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Module 8 > integumentary system > Flashcards

integumentary system Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?

Fever and edema

Stiffness, heat and headache

Redness, swelling, edema and tingling

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

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2
Q

Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?

Influx of histamine

Influx of red blood cells

Release of chemical mediators from the liver

Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

A

Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

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3
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?

Stretching of the phagocytes

Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue

A

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

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4
Q

Which cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?

Fixed cells

Stable cells

Labile cells

Permanent cells

A

Labile cells

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5
Q

1 / 1 point
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?

Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process

A

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

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6
Q

Which one of the following grades of injury indicates that a sprained ligament has ruptured but the bone is intact and uninjured?

Grade 1

Grade 2

Grade 3

Grade 4

A

Grade 3

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7
Q

Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?

Sprained knee

Fall from a ladder

Muscular Dystrophy

Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident

A

Muscular Dystrophy

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8
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?

Contusion

Laceration

Hematoma

Closed Fracture

A

Laceration

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9
Q

Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?

Strain

Sprain

Fracture

Loose body

A

Loose body

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10
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?

Microflora

Parasitic flora

Mutualistic flora

Commensal flora

A

Commensal flora

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11
Q

Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?

The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

A

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

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12
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?

Systemic

Endemic

Epidemic

Pandemic

A

Epidemic

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13
Q

Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?

Osteoma

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Chondromalacia

A

Osteoma

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14
Q

Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?

Fracture

Thrombosis

Tuberculosis

Idiopathic Ischemia

A

Tuberculosis

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15
Q

Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?

Osteoporosis

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Osteosarcoma

A

Osteonecrosis

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16
Q

Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?

Articular cartilage

Intrinsic ligaments

Extrinsic ligaments

Synovial membrane

A

Articular cartilage

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17
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?

The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage.

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue.

Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes.

A

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

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18
Q

Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?

Osteocytes

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Chondrocytes

A

Chondrocytes

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19
Q

Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?

Sclerosis at the joint margins

Thickening of the subchondral bone

Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

A

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

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20
Q

Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?

Erosion of the periosteum

Extrinsic ligament fibrosis

Surface cracks in the cartilage

Eburnation of the subchondral bone

A

Surface cracks in the cartilage

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21
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?

Osteophytes

Syndesmophytes

Pannus formation

Uric Acid crystallization

A

Osteophytes

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22
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?

Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology.

Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA.

Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA.

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

A

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

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23
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?

Tophi

Swan Neck Deformity

Boutonniere Deformity

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

A

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

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24
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia.

The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications.

Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.

A

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

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25
Q

Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?

Knees

Sacroiliac

Metacarpalphalangeal

First metatarsalphalangeal

A

Sacroiliac

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26
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain

Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms

A

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

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27
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue

Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

A

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

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28
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?

The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood

Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage

A

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

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29
Q

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?

The formation of Tophi

The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes

The formation of multiple swan neck deformities

The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments

A

The formation of Tophi

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30
Q

Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?

Liver

Heart

Kidneys

Large Intestine

A

Kidneys

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31
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?

Fever and facial skin rash

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

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32
Q

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?

Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue

Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissu

A

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

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33
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Formation of asymptomatic tophi

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

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34
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Formation of asymptomatic tophi

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

A

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

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35
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Spondyloarthropathies

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Osteoarthritis

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36
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?

Gout

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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37
Q

Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?

Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity

Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism

Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

A

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

38
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

Gout

39
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

40
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?

Gout

Psoriatic Arthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Reactive arthropathies

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

41
Q

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?

Gout

Osteoarthritis

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

42
Q

Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints

A

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

43
Q

1 / 1 point
Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?

The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints

In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity.

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation

A

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

44
Q

Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?

Pannus formation

Osteophyte formation

Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

A

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

45
Q

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?

Bluge sign

Baker’s cyst

Bouchard’s nodes

Occipital headaches

A

Bouchard’s nodes

46
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?

Toeing-in

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Bowed legs

47
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?

Flat foot

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Flat foot

48
Q

In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?

Tailor position

Torsion position

Cross leg position

Straight leg position

A

Tailor position

49
Q

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?

Toeing-in

Toeing-out

Bowed legs

Knock-knee

A

Knock-knee

50
Q

Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?

Lax lateral collateral ligaments

Lax medial collateral ligaments

Weak anterior cruciate ligaments

Weak posterior cruciate ligaments

A

Lax medial collateral ligaments

51
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?

Curvature in the femoral body

Curvature of the tibia and fibula

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles

A

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

52
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?

Thickening of the subtalar joint

Abnormal variations in knee rotation

Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

A

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

53
Q

Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?

Tibial torsion

Genu valgum

Fibular torsion

Femoral anteversion

A

Femoral anteversion

54
Q

Which one of the following positions does NOT contribute to torsional deformities in children?

Sleep positions

Sitting positions

Standing positions

Intrauterine positions

A

Standing positions

55
Q

Which one of the following statements describes pes planus?

Abnormal variations in hip rotation.

