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PTHO > ✅Patho-Heart > Flashcards

✅Patho-Heart Flashcards

1
Q

Natriuretic peptide in the ventricles

A

Type B and C

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2
Q

Sound that corresponds to the closure of the semilunar valves

A

S2

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3
Q

S3 is due to

A

Sudden rush of blood in overloaded ventricles

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4
Q

s3 is physiologic in

A

Children and young adults

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5
Q

S3 is pathologic for people

A

40 and above

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6
Q

S4 is due to

A

Noncompliant ventricles

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7
Q

Heart sounds that is always pathologic

A

S4

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8
Q

Earliest symptom in left sided heart failure

A

Dyspnea

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9
Q

Perihilar congestion in Left sided HF

A

Bat wing configuration

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10
Q

Prominent heart sound in left sided heart failure

A

Prominent left sided S3

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11
Q

Nutmeg liver is found in

A

R sided HF

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12
Q

Causes of high output failure

A

Beriberi
Anemia
Hyperthyroidism
AV Fistula

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13
Q

Most important in determining the severity of TOF

A

Pulmonic stenosis

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14
Q

Percent of all childbirths with Congenital heart disease

A

1%

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15
Q

Most common genetic risk for CHD

A

Down syndrome

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16
Q

Most common cyanotic CHD

A

TOF

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17
Q

2 forms of TOF

A

As determined by the degree of subpulmonic stenosis

Mild form - Pink TOF
Sever form - Classic TOF

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18
Q

TGA is associated with offsprings of

A

Diabetic mothers

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19
Q

Cyanotic heart disease with VSD as primary shunts

A

Truncus 1
Tetralogy 4

TGA but only 35 percent

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20
Q

ASD/PFO/ PDA shunt in cyanotic heart diseases

A

TGA but have vsd in 35 %
Tricuspid atresia 3
TAPVR 5

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21
Q

Most common variant of TAPVR

A

Supracardiac variant that drains to brachiocephalic vein

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22
Q

ASD associated with downs

A

Primum

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23
Q

3 types of ASD

A

Secundum 90%
Primum 5%
Sinus venosus 5%

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24
Q

Most common adult CHD

A

ASD

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25
Q

Most common CHD

A

VSD

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26
Q

Multiple VSDs maye be seen in the _______ and is called

A

Muscular septum

Swiss cheese septum

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27
Q

Types of VSD

Which one is most common?

A

Membranous 90%

Infundibular
Ventricular septum

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28
Q

Percentage of VSDs that will close spontaneously

A

50

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29
Q

Surgicl correction of VSD should be done at

A

1 year of age

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30
Q

2 forms of AVSD

A

Partial

Complete

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31
Q

2 types of coarctation of the aorta

A

Infantile

Adult

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32
Q

Turner’s syndrome is associated with which CHD

A

Infantile coarctation of the aorta

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33
Q

CHD in congenital rubella syndrome

A

PDA

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34
Q

Cardiac defects in marfan

A

MVP

Aortic dissection

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35
Q

Prinzmetal angina is caused by

A

Vasoconstriction due to TXA2 or increased endothelin

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36
Q

Other name for unstable angina

A

CRESCENDO angina

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37
Q

Primary pharmacologic drug for prinzmetal angina

A

CCB

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38
Q

Sudden cardiac death is defined as

A

Death within 1 hr of cardiac symptoms

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39
Q

Sudden cardiac death is due to

A

Arrythmia

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40
Q

Sudden cardiac death usually occurs at what time of the day

A

Early morning (highest level of stress hormones)

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41
Q

Inherited long QT syndrome that can cause sudden cardiac death

A

Romano ward syndrome

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42
Q

What medications are contraindicated in

A

Inferior wall MI

43
Q

Pain med usually given in MI

A

Morphine

44
Q

Types of MI

A

Q wave infarction/ST elevation

Non Q wave infarction/ ST depression

45
Q

Heart layers involved in ST elevation MI

A

Transmural

46
Q

Heart layers involved in st depression MI

A

Subendocardial/partial thickness

47
Q

MI affects which top 3 blood vessels

A

LAD
RCA
LCX

48
Q

Gross changes in MI

A

Mottling 4 hrs
Bright yellow 1 week
Surrounding red granulation tissue 2 weeks
Gray white scar 2 months

49
Q

Coagulation necrosis in MI happen in how many hrs?

A

4-12 hrs

50
Q

Changes during coag necrosis in MI

A

Wavy fibers

Myctolysis

51
Q

Gross changes in MI can be seen after

A

12 hrs

52
Q

Acute inflammation (neutrophils is most prominent at

A

Day 1-day 3

53
Q

Macrophage invasion and the day where the heart is softest is on

A

Day 3

54
Q

Granulation tissue in MI can be seen in

A

1-2 weeks

55
Q

What time frame are the ff events in MI reperfusion seen?

