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Module 8 > Gastrointestinal AP mock > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal AP mock Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following structures is considered to be an accessory digestive organ?

Stomach
Esophagus
Gall Bladder
Pharynx

A

C

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2
Q

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange the layers in order from the lumen.
Incorrect Response
Serosa  mucosa  submucosa  muscularis externa
Submucosa  serosa  muscularis externa  mucosa
Muscularis externa  serosa  mucosa  submucosa
Mucosa  submucosa  muscularis externa  serosa

A

Mucosa  submucosa  muscularis externa  serosa

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the Lesser Omentum?

Attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm
Suspends the stomach and duodenum to the liver
Descends from the stomach and drapes over the transverse colon and the small intestine
Double layered membranous structure that folds back on itself

A

Suspends the stomach and duodenum to the liver

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4
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?

There are 27 permanent teeth

The number of permanent teeth is always equal to the number of primary teeth

There are 32 permanent teeth and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge

The number of maxillary permanent teeth is not equal to the number of mandibular permanent teeth

A

There are 32 permanent teeth and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge

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5
Q

Which one of the following peritoneal folds binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall?

Greater omentum
Lesser omentum
Incorrect Response
Falciform ligament
Mesentery

A

Mesentery

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6
Q

Which of the following describes the location of the parotid salivary gland?

Anterior to the submandibular gland under the tongue

The medial aspect of the mandibular body

Superior to the submandidular gland and on either side of the lingual frenulum

Anterior to the ear between the masseter muscle and overlying skin

A

Anterior to the ear between the masseter muscle and overlying skin

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7
Q

The process of salivation is controlled by the:

Sympathetic Nervous System

Parasympathetic Nervous System

Enteric Nervous System

Both A and B

A

Both A and B

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8
Q

Active proton pumps and the formation of certain compounds are essential during the chemical digestion process in the stomach. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in regards to this process?

Parietal cells are responsible for secreting H+ and Cl- separately into the lumen of the stomach

Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyzes the formation of HCl in the luman of the stomach

Cl- and K+ can passively diffuse into the lumen of the stomach

Bicarbonate (HCO3-) exchanges for Cl- and enters blood capillaries

A

Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyzes the formation of HCl in the luman of the stomach

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9
Q

Which of the four basic layers is NOT found in the Esophagus?

Mucosa

Serosa

Adventitia

Submucosa

A

Serosa

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10
Q

Which of the following stimulates the cephalic phase of digestion?

The arrival of food in the stomach

The arrival of food in the small intestine

The smell, sight, and taste of food

The passage of through the large intestine

A

The smell, sight, and taste of food

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11
Q

Which of the following exocrine gland cells secretes the digestive enzyme pepsinogen?

Goblet cells of the small intestine

Parietal cells of the duodenum

Mucous neck cells of the esophagus

Chief cells of the stomach

A

Chief cells of the stomach

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12
Q

Chyme is created in which of the following structures?

Mouth

Esophagus

Stomach

Small intestine

A

Stomach

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13
Q

Which of the following correctly describes peristalsis?

Churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract

Waves of muscular contraction that propel contents from one point to another

The different regions of the small and large intestine

The movements of the tongue that occur during the mastication of food particles

A

Waves of muscular contraction that propel contents from one point to another

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14
Q

Salivary amylase is an important digestive enzyme in the body. Initially, it is secreted in the oral cavity, but can remain active only under specific conditions. Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to salivary amylase?

Salivary amylase can be effective in the fundus if it does not mix with gastric acid

Salivary amylase is only active in the stomach when the bolus converts to chyme

Salivary amylase is responsible for the digestion of triglycerides

Gastric juices can easily activate salivary amylase and inactive lingual lipase

A

Salivary amylase can be effective in the fundus if it does not mix with gastric acid

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15
Q

There are three histological features that increase the surface area in the small intestine. Which of the following consists of a brush border with enzymes that extends into the lumen of the small intestine?

Circular folds

Microvilli

Villi

Intestinal glands

A

Microvilli

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16
Q

The completion of the digestion process involves the collective effort of pancreatic juices, intestinal juices, and bile into the small intestine. Which of the following substances is digested from salivary and pancreatic amylase?

