integumentary system Flashcards
Which one of the following groups lists all the “cardinal signs” of inflammation?
Fever and edema
Stiffness, heat and headache
Redness, swelling, edema and tingling
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function
Which one of the following events is responsible for localizing the spread of infection at an injury site?
Influx of histamine
Influx of red blood cells
Release of chemical mediators from the liver
Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
Stagnation of flow and blood clotting at the capillary bed
Which one of the following statements regarding the vascular stage of inflammation is responsible for causing pain?
Stretching of the phagocytes
Pain fibers imbedded in the mast cells
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
The chemical breakdown of the infectious agent burning the local tissue
Fluid accumulating in the tissues surrounding the injury
Which cell types can divide and replicate throughout life and replace cells that turnover daily?
Fixed cells
Stable cells
Labile cells
Permanent cells
Labile cells
1 / 1 point
Which one of the following statements regarding wound healing is FALSE?
Vitamin A and C are critical to wound healing
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
Protein deficiency impairs fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis
Carbohydrates are used for energy by white blood cells and spare protein for the healing process
Malnutrition does not impact wound healing rates
Which one of the following grades of injury indicates that a sprained ligament has ruptured but the bone is intact and uninjured?
Grade 1
Grade 2
Grade 3
Grade 4
Grade 3
Which one of the following traumas is considered a disease rather than a physical agent that causes soft tissue damage?
Sprained knee
Fall from a ladder
Muscular Dystrophy
Femoral fracture due to a motor vehicle accident
Muscular Dystrophy
Which one of the following soft tissue injuries results in torn skin increasing the risk of infection?
Contusion
Laceration
Hematoma
Closed Fracture
Laceration
Which one of the following injuries is described as a small piece of bone or cartilage floating free in the joint space?
Strain
Sprain
Fracture
Loose body
Loose body
Which one of the following terms describes a microbial infection where the host is not adversely affected nor do they benefit from the relationship?
Microflora
Parasitic flora
Mutualistic flora
Commensal flora
Commensal flora
Which one of the following statements describes an opportunistic infection?
The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system.
Which one of the following terms describes the increase of disease that is abrupt and unexpected?
Systemic
Endemic
Epidemic
Pandemic
Epidemic
Which one of the following diseases is a bone tumor?
Osteoma
Osteomyelitis
Osteonecrosis
Chondromalacia
Osteoma
Which one of the following conditions is NOT an etiology of Osteonecrosis?
Fracture
Thrombosis
Tuberculosis
Idiopathic Ischemia
Tuberculosis
Which one of the following bone conditions results from the combination of calcium and fatty acids forming soap?
Osteoporosis
Osteomyelitis
Osteonecrosis
Osteosarcoma
Osteonecrosis
Which one of the following joint tissues is slowly destroyed by excessive wear and tear leading to the development of Osteoarthritis (OA)?
Articular cartilage
Intrinsic ligaments
Extrinsic ligaments
Synovial membrane
Articular cartilage
Which one of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) is FALSE?
The collagen network becomes weak predisposing it to damage.
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.
Early in the disease cartilage contains more water and less proteoglycans than healthy tissue.
Cytokines are produced in larger numbers impairing the normal healing ability of chondrocytes.
There is an abnormal immune response against the synovial membrane.
Which one of the following cells stops producing proteoglycans during the course of OA?
Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Chondrocytes
Which one of the following events during the pathogenesis of Osteoarthritis (OA) results in the formation of bone cysts?
Sclerosis at the joint margins
Thickening of the subchondral bone
Pressure from weight bearing on the subchondral bone instead of the cartilage
Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone
Synovial fluid leaking through erosions in the cartilage into the subchondral bone
Which one of the following processes during OA, is caused by the release of too many protease enzymes?
Erosion of the periosteum
Extrinsic ligament fibrosis
Surface cracks in the cartilage
Eburnation of the subchondral bone
Surface cracks in the cartilage
Which one of the following terms describes the bony outgrowths at the joint margins during OA?
Osteophytes
Syndesmophytes
Pannus formation
Uric Acid crystallization
Osteophytes
Which one of the following statements regarding Secondary OA is FALSE?
Secondary OA has a known underlying etiology.
Repetitive injury or impact on a joint leads to joint failure and eventually OA.
