integumentary system Flashcards by Mic W

Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?

Fever and edema

Stiffness, heat and headache

Redness, swelling, edema and tingling

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

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Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?

Influx of histamine

Influx of red blood cells

Release of chemical mediators from the liver

Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed

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Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?

Stretching of the phagocytes

Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue

Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury

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Which cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?

Fixed cells

Stable cells

Labile cells

Permanent cells

Labile cells

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1 / 1 point
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?

Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process

Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates

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Which one of the following grades of injury indicates that a sprained ligament has ruptured but the bone is intact and uninjured?

Grade 1

Grade 2

Grade 3

Grade 4

Grade 3

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Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?

Sprained knee

Fall from a ladder

Muscular Dystrophy

Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident

Muscular Dystrophy

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Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?

Contusion

Laceration

Hematoma

Closed Fracture

Laceration

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Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?

Strain

Sprain

Fracture

Loose body

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Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?

Microflora

Parasitic flora

Mutualistic flora

Commensal flora

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Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?

The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.

A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.

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Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?

Systemic

Endemic

Epidemic

Pandemic

Epidemic

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Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?

Osteoma

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Chondromalacia

Osteoma

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Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?

Fracture

Thrombosis

Tuberculosis

Idiopathic Ischemia

Tuberculosis

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Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?

Osteoporosis

Osteomyelitis

Osteonecrosis

Osteosarcoma

Osteonecrosis

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Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?

Articular cartilage

Intrinsic ligaments

Extrinsic ligaments

Synovial membrane

Articular cartilage

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Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?

The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage.

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue.

Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes.

There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.

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Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?

Osteocytes

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Chondrocytes

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Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?

Sclerosis at the joint margins

Thickening of the subchondral bone

Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage

Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone

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Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?

Erosion of the periosteum

Extrinsic ligament fibrosis

Surface cracks in the cartilage

Eburnation of the subchondral bone

Surface cracks in the cartilage

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Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?

Osteophytes

Syndesmophytes

Pannus formation

Uric Acid crystallization

Osteophytes

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Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?

Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology.

Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA.

Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA.

Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.

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Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?

Tophi

Swan Neck Deformity

Boutonniere Deformity

Bouchard or Heberden Nodes

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Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia.

The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications.

Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.

Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.

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Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis? Knees Sacroiliac Metacarpalphalangeal First metatarsalphalangeal

Sacroiliac

Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis? Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms

Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis? Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue

Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE? The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage

Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes

Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout? The formation of Tophi The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes The formation of multiple swan neck deformities The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments

The formation of Tophi

Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome? Liver Heart Kidneys Large Intestine

Kidneys

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis? Fever and facial skin rash Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest

Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout? Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissu

Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus? Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Formation of asymptomatic tophi Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Multiple arthralgia and arthritis

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis? Multiple arthralgia and arthritis Formation of asymptomatic tophi Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints

Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity? Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Spondyloarthropathies Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Osteoarthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease? Gout Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA? Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

Gout

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Psoriatic Arthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus? Gout Psoriatic Arthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthropathies

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone? Gout Osteoarthritis Ankylosing Spondylitis Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints

Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers

1 / 1 point Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE? The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity. RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation

RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation

Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA? Pannus formation Osteophyte formation Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation

Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA? Bluge sign Baker's cyst Bouchard's nodes Occipital headaches

Bouchard's nodes

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum? Toeing-in Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Bowed legs

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus? Flat foot Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Flat foot

In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion? Tailor position Torsion position Cross leg position Straight leg position

Tailor position

Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum? Toeing-in Toeing-out Bowed legs Knock-knee

Knock-knee

Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum? Lax lateral collateral ligaments Lax medial collateral ligaments Weak anterior cruciate ligaments Weak posterior cruciate ligaments

Lax medial collateral ligaments

Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children? Curvature in the femoral body Curvature of the tibia and fibula Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles

Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip

Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children? Thickening of the subtalar joint Abnormal variations in knee rotation Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development

Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls? Tibial torsion Genu valgum Fibular torsion Femoral anteversion

Femoral anteversion

Which one of the following positions does NOT contribute to torsional deformities in children? Sleep positions Sitting positions Standing positions Intrauterine positions

Standing positions

Which one of the following statements describes pes planus? Abnormal variations in hip rotation. The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot. Accentuated fat pads on the plantar surface of the foot. Failure of all the holding elements of the lower leg and foot.