Digestion of Proteins

Digestion of Carbohydrates

Digestion of Lipids

Digestion of Nucleotides

A

Digestion of Carbohydrates

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17
Q

The iliocecal valve is correctly described as:

The opening from the ileum to the large intestine

The opening from the pharynx to the esophagus

The opening from duodenum to the ileum

The opening from the stomach to the gall bladder

A

The opening from the ileum to the large intestine

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18
Q

The defecation reflex in the large intestine ultimately involves the emptying of the rectum. Arrange the following sequences in order from the stimulus that activates this reflex. I. Sensory nerve impulses to sacral spinal cord; II. Contractions of rectal, diaphragm, and abdominal muscles; III. Distension in rectal wall;IV. Opens anal sphincter; V. Motor responses back to the colon

III, I, V, II, IV

III, I, II, V, IV

II, III, I, V, IV

II, I, III, IV, V

A

III, I, II, V, IV

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19
Q

Which of the following ligaments assists in suspending the liver in the abdominal cavity?

Ligamentum teres

Falciform ligament

Hepatic ligament

Hepatobiliary ligament

A

Falciform ligament

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to liver anatomy and physiology?

Both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood enter the hepatic sinusoids

Blood and bile flow in parallel direction

The hepatic vein drains into the inferior vena cava

Kupffer cells are phagocytes within the hepatic sinusoids

A

Blood and bile flow in parallel direction

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21
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the ducts of the liver and gall bladder?

Hepatic duct joins the cystic duct to form the common bile duct

The right and left hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct

The common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct to form the hepatopancreatic duct or ampulla

The cystic duct joins the hepatopancreatic duct to form the cystopancreatic duct

A

The cystic duct joins the hepatopancreatic duct to form the cystopancreatic duct

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22
Q

Hepatocytes are responsible for producing bile and excreting it into the small intestine. Arrange the following structure in sequence with respect to the passageway for bile into the small intestine. Start with the Bile canaliculi; I. Common hepatic duct; II. Bile ducts; III. Right and left bile ducts; IV. Common bile duct

I, II, III, IV

II, III, I, IV

II, III, IV, I

II, I, III, IV

A

II, III, I, IV

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23
Q

Ingestion of a meal high in fat would result in which one of the following?

The acid secretions from the stomach would be enough to digest this food

Bile would be released by the gall bladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum

This type of food would cause gastric secretion to cease, causing digestive upset

Severe indigestion would occur, mainly because of the significant lack of digestive enzymes

A

Bile would be released by the gall bladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum

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24
Q

Which one of the following does NOT serve as a duct through which pancreatic amylase arrives at the small intestine?

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

Accessory pancreatic duct

Cystic duct

Main pancreatic duc

A

Cystic duct

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25
Q

What is Dysphagia?

Inadequate absorption

Loss of the desire to eat

Difficulty or inability to swallow

Failure of esophageal sphincter relaxation

A

Difficulty or inability to swallow

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26
Q

What is gastroesophageal reflux?

Poor esophageal peristalsis

Excessive stomach contraction

Enlarged and hyperactive lower esophageal sphincter

Reflux of stomach acids contents into the esophagus

A

Reflux of stomach acids contents into the esophagus

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27
Q

Why is Helicobacter pylorus a common cause of most chronic gastritis?

Produces decreased inflammation

Produces enzymes that interfere with gastric acidity

Colonization can occurring easily since they are very immobile

All of the above

A

produces enzymes that interfere with gastric acidity

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28
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding Peptic Ulcers is CORRECT?

Women are most commonly affected than men

More commonly found in the duodenum

Typically, pain is not relieved by food or antacids

Usually results from genetic predisposition and stress

A

More commonly found in the duodenum

29
Q

Which one of the following is associated with Crohn’s disease?

Inflammation of the duodenum

Presence of skip lesions with cobblestone appearance

Blockage of the blood flow to the distal ileum

Inflammatory process tends to be continuous

A

Presence of skip lesions with cobblestone appearance

30
Q

What symptom occurs when bilirubin builds up in the blood stream?

Jaundice

Cirrhosis

Crohn’s Disease

No symptoms

A

Jaundice

31
Q

Which Viral Hepatitis strain is contracted primarily through the fecal-oral route (ie. contaminated drinking water)?

Hepatitis A

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis C

Hepatitis D

A

Hepatitis A

32
Q

Which of the following diseases is commonly known as gallstones?

Cholangitis

Cholecystitis

Cholelithiasis

Choledocholithiasis

A

Cholelithiasis

33
Q

Which of the following membranous linings covers organ structures?

Visceral Peritoneum

Parietal Peritoneum

Serosa layer

Both A and C

A

Both A and C

34
Q

Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

Salivary glands

Esophagus

Tongue

Nasal cavity

A

tongue

35
Q

The muscle layer found in the Esophagus is divided into thirds based on muscle composition. Which of the following options contains skeletal muscle?

Superior and middle thirds of the Esophagus

Inferior and middle thirds of the Esophagus

Superior third of the Esophagus

None. There is no skeletal muscle present

A

Superior and middle thirds of the Esophagus

36
Q

hich of the following statements in regards to the anatomy and physiology of the stomach is INCORRECT?

Unlike other structures in the GI tract, the stomach consists of 3 layers of smooth muscle

There is less peristaltic movement in the fundus in comparison to the pylorus

The stomach initiates and completes the digestion of starch

There are distinct cells in the stomach responsible for either endocrine and exocrine function

A

The stomach initiates and completes the digestion of starch

37
Q

What is the name of the portion of peritoneum resembling a fatty apron draped over the viscera?

The mesentery

The mesocolon

The lesser omentum

The greater omentum

A

The greater omentum

38
Q

The structure that separates the stomach from the small intestine is called the:

Lower esophageal sphincter

Pyloric sphincter

Anal sphincter

Oral sphincter

A

Pyloric sphincter

39
Q

What is the process that uses amphipathic bile salts to breakdown large lipid globules into several small lipid globules?

Emulsification

Enterohypatic circulation

Bilirubin formation

Lipidolysis

A

Emulsification

40
Q

What is the name of the terminal portion of the small intestine?

Ileum

Duodenum

Jejunum

Ilium

A

Ileum

41
Q

Which of the following organs is not considered to be Retroperitoneal?

Pancreas

Rectum

Spleen

Kidneys

A

Spleen

42
Q

What is the function of the hepatic portal circulation?

To distribute hormones

To collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

To return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

To carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary trac

A

To collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

43
Q

Most dietary carbohydrates can be digested and absorbed. Which of the following are considered to be indigestible?

Monosaccarides

Disaccarides

Glucose

Cellulose

A

Cellulose

44
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT associated in the portal triad?

Hepatic artery

Bile duct

Portal vein

Hepatic vein

A

Hepatic vein

45
Q

Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is TRUE?

It can be defined as all the chemical reactions occurring in the body

Catabolism is the process by which simple molecules are built up into larger molecules

Anabolism is the conversion of proteins into amino acids

Lipids are the only components in the body that are catabolized

A

It can be defined as all the chemical reactions occurring in the body

46
Q

Phosphorylation is defined as:

The addition of phosphate to a molecule

A reduction in a molecule’s potential energy

The removal of phosphate from a molecule

Breaking ATP into ADP + Pi

A

The addition of phosphate to a molecule

47
Q

With the exception in the gastrointestinal tract, how does glucose move into most body cells?

Via simple diffusion through the plasma membrane

Via facilitated diffusion

Via the sodium-potassium pump

Via active transport

A

Via facilitated diffusion

48
Q

Glycolysis occurs in the _____________ while the Krebs cycle occurs in the ____________

Plasma membrane; cytosol

Ribosomes; nucleus

Cytosol; mitochondria

Golgi apparatus; smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Cytosol; mitochondria

49
Q

Which one of the following metabolic pathways converts Acetyl CoA into CO2, ATP, NADH and FADH2?

Glycolysis

Krebs cycle

Beta oxidation

Electron transport chain

A

Krebs cycle

50
Q

Which of the following correctly identifies the fate of pyruvic acid?

Lactic Acid and Acetyl CoA

Oxygen and glucose

Lactic Acid and glucose

Oxygen and Acetyl CoA

A

Lactic Acid and Acetyl CoA

51
Q

Which of the following reactions will occur if the body requires ATP and stored glycogen is readily available?

Glycolysis

Glycogenesis

Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis

A

Glycogenolysis

52
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT stimulate gluconeogenesis?

Cortisol

Glucagon

Insulin

Both A and B

A

Insulin

53
Q

Which one of the following lipoproteins prevents accumulation of cholesterol in the blood and is considered to be “good cholesterol”?

Chylomicrons

HDL

LDL

VLDL

A

HDL

54
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT in regards to the glycogen breakdown pathways found in skeletal muscle and the liver?

In skeletal muscle, glycogen converts to a product from glycolysis (glucose 6-phophate), which then converts to pyuvic acid.

In skeletal muscle, an absent enzyme prevents the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

Hepatocytes in the liver are able to convert glycogen into glucose that can be transported.

All of the above

A

All of the above

55
Q

What is the correct definition of deamination?

The process of removing an amino group (NH2) from an amino acid

The process of adding an amino group (NH2) from an amino acid

The production of toxic ammonia in the kidneys

The conversion of amino acids into fatty acids

A

The process of removing an amino group (NH2) from an amino acid

56
Q

Which one of the following is a primary function for carbohydrates?

Bulk up stool

Build body proteins

To provide fuel for energy

To be stored as fat for warmth

A

To provide fuel for energy

57
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT with respect to metabolic adaptation in the Post-absorptive state?

Glucose is readily available for ATP production

The effects of insulin from the pancreas dominates

Energy needs must be met by fuels already in the body

Typically occurs during with ingested nutrients are entering the blood stream

A

Energy needs must be met by fuels already in the body

58
Q

The main metabolic challenge during the postabsorptive state is to maintain normal blood glucose levels. Which of the following systems are constantly in need of glucose for ATP production?

Nervous and Endocrine systems

Nervous and Cardiovascular systems

Nervous and Gastrointestinal systems

Nervous system

A

Nervous and Cardiovascular systems

59
Q

In a fasted state, which of the following WILL NOT occur?

Glycogenolysis increases

Gluconeogenesis increases

Decrease in glycogen synthesis

Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies

A

Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies

60
Q

Which of the following terms transfers heat by movement of a gas or liquid?

Conduction

Convection

Radiation

Evaporation

A

Convection

61
Q

What is meant by the term hypervitaminosis?

Inadequate dietary intake of fats and proteins

Excessive intake of vitamin B and C only

Excessive intake of iron and calcium intake

Dietary intake of a vitamin that exceeds the ability of the body to utilize, store, or excrete the vitamin

A

Dietary intake of a vitamin that exceeds the ability of the body to utilize, store, or excrete the vitamin

62
Q

Antioxidant vitamins have the ability to inactivate oxygen free radicals and protect the body against some types of cancers. Which vitamins is considered to be an antioxidant?

Vitamin D

Vitamin A

Vitamin C

Vitamin K

A

Vitamin C

63
Q

Which vitamin is considered to be a coenzyme necessary for red blood cell production?

Vitamin A

Vitamin B12

Vitamin C

Vitamin K

A

Vitamin B12

64
Q

A deficiency or disorder of this vitamin can potentially lead to night blindness or decreased ability for dark adaptation.

Vitamin A

Vitamin B12

Vitamin D

Vitamin K

A

Vitamin A

65
Q

Vegetables, wheat, and grains are an example of what type of fiber

Saturated fiber

Soluble fiber

Insoluble fiber

Both B and C

A

Insoluble fiber

66
Q

Which one of the following nutrients helps to prevent blood clots and thereby reduces the risk of heart disease?

Calcium

Vitamin E

Omega - 3 fat

Monounsaturated fat

A

Omega - 3 fat

67
Q

Which one of the following servings does Canada’s Food Guide suggest for daily fruits and vegetables?

1-2 servings

2-4 servings

7-10 servings

9-15 servings

A

7-10 servings

68
Q

Which one of the following processes occurs when sugar or grains are refined?

Nutrient content increases

Processing reduces the calories

Incidence of cancer and diabetes increases

Glycemic index decreases decreasing cancer risk

A

Incidence of cancer and diabetes increases

69
Q

Which one of the following nutritional changes is recommended to pregnant Canadian women?

To reduce alcohol intake to one drink a day during pregnancy

To take a folic acid supplement prior to and during pregnancy

To reduce water intake as a means of reducing swelling during pregnancy

To reduce cigarette smoking during pregnancy and sit at least 3 feet away from some else that is smoking

A

To take a folic acid supplement prior to and during pregnancy

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