Immobilization can lead to degeneration of articular cartilage and eventually OA.
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
Impact exercise is necessary after immobilization to increase the pumping action of the joint to facilitate lubrication of the damaged cartilage.
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the fingers of persons with OA?
Tophi
Swan Neck Deformity
Boutonniere Deformity
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
Bouchard or Heberden Nodes
Which one of the following statements regarding arthritis in children is FALSE?
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
Children with SLE show global symptoms first including fever, malaise and anorexia.
The treatment of arthritis in children is similar to adults including high doses of medications.
Renal disease is more common in children with SLE and indicates the severity of the disease.
Children with arthritis will always grow to full adult height.
Which one of the following joints is primarily affected by Ankylosing spondylitis?
Knees
Sacroiliac
Metacarpalphalangeal
First metatarsalphalangeal
Sacroiliac
Which one of the following groups of symptoms indicates a child may have Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Heberden nodes on the fingers and hand pain
Renal disease, multiple organ failure and joint pain
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
Chronic low back pain for more than 3 months with no other symptoms
Fever, rash, synovitis, and swelling of the lymph and spleen
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue
Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissue
Which one of the following statements regarding Gout is FALSE?
The pathogenesis of gout is high levels of uric acid in the blood
Uric acid is the normal end product of DNA and RNA metabolism
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
The crystals lead to inflammation and physical destruction of the synovium and cartilage
Repeated attacks of gout are asymptomatic and lead to very minor joint changes
Which one of the following pathological changes occurs in the joints of person affected by chronic Gout?
The formation of Tophi
The formation of Bouchard or Heberden nodes
The formation of multiple swan neck deformities
The minor thickening of the synovium and extrinsic ligaments
The formation of Tophi
Which one of the following organs is affected by Gout Syndrome?
Liver
Heart
Kidneys
Large Intestine
Kidneys
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Osteoarthritis?
Fever and facial skin rash
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Which one of the following events triggers an attack of Gout?
Abnormal immune response in ligamentous tissue
Imbalance in the formation of proteoglycans and enzymes forming cracks in cartilage
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Systemic blood infection triggering an aberrant immune response in synovial membrane tissu
Precipitation of monosodium urate crystals out of the synovial fluid triggering inflammation
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Formation of asymptomatic tophi
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in the early stages of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Multiple arthralgia and arthritis
Formation of asymptomatic tophi
Aching joints during activity and relieved by rest
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Fatigue, anorexia, general aching and stiffness of joints
Which one of the following arthritic conditions does NOT involve a disorder of immunity?
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Spondyloarthropathies
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Osteoarthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is an autoimmune disease?
Gout
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following drug treatments is NOT used to treat RA?
Steroids to interrupt normal inflammation and immunity
Inhibitors of normal T-cell function and purine metabolism
Anti-inflammatories that cause gastric bleeding and kidney damage
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
Protyoglycans like glucosamine to repair cartilage and synovium damage
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is a metabolic disease?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
Gout
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is directly related to a skin disease?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Psoriatic Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions develops destructive vascular granulation tissue known as Pannus?
Gout
Psoriatic Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Reactive arthropathies
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which one of the following arthritic conditions is more common in men and produces unique inflammation where tendons and ligaments attach to bone?
Gout
Osteoarthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Which one of the following findings indicates the early presence of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the hips
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the great toe
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the sacroiliac joints
Bilateral arthritic involvement of the fingers
1 / 1 point
Which one of the following statements regarding Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is FALSE?
The unique formation of pannus leads to ankylosis of the affected joints
In later stages of the disease, normal daily activity may cause joint deformity.
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
The massive inflammatory destruction of soft tissues leads to joint instability and subluxation
RA is a mild joint disease indicated by a butterfly rash and soft tissue inflammation
Which one of the following processes is caused by progressive swelling and thickening of the synovium in RA?
Pannus formation
Osteophyte formation
Deep fissures and cracks in the cartilage leading to bony cysts
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
Stretching of the ligaments and joint capsule resulting in joint deformity and subluxation
Which one of the following signs and/or symptoms indicates late stage OA rather than RA?
Bluge sign
Baker’s cyst
Bouchard’s nodes
Occipital headaches
Bouchard’s nodes
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu varum?
Toeing-in
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Bowed legs
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Pes Planus?