The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.

Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE? The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age. All children have pes planus when they begin to walk. Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA. True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.

Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.

Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta? Curvature in the femoral body Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms

Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen

Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta? Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles

Which one of the following series CORRECTLY describes the progression of events during osteochondroses? Growth center undergoes necrosis deformity and regeneration Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration and regeneration Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration, necrosis and regeneration

Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity

Which one of the following anatomical structures does Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease affect? Tibial tuberosity Distal femoral epiphysis Lesser tuberosity of femur Proximal femoral epiphysis

Proximal femoral epiphysis

Which one of the following anatomical structures does Osgood-Schlatter Disease affect? Tibial tuberosity Distal femoral epiphysis Lesser tuberosity of femur Proximal femoral epiphysis

Tibial tuberosity

Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates? Osteochondroses Osgood-Schlatter Disease Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Which one of the following positions of the hip prevents deformity during Legg-Calve Perthes disease? Adduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum Abduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum Adduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease? To prevent deformity in the distal tibia. To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head. To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone. To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.

Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease? To prevent deformity in the distal tibia. To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head. To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone. To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone

To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head

Which one of the following is NOT an etiology of Osteopenia? Osteoporosis Osteomalacia Osteonecrosis Malignancy of bone

Osteonecrosis

Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity? Invasive surgery shortly after birth Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia? Abnormal development of bone in-utero Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults

Which one of the following boney changes occurs in Osteoporosis? Soft bones Brittle bones Necrotic bones Tumorous bones

Brittle bones

Which one of the following is the treatment for Rickets? Removal of the affected intestine unable to absorb calcium A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D Sun exposure only as the body produces calcium and phosphorus Altering pancreatic enzymes responsible for the renal insufficiency

A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D

Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets? Abnormal development of bone in-utero Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

Which one of the following is the first manifestation of Osteoporosis? Skeletal fracture Severe bone pain Bone pain with fever Muscle weakness, bone pain and tenderness

Skeletal fracture

Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis? Age Hormone levels Phosphate levels Malabsorption disorders

Phosphate levels

which one of the following statements describes the Female Athlete Triad? A pathological drive to exercise A female athlete developing Osteoporosis, Rickets and Paget's disease A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise

A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis

Which one of the following processes is the accepted pathogenesis of Osteoporosis? Abnormal development of bone in-utero Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children

An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation

Which one of the following terms describes microbial infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship? Microflora Parasitic flora Mutualistic flora Commensal flora

Mutualistic flora

Which one of the following statements describes Virulence? The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth. Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism. Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material. A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system

Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.

Which one of the following microbes is an obligate intracellular pathogen? Virus Fungus Bacteria Eukaryote

Virus

Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms? Virus Piron Fungus Bacteria

Bacteria

Which one of the following describes the appearance of Varicella? Koplik spots surrounded by a bright halo Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over Grouped vesicles that follow a dermatomal pattern Condylomata acuminatum found on the soles of the feet

Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over

Which one of the following skin diseases is a latent virus that travels along a sensory nerve and causes severe pain along the nerves distribution? Rubella Uticaria Myxovirus Herpes Zoster

Herpes Zoster

Which one of the following conditions is described as a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis? Acne conglobata Basal cell carcinoma Malignant melanoma Squamous cell carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Which one of the following statements regarding malignant melanoma is TRUE? It is always found on the face. It has a low risk for metastasis. It is treatable with Massage Therapy. It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.

It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.

Which one of the following statements describes Psoriasis? Chronic red rash Acute self-limiting infection Acute infective silvery scales Chronic epidermal proliferation

Acute infective silvery scales

Which one of the following statements concerning Rubeola is TRUE? Rubeola is a form of skin cancer. Rubeola is treated with light reflex manipulations . Rubeola is the same disease as Rubella as they are caused by the myxovirus. Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities

Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities

What term would describe a palpable lesion caused by edema deep in the dermis with erythema, variable blanching and itchiness? A wheal A papule A macule A patch

A wheal

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation? Heat Redness Swelling Rapid onset

Rapid onset

Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number? Aplasia Atrophy Hypoplasia Hypertrophy

Hypoplasia

Which of the following events is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration? Necrosis Apotosis Neoplasm Cellular Swelling

Cellular Swelling

Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation? Chronic inflammation is of a short duration Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediators

Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing