapid onset

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16
Q

Which of the following white blood cells is usually the first to arrive at a site of inflammation?

Basophils

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Monocytes

A

Neutrophils

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17
Q

Which of the following is the process of a lymphocyte engulfing and digesting a foreign microbe?

Exudation

Emigration

Margination

Phagocytosis

A

Phagocytosis

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18
Q

Which term identifies the attraction of WBC’s toward a microbe?

Emigration

Chemotaxis

Pseudopodia

Phagocytosis

A

Chemotaxis

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19
Q

Which of the following white blood cells participate in phagocytosis?

Neutrophils

Macrophages

Basophils

Both A and B

A

Both A and B

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20
Q

During the vascular stage of inflammation, both vasoconstriction and vasodilation of blood vessels. Which process occurs first?

Vasoconstriction

Vasodilation

Both A and B

None of the above

A

Vasoconstriction

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21
Q

What is the function of histamine during the inflammatory response?

Regenerate tissue

Control organization

To vasodilate capillaries

To vasoconstrict the capillaries

A

To vasodilate capillaries

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22
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?

Chronic inflammation is of a short duration

Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediator

A

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

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23
Q

Which of the following tissue types is able to response to injury and undergo tissue regeneration?

Parenchymal Tissue

Stromal Tissue

Nervous Tissue

None of the above

A

Parenchymal Tissue

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24
Q

Which type of body cells normally stops dividing when growth ceases?

Stable

Labile

Permanent

Mature

A

Stable

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25
Q

What causes a wound to heal with an excessively large scar?

The loss of blood

The presence of fibroblasts

Presence of minimal exudate

The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other

A

The edges of injured tissue do not contract toward each other

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26
Q

Which of the following indicates that Healing by Primary Intention will occur?

There is extensive tissue loss

There is little or no tissue loss

Diminished rate of healing

Formation of abundant scar tissue

A

There is little or no tissue loss

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27
Q

Which one of the following phases of wound healing accounts for the building of new tissues and the formation of granulation tissue?

Remodeling Phase

Proliferative Phase

Inflammatory Phase

Connective Tissue Phase

A

Proliferative Phase

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28
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding infectious disease is FALSE?

It is normal for certain fungus to live in humans

Humans and microorganisms have beneficial contact

It is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine

Competition between fungi and bacteria for the same food source keep the populations under control in the human intestine

A

is normal and healthy for parasites to live in the human intestine

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29
Q

Which of the following contain DNA as a genome?

Bacteria

Fungi

Viruses

All of the above

A

All of the above

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30
Q

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when only the infecting organism benefits from the relationship?

Communitism

Parasitism

Mutualism

Commensalism

A

Parasitism

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31
Q

Which one of the following terms describes an infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?

Communitism

Parasitism

Mutualistic flora

Commensalism

A

Mutualistic flora

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32
Q

Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?

The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system

A

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

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33
Q

Which of the following structures lack an organized nucleus?

Bacteria

Fungi

Eukaryotes

Both A and C

A

Bacteria

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34
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the smallest pathogen and incapable of replication outside of a living cell?

Viruses

Bacteria

Fungi

Parasites

A

Viruses

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35
Q

Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?

Virus

Piron

Fungus

Bacteria

A

Bacteria

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36
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the spread of disease across continents with the potential to affect the entire world?

Systemic

Endemic

Epidemic

Pandemic

A

Pandemic

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37
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Incubation period during the course of an infectious disease?

Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms

It is the initial stage where symptoms become visible

Total elimination of the pathogen begins

Rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen

A

Pathogen begins active replication without producing recognizable symptoms

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38
Q

Which one of the following terms regarding the course of a disease is characterized by containment of the infection, repair of damaged tissue, and progressive elimination of the pathogen?

Resolution

Acute stage

Prodromal stage

Convalescent period

A

Convalescent period

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39
Q

A symptom of an infectious disease that reflects the site of infection is called:

Covert

Obvious

Nonspecific

Specific

A

Specific

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40
Q

When infectious diseases are developed in hospitals, it is called:

Zoonoses

Nosomial

Community acquired

Zooitis

A

Nosomial

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41
Q

Which one of the following processes identifies why patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms?

The embolism is very small and heals well

The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

The heart can push the embolism through the tissue without damage

The lungs contain macrophage that devour the pulmonary embolisms prior to oxygen loss

A

The lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

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42
Q

Which one of the following locations is the most likely source of a pulmonary embolism?

Portal artery

Pulmonary vein

Coronary artery

Deep Vein in the legs

A

Deep Vein in the legs

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43
Q

Which one of the following diseases causes severe chronic fluid secretion in the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive systems in children?

Anaphylaxis

Cystic Fibrosis

Chronic Bronchitis

Acute Respiratory infection

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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44
Q

Which one of the following conditions is caused by a loss of elasticity to lung tissue, abnormal enlargement of the air spaces with destruction of the alveoli?

COPD

Asthma

Emphysema

Acute Bronchitis

A

Emphysema

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45
Q

Which one of the following diseases is a permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on neighboring bronchi?

Asthma

Bronchitis

Pneumonia

Bronchiectasis

A

Bronchiectasis

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46
Q

Which one of the following adaptive mechanisms does NOT occur during chronic inflammation in the respiratory system?

It results in more bacterial proliferation

There is a loss of ciliated epithelium along the bronchi

Destruction of the elastic tissue and loss of expansile lung tissue occurs

It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage

A

It triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage

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47
Q

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: incomplete expansion of the lung?

COPD

Atelectasis

Pneumothorax

Acute asthma attack

A

Atelectasis

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48
Q

hich one of the following anatomical changes is found with the disease Emphysema?

The posture is unaffected

Atrophy of the secondary breathing muscles

SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs

The lips will become red, with deep, slow, irregular breathing leading to sloping shoulders

A

SCM hypertrophies, shoulder elevate & expansion of the rib cage occurs

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49
Q

Which one of the following lists of manifestations occurs with an asthma attack?

Persistent coughing

Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling

Persistent coughing, dyspnea with severe local chest pain

Intolerance to exercise, restlessness, anxiety, persistent cough, & mild dyspnea

A

Dyspnea and wheezing with difficulty exhaling

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50
Q

Which one of the following processes is unique to the condition Bronchitis?

Inflammation of the alveoli

Inflammation of the trachea

Inflammation of the lung tissue

Inflammation of one or more bronchioles

A

Inflammation of one or more bronchioles

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51
Q

Which one of the following phrases describes a pneumothorax?

Blood in the pleural cavity

Water in the pleural cavity

Exudate in the pleural cavity

Air entering the pleural cavity

A

Air entering the pleural cavity

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52
Q

Which one of the following statements identifies the etiology of Pneumoconioses?

There is water in the pericardial sac

There is exudate in the pleural cavity

There is inhalation of organic dusts and related occupational antigens

There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos

A

There is inhalation of inorganic dusts and particulate matter such as asbestos

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53
Q

Which one of the following statements describes the etiology of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

It is an Autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretions in exocrine glands

There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse

There is a severe immune reaction against the alveoli due to cross over of maternal blood

There is a combination of primary lung lesions and lymph node granulomas (Ghon’s complex)

A

There is pulmonary immaturity and surfactant deficiency leading to alveolar collapse

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54
Q

Which one of the following pathologies develops from incompetent valves then venous stasis, congestion, edema and finally thrombosis formation?

Vasculitis

Varicose Veins

Arthroscleroses

Raynaud’s Disease

A

Varicose Veins

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55
Q

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Petechia?

Blood in a joint

Blood in the lungs

Pinpoint hemorrhage

Hemorrhage in soft tissues

A

Pinpoint hemorrhage

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56
Q

Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the formation of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Smoking

Pregnancy

Anticoagulants

Postoperative immobilization

A

Anticoagulants

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57
Q

Which one of the following deficiencies occurs in neutropenia?

A deficiency of platelets

A deficiency of immune cells

A deficiency of red blood cells

A deficiency of white blood cells

A

A deficiency of white blood cells

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58
Q

hich one of the following conditions is suspected if a person has a Reed Sternberg cells present in their blood stream and tumors of the lymphatic tissue?

Hodgkin’s Disease

Hemolytic Anemia

Sickle Cell Anemia

Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

A

Hodgkin’s Disease

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59
Q

Which one of the following increases the risk for contracting Tuberculosis infections?

HIV infection

Living in Ontario

Drinking goats milk

Having a healthy immune system

A

HIV infection

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60
Q

Which one of the following congenital cardiac defect is known as a “hole in the heart”?

Cor pulmonale

Atrial Septal Defect

Narrowing of the aorta

Coarctation of the aorta

A

Atrial Septal Defect

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61
Q

Which one of the following descriptions identifies Angina Pectoris?

A form of heart attack

Severe pressure in the chest due to scaring

Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

Death of the muscle tissue due to a blockage of blood flow

A

Severe chest pain due to myocardial ischemia

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62
Q

Which one of the following conditions is defined as: a failure of the heart to pump blood efficiently resulting in a build up of fluid in the bodies’ tissues?

Myocardial infarction

Valvular heart disease

Congestive heart failure

Constrictive pericarditis

A

Congestive heart failure

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63
Q

Which one of the following conditions is described as: ischemic death of myocardial tissue due to atherosclerotic disease of the coronary arteries?

Angina

Myocarditis

Infective endocarditis

Myocardial infarction

A

Myocardial infarction

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64
Q

Which one of the following processes is NOT a complication of shock?

Immune reaction

Acute renal failure

Multiple organ failure

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

Immune reaction

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65
Q

Which one of the following terms defines a gene pair; one from the mother and one from the father?

Alleles

Genotype

Gene Locus

Gene Mutation

A

Alleles

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66
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a biochemical event such as a deletion that produces new alleles?

Genotype

Gene Locus

Gene Mutation

Gene expression

A

Gene Mutation

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67
Q

Which one of the following genes is responsible for a sex-linked disorder?

The wild-type allele

The ‘X’ chromosome

The ‘Y’ chromosome

The dominant autosomal chromosome

A

The ‘X’ chromosome

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68
Q

Which one of the following diseases is X-linked Recessive?

Sickle Cell

Cystic Fibrosis

Colour Blindness

Fragile X syndrome

A

Fragile X syndrome

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69
Q

In which one of the following situations will a child express an Autosomal Recessive Disorder?

If the father carries the gene

If the mother carries the gene

If both parents are carriers of the gene

When a mutation occurs spontaneously at delivery

A

If both parents are carriers of the gene

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70
Q

Which one of the following genetic disease results from a connective tissue disorder causing elongated limbs, fingers hyperflexion of the joints and heart conditions?

PKU

Tay-Sachs

Down Syndrome

Marfan’s Syndrome

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

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71
Q

Which Chromosomal Disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 resulting in altered facial features, mental retardation and lax joints?

Down Syndrome

Turner’s Syndrome

Marfan’s Syndrome

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Down Syndrome

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72
Q

Which one of the following statements describes a Teratogenic agent?

An agent that causes skin cancer.

An agent that causes leukemia in pregnant women.

An agent that assists in the normal development of children.

An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development

A

An environmental agent that produces abnormalities during fetal development

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73
Q

Which one of the following diseases manifests from pregnant mothers drinking alcohol?

German measles

Down Syndrome

Turner’s Syndrome

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

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74
Q

Which one of the following vitamins do pregnant women take prior to and during pregnancy to prevent neural tube disorders?

Folic acid

Vitamin A

Vitamin C

Vitamin D

A

Folic acid

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75
Q

Which one of the following statements describes angiogenesis?

Growth of blood vessels

A loss of function in a cell

Development of cancer cells

Normal cell number increase

A

Growth of blood vessels

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76
Q

Which one of the following terms is defined as a swelling due to inflammation or trauma?

Tumor

Neoplasm

Hypoplasia

Hyperplasia

A

Tumor

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77
Q

When naming a tumor, what is the suffix added to the tissue type?

– oma

– itis

– logy

– ase

A

oma

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78
Q

Which one of the following types of tumor grows in a capsule and can compress nearby structures?

Anaplasia

Benign Tumors

Malignant Tumors

Metastatic Neoplasms

A

Benign Tumors

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79
Q

Which one of the following tumors grows using invasive crab like extensions into neighbouring tissue?

Lipoma

Fibroma
lloma

Adenocarcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma

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80
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a chemical agent that is capable of causing cancer in the body?

Biogen

Endogen

Teratogen

Carcinogen

A

Carcinogen

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81
Q

Which one of the following events must occur for any tumor to enlarge and its cells to spread?