The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.

Accentuated fat pads on the plantar surface of the foot.

Failure of all the holding elements of the lower leg and foot.

A

The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.

56
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?

The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age.

All children have pes planus when they begin to walk.

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.

A

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

57
Q

Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Curvature in the femoral body

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores

Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms

A

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

58
Q

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips

Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee

Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

A

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

59
Q

Which one of the following series CORRECTLY describes the progression of events during osteochondroses?

Growth center undergoes necrosis deformity and regeneration

Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration and regeneration

Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity

Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration, necrosis and regeneration

A

Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity

60
Q

Which one of the following anatomical structures does Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease affect?

Tibial tuberosity

Distal femoral epiphysis

Lesser tuberosity of femur

Proximal femoral epiphysis

A

Proximal femoral epiphysis

61
Q

Which one of the following anatomical structures does Osgood-Schlatter Disease affect?

Tibial tuberosity

Distal femoral epiphysis

Lesser tuberosity of femur

Proximal femoral epiphysis

A

Tibial tuberosity

62
Q

Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?

Osteochondroses

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

63
Q

Which one of the following positions of the hip prevents deformity during Legg-Calve Perthes disease?

Adduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

Abduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

Adduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

A

Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

64
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?

To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

A

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

65
Q

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.

To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone

A

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head

66
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an etiology of Osteopenia?

Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Osteonecrosis

Malignancy of bone

A

Osteonecrosis

67
Q

Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?

Invasive surgery shortly after birth

Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations

Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

A

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

68
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?

Abnormal development of bone in-utero

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

69
Q

Which one of the following boney changes occurs in Osteoporosis?

Soft bones

Brittle bones

Necrotic bones

Tumorous bones

A

Brittle bones

70
Q

Which one of the following is the treatment for Rickets?

Removal of the affected intestine unable to absorb calcium

A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D

Sun exposure only as the body produces calcium and phosphorus

Altering pancreatic enzymes responsible for the renal insufficiency

A

A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D

71
Q

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?

Abnormal development of bone in-utero

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

72
Q

Which one of the following is the first manifestation of Osteoporosis?

Skeletal fracture

Severe bone pain

Bone pain with fever

Muscle weakness, bone pain and tenderness

A

Skeletal fracture

73
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?

Age

Hormone levels

Phosphate levels

Malabsorption disorders

A

Phosphate levels

74
Q

which one of the following statements describes the Female Athlete Triad?

A pathological drive to exercise

A female athlete developing Osteoporosis, Rickets and Paget’s disease

A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis

The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise

The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise

A

A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis

75
Q

Which one of the following processes is the accepted pathogenesis of Osteoporosis?

Abnormal development of bone in-utero

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

A

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

76
Q

Which one of the following terms describes microbial infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?

Microflora

Parasitic flora

Mutualistic flora

Commensal flora

A

Mutualistic flora

77
Q

Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?

The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system

A

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

78
Q

Which one of the following microbes is an obligate intracellular pathogen?

Virus

Fungus

Bacteria

Eukaryote

A

Virus

79
Q

Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?

Virus

Piron

Fungus

Bacteria

A

Bacteria

80
Q

Which one of the following describes the appearance of Varicella?

Koplik spots surrounded by a bright halo

Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over

Grouped vesicles that follow a dermatomal pattern

Condylomata acuminatum found on the soles of the feet

A

Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over

81
Q

Which one of the following skin diseases is a latent virus that travels along a sensory nerve and causes severe pain along the nerves distribution?

Rubella

Uticaria

Myxovirus

Herpes Zoster

A

Herpes Zoster

82
Q

Which one of the following conditions is described as a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis?

Acne conglobata

Basal cell carcinoma

Malignant melanoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Basal cell carcinoma

83
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding malignant melanoma is TRUE?

It is always found on the face.

It has a low risk for metastasis.

It is treatable with Massage Therapy.

It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.

A

It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.

84
Q

Which one of the following statements describes Psoriasis?

Chronic red rash

Acute self-limiting infection

Acute infective silvery scales

Chronic epidermal proliferation

A

Acute infective silvery scales

85
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning Rubeola is TRUE?

Rubeola is a form of skin cancer.

Rubeola is treated with light reflex manipulations .

Rubeola is the same disease as Rubella as they are caused by the myxovirus.

Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities

A

Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities

86
Q

What term would describe a palpable lesion caused by edema deep in the dermis with erythema, variable blanching and itchiness?

A wheal

A papule

A macule

A patch

A

A wheal

87
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

Heat

Redness

Swelling

Rapid onset

A

Rapid onset

88
Q

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?

Aplasia

Atrophy

Hypoplasia

Hypertrophy

A

Hypoplasia

89
Q

Which of the following events is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration?

Necrosis

Apotosis

Neoplasm

Cellular Swelling

A

Cellular Swelling

90
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?

Chronic inflammation is of a short duration

Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediators

A

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing

Module 8 (8 decks)

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