Flat foot
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Flat foot
In which one of the following positions does a child sit when they have femoral anteversion?
Tailor position
Torsion position
Cross leg position
Straight leg position
Tailor position
Which one of the following terms describes the pattern of altered alignment known as Genu valgum?
Toeing-in
Toeing-out
Bowed legs
Knock-knee
Knock-knee
Which one of the following soft tissue laxities is the cause of Genu valgum?
Lax lateral collateral ligaments
Lax medial collateral ligaments
Weak anterior cruciate ligaments
Weak posterior cruciate ligaments
Lax medial collateral ligaments
Which one of the following abnormalities causes femoral torsion in children?
Curvature in the femoral body
Curvature of the tibia and fibula
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
Abnormal alignment of the femoral condyles on the tibial condyles
Increased laxity of the anterior capsule of the hip
Which one of the following abnormalities causes toeing-in due to adduction of the forefoot in children?
Thickening of the subtalar joint
Abnormal variations in knee rotation
Abnormal alignment of the calcaneus on the talus
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
Abnormal intrauterine position during fetal development
Which one of the following types of torsion is normal in the first 6 years of life and commonly seen in girls?
Tibial torsion
Genu valgum
Fibular torsion
Femoral anteversion
Femoral anteversion
Which one of the following positions does NOT contribute to torsional deformities in children?
Sleep positions
Sitting positions
Standing positions
Intrauterine positions
Standing positions
Which one of the following statements describes pes planus?
Abnormal variations in hip rotation.
The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.
Accentuated fat pads on the plantar surface of the foot.
Failure of all the holding elements of the lower leg and foot.
The absence of the longitudinal arch of the foot.
Which one of the following statements regarding pes planus is FALSE?
The longitudinal arch develops at 2 to 3 years of age.
All children have pes planus when they begin to walk.
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
True pes planus occurs when the head of the talus points medially and downward.
Supple pes planus is the result of tight heel cords, cerebral palsy or Juvenile RA.
Which one of the following is the etiology of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Curvature in the femoral body
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
Loss of calcium and bone mineral stores
Failure of the vitamin D and calcium uptake mechanisms
Defective synthesis of type 1 collagen
Which one of the following groups of symptoms is found in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Short stature, thick skin, malformed hips
Difficulty walking with pain in the groin, thigh or knee
Head of the talus points medially and downward creating toeing in
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
Short stature, soft tin cranium, blue sclera, abnormal tooth development, hypotonic muscles
Which one of the following series CORRECTLY describes the progression of events during osteochondroses?
Growth center undergoes necrosis deformity and regeneration
Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration and regeneration
Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity
Growth center undergoes deformity, degeneration, necrosis and regeneration
Growth center undergoes degeneration, necrosis, regeneration and deformity
Which one of the following anatomical structures does Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease affect?
Tibial tuberosity
Distal femoral epiphysis
Lesser tuberosity of femur
Proximal femoral epiphysis
Proximal femoral epiphysis
Which one of the following anatomical structures does Osgood-Schlatter Disease affect?
Tibial tuberosity
Distal femoral epiphysis
Lesser tuberosity of femur
Proximal femoral epiphysis
Tibial tuberosity
Which one of the following is a disorder of the growth plates?
Osteochondroses
Osgood-Schlatter Disease
Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
Which one of the following positions of the hip prevents deformity during Legg-Calve Perthes disease?
Adduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Abduction with external rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Adduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Abduction with mild internal rotation of the hip in the acetabulum
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Osgood-Schlatter Disease?
To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone.
Which one of the following is the objective in treating Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?
To prevent deformity in the distal tibia.
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head.
To release chemical mediators to permit revascularization of the bone.
To release tension in the quadriceps to permit revascularization of the bone
To prevent deformity and maintain function of the femoral head
Which one of the following is NOT an etiology of Osteopenia?
Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Osteonecrosis
Malignancy of bone
Osteonecrosis
Which one of the following treatments is used to correct Club Foot Deformity?
Invasive surgery shortly after birth
Surgical casting immediately following aggressive manipulations
Medical intervention is not possible as the deformity is permanent
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
On-going manipulations and casting to hold each change to gently alter the portions of the foot
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Osteomalacia?
Abnormal development of bone in-utero
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
Which one of the following boney changes occurs in Osteoporosis?
Soft bones
Brittle bones
Necrotic bones
Tumorous bones
Brittle bones
Which one of the following is the treatment for Rickets?
Removal of the affected intestine unable to absorb calcium
A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D
Sun exposure only as the body produces calcium and phosphorus
Altering pancreatic enzymes responsible for the renal insufficiency
A balanced diet sufficient in calcium, phosphorus and vitamin D
Which one of the following processes is the etiology of Rickets?
Abnormal development of bone in-utero
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
Which one of the following is the first manifestation of Osteoporosis?
Skeletal fracture
Severe bone pain
Bone pain with fever
Muscle weakness, bone pain and tenderness
Skeletal fracture
Which one of the following is NOT a factor in the development of Osteoporosis?
Age
Hormone levels
Phosphate levels
Malabsorption disorders
Phosphate levels
which one of the following statements describes the Female Athlete Triad?
A pathological drive to exercise
A female athlete developing Osteoporosis, Rickets and Paget’s disease
A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis
The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise
The development of an increased need for Vitamin D, calcium and estrogen due to exercise
A disorder pattern of eating that leads to amenorrhea and osteoporosis
Which one of the following processes is the accepted pathogenesis of Osteoporosis?
Abnormal development of bone in-utero
Calcium and phosphate deficiency in adults
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Inadequate calcium absorption, impaired mineralization of bone and vitamin D deficiency in children
An imbalance that allows bone resorption to exceed bone formation
Which one of the following terms describes microbial infection when both the host and the infecting organism benefit from the relationship?
Microflora
Parasitic flora
Mutualistic flora
Commensal flora
Mutualistic flora
Which one of the following statements describes Virulence?
The ability of a human tissue to support microbial growth.
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Free living organisms that digest decaying organic material.
A pathological infection resulting from a weakened immune system
Disease producing potential of the invading microorganism.
Which one of the following microbes is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
Virus
Fungus
Bacteria
Eukaryote
Virus
Which one of the following microbes is capable of living outside the human host and forms large communities called biofilms?
Virus
Piron
Fungus
Bacteria
Bacteria
Which one of the following describes the appearance of Varicella?
Koplik spots surrounded by a bright halo
Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over
Grouped vesicles that follow a dermatomal pattern
Condylomata acuminatum found on the soles of the feet
Raised red vesicles that later dry and crust over
Which one of the following skin diseases is a latent virus that travels along a sensory nerve and causes severe pain along the nerves distribution?
Rubella
Uticaria
Myxovirus
Herpes Zoster
Herpes Zoster
Which one of the following conditions is described as a neoplasm of the non-keratinized cells of the basal layer of the epidermis?
Acne conglobata
Basal cell carcinoma
Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Which one of the following statements regarding malignant melanoma is TRUE?
It is always found on the face.
It has a low risk for metastasis.
It is treatable with Massage Therapy.
It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.
It begins as a variable coloured irregular bordered nevi or mole.
Which one of the following statements describes Psoriasis?
Chronic red rash
Acute self-limiting infection
Acute infective silvery scales
Chronic epidermal proliferation
Acute infective silvery scales
Which one of the following statements concerning Rubeola is TRUE?
Rubeola is a form of skin cancer.
Rubeola is treated with light reflex manipulations .
Rubeola is the same disease as Rubella as they are caused by the myxovirus.
Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities
Rubeola appears as a rash that starts from the face and moves to the extremities
What term would describe a palpable lesion caused by edema deep in the dermis with erythema, variable blanching and itchiness?
A wheal
A papule
A macule
A patch
A wheal
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
Heat
Redness
Swelling
Rapid onset
Rapid onset
Which of the following types of adaptation describes a decrease in cell number?
Aplasia
Atrophy
Hypoplasia
Hypertrophy
Hypoplasia
Which of the following events is a form of reversible cell injury/alteration?
Necrosis
Apotosis
Neoplasm
Cellular Swelling
Cellular Swelling
Which of the following is TRUE of inflammation?
Chronic inflammation is of a short duration
Acute inflammation is abnormal with excessive tissue proliferation
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
Acute inflammation is unpredictable and variable while chronic inflammation is well controlled by chemical mediators
Chronic inflammation is long term and a consequence of poor healing