Necrosis of the tumor

Apoptosis in the tumor

Angiogenesis in the tumor

Switching on of tumor suppressor gene

A

Angiogenesis in the tumor

82
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a treatment for cancer?

Surgery

Hormonal and Biotherapy

Chemotherapy and Radiation

Application of massage therapy

A

Application of massage therapy

83
Q

Which one of the following as a symptom of bone cancer?

Fever

Abdominal pain

An uneven nevi

Worsening pain at night in the affected area

A

Worsening pain at night in the affected area

84
Q

What type of tumor is present if the symptoms include no pain, no palpable mass and an unexplained bone fracture?

Skin cancer

Breast cancer

Ewing’s sarcoma

Benign bone tumor

A

Benign bone tumor

85
Q

What is Metastatic Bone Disease?

Cartilage cancer

Fibrous dysplasia

Loss of storage of calcium and phosphate

Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate

A

Cancer that has spread to the bone from an other site like the breast or prostate

86
Q

During the aging process, which one of the following event describes electrons being ‘stolen’ from proteins and lipids?

Dehydration

Loss of glucose

Free radical formation

Programmed cell death

A

Free radical formation

87
Q

What theory holds that aging is a result of accumulated random events or damage from environmental agents?

Aging Theory

Stochastic theory

Gene mutation theory

Genetically programmed cell death

A

Stochastic theory

88
Q

Which one of the following events does NOT occur in aging muscles?

Loss of strength

Loss of flexibility

Increased reflexes

Loss of muscle mass

A

Increased reflexes

89
Q

Which one of the following changes in physiology will occur when joints age?

Maintenance of the cartilage

Strengthening of the joint capsule

Increased production of synovial fluid

Loss of flexibility and ligament length

A

Loss of flexibility and ligament length

90
Q

What is esophagitis?

Esophageal spasms

Inflammation of the stomach

What is esophagitis?

Esophageal spasms

Inflammation of the stomach

Inflammation of the esophagus

Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx

Inflammation of the muscle lining of the pharynx

A

Inflammation of the esophagus

91
Q

Which of the following are complications of chronic gastroesophageal reflux?

Diabetes

Some heartburn

Fibrous restrictions only

Anemia & fibrous restrictions

A

Anemia & fibrous restrictions

92
Q

Which one of the following forms of Diabetes is caused by the catabolism of pancreatic beta cells resulting in the complete loss of insulin production?

Secondary Diabetes

Gestational Diabetes

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

93
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT?

Women are most commonly affected
They are found most often in the duodenum.

Eating does not make the client feel any better.

The entire gastric mucosa inflames resulting in achlorhydria.

A

They are found most often in the duodenum.

94
Q

Which one of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease that only affects the mucosa and submucosa of the colon & rectum?

Esophagitis

Crohn’s disease

Ulcerative colitis

Duodenal Ulceration

A

Ulcerative colitis

95
Q

Which one of the following is associated with Crohn’s disease?

Inflammation of the duodenum

Inflammation of the distal ileum

Blockage of the blood flow to the distal ileum

H.pylori bacterial infection causing duodenal ulceration

A

Inflammation of the distal ileum

96
Q

Which one of the following diseases causes a client to suffer from abdominal cramping alternating constipation and diarrhea?

Enteritis

Crohn’s Disease

Irritable bowel syndrome

Inflammatory bowel syndrome

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

97
Q

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms tends to occur with diverticulitis?

Herniation of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus

Lower right quadrant pain

Extreme bloody diarrhea

Lower left quadrant pain

A

Lower left quadrant pain

98
Q

Which of the following describes cirrhosis?

A disease related to the colon

Response of the colon to chronic damage

The development of fatty infiltration in liver cells

Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

A

Scar tissue replaces normal healthy tissue in the liver

99
Q

What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?

Jaundice

Cirrhosis

No symptoms

Dark colour stool

A

Jaundice

100
Q

Which Viral Hepatitis strain is highly contagious?

Hepatitis A

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Hepatitis D

A

Hepatitis A

101
Q

Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones?

Cholangitis

Cholecystitis

Cholelithiasis

Choledocholithiasis

A

Choledocholithiasis

102
Q

Which of the following occur due to an increased resistance to hepatic blood flow?

Cirrhotic liver

Portal hypertension

Heptocellular necrosis

Fibrotic hepatocyte development

A

Portal hypertension

103
Q

Which of the following is an ‘end stage’ complication in cirrhosis?

Hepatitis

Portal hypertension

Vascular derangement

Fatty infiltration in heptocytes

A

Portal hypertension

104
Q

Which of the following complications is associated with Portal Hypertension?

Diabetes

Hepatitis

Esophagitis

Varicose veins

A

Varicose veins

105
Q

Which one of the following terms indicates sensory impairment?

Paresis

Flaccidity

Anesthesia

Paresthesia

A

Paresthesia

106
Q

Which one of the following symptoms is NOT found below the level of a spinal cord injury?

Loss of sensory input

Loss of motor control

Loss of vascular supply

Loss of autonomic functions

A

Loss of vascular supply

107
Q

Which one of the following factors will NOT affect the regeneration of a nerve?
The presence of neuritis

The speed of axonal regeneration

The amount of scar tissue formed

Size of the gap between the proximal stump and the distal connective tissue sheath

A

The presence of neuritis

108
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms include: altered sensation on the lateral and anterior surface of the lower leg, arch of the foot and web between the great and second toes?

Tibial nerve

Sciatic nerve

Femoral nerve

Peroneal nerve

A

Peroneal nerve

109
Q

Which one of the following conditions has occurred with an inability to close the right eye, ability to open the right eye, flaccid paralysis of the muscles on the right side of the face including the forehead, eye, cheek and mouth with normal function below the head?

Bell’s Palsy

Left-sided Stroke

Right-sided Stroke

Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Bell’s Palsy

110
Q

Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to the compression of the brachial plexus and its accompanying artery in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

Clavicle

Anterior Scalene

Pectoralis Minor

Sternocleidomastoid

A

Sternocleidomastoid

111
Q

Which one of the following statements is NOT a cause of Piriformis Syndrome?

The sciatic nerve runs through the piriformis muscle

A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles

Driving a vehicle with a wallet in the back pocket of one’s pants

The consistent use of step machine causing internal rotation of the thigh

A

A narrowing of the obturator foremen by gluteal muscles

112
Q

Which one of the following injuries occurs in a complete spinal cord lesion with total loss of function below the lesion?

Damage to the anterior spinal artery

A lesion to the grey matter of the cord

Damage to the anterior nerve roots on the right

Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema

A

Compression of the entire spinal cord due to ischemia and edema

113
Q

Which one of the following changes describes the cause of spasticity in CNS conditions?

Loss of control of beta motor neurons

Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons

Decreased function of dopamine in the basal ganglia

No response of the neuromuscular junction to acetylcholine

A

Loss of inhibition of alpha motor neurons

114
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes is the etiology for ALS?

Motor neuron degeneration

Sensory neuron demyelination

Anterior horn cell demyelination

Neuromuscular junction destruction

A

Motor neuron degeneration

115
Q

Which one of the following phrases defines a Brain Attack (Stroke)?

Chronic vascular deformity in the brain

Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

Chronic general neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

Acute neurological disorder of the glios and underlying neural structure

A

Acute focal neurological deficit from a vascular disorder

116
Q

Which one of the following infections is self-limiting, mild and occurs in the meninges of the brain?

Encephalitis

Viral meningitis

Encephalomyelitis

Bacterial meningitis

A

Viral meningitis

117
Q

Which one of the following forms of dementia results from chronic alcoholism?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s

Huntington’s disease

Multi infarct dementia

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

118
Q

Which one of the following types of pain is due to inflammation of a spinal nerve root?

Parietal pain

Somatic pain

Radicular pain

Phantom limb pain

A

Radicular pain

119
Q

Which one of the following conditions is a compression mononeuropathy of the median nerve?

Klumpky’s Palsy

Erb-Duchenne Palsy

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

120
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been damaged if the symptoms of foot drop occur?

Tibial nerve

Deep peroneal nerve

Lateral plantar nerve

Superficial peroneal nerve

A

Deep peroneal nerve

121
Q

Which one of the following nerves has been compressed if the symptoms of “ape hand deformity” occur?

Ulnar nerve

Radial nerve

Median nerve

Axillary nerve

A

Median nerve

122
Q

Which one of the following conditions manifests as: edema in the lower arm, dystrophic flexor muscles, and spontaneous burning pain with movement of the hand after a shoulder joint injury was immobilized?

Neuritis

Causalgia

Trigeminal Neuralgia

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

A

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

123
Q

Which one of the following symptoms is unique to bipolar depression?

Mania

Depressed mood

Thoughts of death or suicide

Inability to experience pleasure

A

Mania

124
Q

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by repetitive thoughts and acts?

Panic disorder

Social anxiety disorder

Generalized anxiety disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

125
Q

Which one of the following anxiety disorders is characterized by numerous physiological changes such as dizziness, fainting, chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath?

Panic disorder

Social anxiety disorder

Generalized anxiety disorder

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

Panic disorder

126
Q

Which one of the following types of dementia is inherited and manifests as: chronic progressive chorea, psychological changes and dementia?

Pick’s disease

Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s

Huntington’s disease

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

Huntington’s disease

127
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Pain is FALSE?

Pain can be physiological and psychological

Sensory stimulation and perception are required to experience pain

The meaning of the situation can influence the individuals reaction to pain

The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people

A

The same type of injury generates the same pain response from different people

128
Q

Which one of the following types of pain occurs with direct damage to a nerve?

Nociceptive pain

Endogenous pain

Neuropathic pain

Neurological pain

A

Neuropathic pain

129
Q

Which one of the following areas of the brain generates the emotional experience of pain?

Midbrain

Brain Stem

Limbic System

Somatosensory Cortex

A

Limbic System

130
Q

Which one of the following theories of pain states that there are neural mechanisms at each level of the spinal column that reduces the flow of information to the brain?

Pattern theory

Specificity theory

Gate control theory

Neuromatrix theory

A

Gate control theory

131
Q

Which one of the following terms identifies the maximum intensity or duration of pain a person can accept as a result of psychological, cultural, familial, and environmental influences?

Pain Tolerance

Pain Threshold

Pain Sensations

Pain Perceptions

A

Pain Tolerance

132
Q

Which one of the following terms is defined as: an absence of pain?

Analgesia

Allodynia

Hyperalgesia

Hyperesthesia

A

Analgesia

133
Q

one of the following statements regarding Phantom Limb Pain is FALSE?

There is no treatment for phantom limb pain

It is neurologic pain felt by 70% of amputees

People continue feel painful sensations that were present in the limb prior to amputation

The pain in the amputated limb is described as shooting, cramping, tingling, burning, or a change in heat and cold

A

There is no treatment for phantom limb pain

134
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pain in children is FALSE?

Neonates and premature infants react to various types of pain

As infants grow they develop more complex responses to pain

It is very difficult to assess the location and intensity of pain in children

Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain

A

Children feel less pain than adults and do not recall pain due to their immature brain

135
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches can present with an aura?

Cluster headaches

Tension headaches

Migraine headaches

Aneurysm headaches

A

Migraine headaches

136
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches is described as a neurovascular headache, with severe one-sided unrelenting pain that comes on rapidly, builds in intensity for up to 15 minutes lasting up to 3 hours?

Cluster headaches

Tension headaches

Migraine headaches

Aneurysm headaches

A

Cluster headaches

137
Q

Which one of the following types of headaches are said to be more responsive to treatment using massage therapy, acupuncture, relaxation and imagery than pharmacological treatment?

Cluster headaches

Tension headaches

Migraine headaches

Aneurysm headaches

A

Tension headaches

138
Q

Which one of the following spinal segments bears the most pathological forces leading to disc injury and herniation?

Upper sacral spine

Lower lumbar spine

Lower cervical spine

Upper thoracic spine

A

Lower lumbar spine

139
Q

Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?

Fever and edema

Stiffness, heat and headache

Redness, swelling, edema and tingling

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

140
Q

Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?

Influx of histamine

Influx of red blood cells

Release of chemical mediators from the liver

Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

A

stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

141
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?

Stretching of the phagocytes

Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue

A

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

St

142
Q

Which one of the following cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?

Fixed cells

Stable cells

Labile cells

Permanent cell

A

Labile cells

143
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?

Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process

A

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

144
Q

Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?

Sprained knee

Fall from a ladder

Muscular Dystrophy

Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident

A

Muscular Dystrophy

145
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?

Contusion

Laceration

Hematoma

Closed Fracture

A

Laceration

146
Q

Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?

Strain

Sprain

Fracture

Loose body

A

Loose body

147
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?

Microflora

Parasitic flora

Mutualistic flora

Commensal flora

A

Commensal flora

148
Q

Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?

The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

A

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

149
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?

Systemic

Endemic

Epidemic

Pandemic

A

Epidemic

150
Q

Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?

Osteoma

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Chondromalacia

A

Osteoma

151
Q

Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?

Fracture

Thrombosis

Tuberculosis

Idiopathic Ischemia

A

Tuberculosis

152
Q

Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?

Osteoporosis

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Osteosarcoma

A

Osteonecrosis

153
Q

Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?

Articular cartilage

Intrinsic ligaments

Extrinsic ligaments

Synovial membrane

A

Articular cartilage

154
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?

The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage.
Correct Answer
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue.

Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes

A

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane

155
Q

Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?

Osteocytes

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Chondrocytes

A

Chondrocytes

156
Q

Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?

Sclerosis at the joint margins

Thickening of the subchondral bone

Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

A

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

157
Q

Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?

Erosion of the periosteum

Extrinsic ligament fibrosis

Surface cracks in the cartilage

Eburnation of the subchondral bone

A

Surface cracks in the cartilage

158
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?

Osteophytes

Syndesmophytes

Pannus formation

Uric Acid crystallization

A

Osteophytes

159
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?

Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology.

Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA.

Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA.

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

A

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

160
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?

Tophi

Swan Neck Deformity

Boutonniere Deformity

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

A

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

161
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?
Correct Answer
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia.

The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications.

Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.

A

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

162
Q

Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?

Knees

Sacroiliac

Metacarpalphalangeal

First metatarsalphalangeal

A

Sacroiliac

163
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain

Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms

A

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

164
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue

Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

A

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

165
Q

hich one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?

The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood

Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage

A

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

166
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?

The formation of Tophi

The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes

The formation of multiple swan neck deformities

The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments

A

The formation of Tophi

167
Q

Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?

Liver

Heart

Kidneys

Large Intestine

A

Kidneys

168
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?

Fever and facial skin rash

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

169
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?

Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue

Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

A

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

170
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Formation of asymptomatic tophi

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

171
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Formation of asymptomatic tophi

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

172
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Spondyloarthropathies

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Osteoarthritis

173
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?

Gout

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

174
Q

Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?

Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity

Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism

Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

A

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

175
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

gout

176
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

177
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

178
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?

Gout

Osteoarthritis

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

179
Q

Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints

A

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

180
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?

The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints

In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity.

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation

A

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

181
Q

which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?

Pannus formation

Osteophyte formation

Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

A

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

182
Q

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?

Bluge sign

Baker’s cyst

Bouchard’s nodes

Occipital headaches

A

Bouchard’s nodes

183
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?

Toeing-in

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Bowed legs

184
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?

Flat foot

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Flat foot

185
Q

In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?

Tailor position

Torsion position

Cross leg position

Straight leg position

A

Torsion position

186
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?

Toeing-in

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Knock-knee

187
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?

Lax lateral collateral ligaments

Lax medial collateral ligaments

Weak anterior cruciate ligaments

Weak posterior cruciate ligaments

A

Lax medial collateral ligaments

188
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?

Curvature in the femoral body

Curvature of the tibia and fibula

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles

A

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

189
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?

Thickening of the subtalar joint

Abnormal variations in knee rotation

Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

A

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

190
Q

Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?

Tibial torsion

Genu valgum

Fibular torsion

Femoral anteversion

A

Femoral anteversion

191
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?

The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age.

All children have pes planus when they begin to walk.

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.

A

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

192
Q

Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Curvature in the femoral body

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores

Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms

A

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

193
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips

Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee

Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

A

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

194
Q

Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?

Osteochondroses

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

195
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?

To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

A

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

196
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

A

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

197
Q

Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?

Invasive surgery shortly after birth

Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations

Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

A

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

198
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?

Abnormal development of bone in-utero

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

199
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?

Abnormal development of bone in-utero

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

200
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?

Age

Hormone levels

Phosphate levels

Malabsorption disorders

A

Phosphate levels

Module 8 (8 decks)

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