Completely salvageable
Partially salvageable
No reduction in MI size

A

Before 20 mins
3-6 hrs after
More than 6 hrs

56
Q

Myocardial rupture in MI usually happens to those with

A

Virgin MI

57
Q

What drugs are given in MI to affect ventricular remodeling?

A

Ace inhibitors

58
Q

Secondary form of pericarditis that occurs after MI

A

Dressler syndrome

59
Q

Triad of dressler’s syndrome

A

Fever
Pleuritic pain
Pericarditis/pericardial effusion

60
Q

Cardiac enzyme that can diagnose reinfarction

A

CKMB

61
Q

Weight of the heart

A

300-350g (50g less in females)

62
Q

Failure to open completely and prevents forward flow

A

Stenosis

63
Q

Failure to close completely and allows reversed flow

A

Regurgitation

64
Q

Opening snap, RHD, diastolic rumble, AF, accentuated S2, diastolic rumble

A

Mitral stenosis

65
Q

Murmur associated with pulmonary regurgitation? Aortic regurgitation?

A

Graham steel murmur

Austin flint murmur

66
Q

Pulsating nail bed with elevation of the nail

A

Quincke’s pulse

67
Q

Systolic pulsation of the uvula

A

Mueller’s sign

68
Q

Femoral retrograde bruits

A

Durosier’s sign

69
Q

Pistol shot femorals

A

Traube’s sign

70
Q

BP LE> BP UE

A

Hill’s sign

71
Q

Onset of symptoms in RF after infection

A

2-3 weeks

72
Q

Major manifestations in Jones criteria

A 
Migratory polyarthritis
Carditis
Subcutaneous nodules
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea
73
Q

Minor manifestations in RF

A

Fever, arthralgia, elevated acute phase reactants

74
Q

What valvular disease is seen in RF as compared to RHD?

A

Rf mitral regurgitation

Rhd mitral stenosis

75
Q

Dx of RF based on criteria

A

2 major

1 major 2 minor

76
Q

Morphology of RF and RHD

A

Aschoff bodies found in ALL layers

Anitschow cells

77
Q

What are anitschow cells

A

Macrophages or histiocytes containing abundant cytoplasm, round nuclei with slender, wavy ribbons of chromatin found in RHD

78
Q

Irregular thickenings of the endocardium in RHD

A

Maccallum plaques

79
Q

Usual bacteria in IE

A

S viridans

80
Q

Etiology of IE in IV drug users

A

S aureus

81
Q

Etiology of IE in people with prosthetic cardiac valves

A

S epidermidis

82
Q

Etiology of IE in people with GI or GU surgery

A

S bovis

83
Q

Most common sx in IE

A

Fever

84
Q

Most common lab finding in IE

A

Anemia

85
Q

Other name for nonbacterial theombotic endocarditis

A

Marantic endocarditis

86
Q

Septic emboli that lodged in extremities in IE. Painless

A

Janeway lesions

87
Q

Findings in IE

A

Bacteria FROM JANE

Fever
Roth spots
Osler nodes
Murmur
Janeway lesions
Anemia
Nail bed hemorrhage
Emboli
88
Q

vegetation assoc with SLE

A

Libman sacks disease

89
Q

Vegetation in libman sacks may contain

A

Hematoxylin bodies

90
Q

Small warty vegetations along the lines of closure of valve leaflets usually assoc with

A

Rhd

91
Q

Large irregular masses on valve cusps that can extend to the chordaw is found in

A

IE

92
Q

Cardiomyopathy is diagnosed using a

A

Bioptome

93
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Abcccd

Alcohol
Beriberi
Chagas
Coxsackie B
Cocoaine
Doxorubicin
94
Q

Most common infectious cause of myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B

95
Q

Transient apical ballooning usually stress induced also known as gebrochenes herz syndrome

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

96
Q

Microbes involved in myocarditis

A

Coxsackieviruses
T. Cruzi
Borrelia burgderfori

97
Q

Define electrical alternans

A

QRS complexes alternate in amplitude

98
Q

Most common finding in cardiac tamponade

A

Pulsus paradoxus - drop in BP of 15mmHG with inhalation

99
Q

What are the ecg changes seen in pericarditis

A

Diffuse ST elevation of all leads except AVR AVF V1

PR depression

100
Q

A type of chronic pericarditis that follows suppurative or caseous pericarditis, previous cardiac surgery or irradiation to the mediastinum.

A

Adhsive mediastinopericarditis

101
Q

Most common heart tumor

A

Metastasis

102
Q

Most common primary heart tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

103
Q

Most common site of metastasis in the heart

A

Pericardium

PTHO (34 decks)

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