Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 Conditions > Past papers > Flashcards

Past papers Flashcards

1
Q

First line for haemorrhoids

A

Proctoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What to remember about haemorrhoids if no visible masses on examination

A

Can be internal haemorrhoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Target glucose in self monitoring throughout the day

A

Waking- 5-7
Before any meal 4-7
90 mins after eating 5-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First line investigation for non severe/systemic constipation

A

Anal manometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First line for AAA

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is arteriography

A

CT angio or MRI angio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do if d dimer comes back as negative in suspected PE

A

Stop anticoagulation and consider other diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Hb, MCV and reticulocytes

A

Low Hb
Normal MCV
High reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What gives headache better on lying down

A

Low ICP such as post LP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can PTH be in primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Normal or high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In STEMI where fibrinolysis has been given when should ECG be next repeated

A

2-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Triad for liver failure

A

Encephalopathy
Jaundice
Coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If patient has impaired GCS/ consciousness what give

A

IM glucagon or IV glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is murmur for atrial septal defect

A

Ejection systolic louder on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can ITP present

A

Petechiae

Easy bleeding like epistaxis and menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient presents with new onset TB symptoms and was recently started on a drug what would most likely be cause

A

A biologic as causes reactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After CXR what is next best investigation for lung cancer

A

CT not bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most sensitive test for SLE

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Main problem of alpha 1 antitrypsin

A

Leads to hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What time frame is necessary for orthostatic hypotension

A

3 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When investigating neoplastic spinal canal stenosis what is given while waiting for urgent MRI

A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If patient has acute fast AF and signs of HF what do if BPnormal

A

Still cardiovert as HF indication regardless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most important advice post pneumothorax

A

Stop smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

First line investigation for chronic HF

A

BNP not echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What prophylactic Abx given in COPD

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If stage 1 HTN when is only time can give first line meds

A 
No cardiac disease
No end organ failure
No renal disease
No diabetes
Q risk less than 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In questions where AF management and has HTN what must bear in mind with BP

A

Just above 90/60 is concerning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes high BNP that isnt HF

A

eGFR less than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What pH would prompt an acute asthma to go to ICU

A

Less than 7.33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What antibiotic should be avoided in long QT

A

Clarithomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which dementia is associated with MND

A

Frontotemporal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which meningitis causing organism would stain positive for india ink

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Do you use direct or indirect coombs test for haemolytic anaemia

A

Direct

Indirect is for new borns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Difference in anaemia between autoimmune haemolytic and hereditary spherocytosis

A

Anaemia mild in hereditary spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ABG finding addisons vs cushings/conns

A

Cushings- metabolic alkalosis

Addions- metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If has second MI 5-10 days after first what is best blood test to carry out

A

CK-MB as only high for 3-4 days post MI whereas troponin would still be high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3 things that cause widened mediastinum

A

Goitre
Lymphoma
Thoracic aortic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which gastroenteritis has longest incubation period

A

Giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which gastroenteritis organism causes steatorrhoea

A

Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is myxoedema coma treated

A

IV liothyroxine and hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Half life of adenosine

A

10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How early can alpha 1 antitrypsin be diagnosed

A

Prenatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Enlarged CKD kidneys causes

A

HIV
Diabetic
Amyloidosis
PCKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Antibodies found in LEMS

A

Anti voltage gated calcium channel antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most appropriate way to measure diabetic neuropathy

A

Monofilament test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes of gout mnemonic

A 
DART
Diuretics
Alcohol
Renal disease
Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Osteoarthritis arthtrocentesis

A

Calcium phosophate crystals

Coffin lid shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Arhtrocentesis rheumatoid

A

Cholesterol crystals

Rhmobic shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma UK

A

Hep B

Hep C worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common anaphylaxis trigger in children

A

Food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is any new LBBB treated as

A

MI regardless of ST elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Investigation ordered for aortic dissection

A

CT angio of chest abdo and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Can a GP prescribe anti epileptics after 1 seizure

A

No must refer to epilepsy clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does uvula deviate in relation to vagus lesions

A

Away from side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What CN palsy causes vertical diplopia

A

Trochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does hepatomegaly feel in cor pulmonale

A

Tender
Pulsatile
Smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2 medications given for hepatic encepahlopathy prophylaxis

A

Rifaximin

Lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If have nephrotic syndrome then develop haematuria and left sided flank pain what is cause

A

Renal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What age do men have to be to be reffered for 2ww gastroscopy and colonoscopy with IDA

A

Any!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Main risk factors for toxic mutlinodular goitre

A

Iodine deficiency

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Management steps to graves

A

Beta blockers
PTU or carbimazole
Radioiodine
Thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Management of thyroid storm way to remember

A

4 Ps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

4 Ps of thyroid storm

A

Propylthiouracil
Potassium iodide
Propanolol
Pred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is main danger of thyroid storm

A

AF which can deteriorate into high output HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What iatrogenic methods cause hypothyroidism

A

Amiodarone
Thyroidectomy
Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Management of myxoedema coma

A

Liothyroxine
IV corticosteroids
Supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What thyroid cancer is associated with hashimotos

A

Thyroid lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which thyroid cancer presents with compression sx

A

Anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How to remember carcinoid syndrome sx

A 
CARC
Cutaneous flushing
Asthmatic wheeze
Right sided mumur
Cramps and diarrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

2 skin changes get in carcinoid

A

Telengiectasia

Cutaneous flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Investigations for carcinoid syndrome

A

Urinary 5-HIAA
CT/MRI to find tumour
Endoscopy/bronchoscopy for histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

4 complications of acromegaly

A

Diabetes
Cardiomyopathy
Colorectal cancer
HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

First line investigation for acromegaly

A

Serum IGF-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Second line investigation for acromegaly

A

OGTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

First line for acromegaly

A

Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Second line management for acromegaly

A 
Somatostatin analogues (octreotide)
Growth hormone-receptor antagonist (pegvisomant)
Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine/cabergoline)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Third line management of acromegaly

A

Radiotherapy if medical/surgical resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hypogonadism in females typical symptoms

A 
Delayed puberty
Amenorrhoea
Infertility
Low libido
Night sweats and hot flushes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Physiological cause of hypogonadism

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Primary causes of hypogonadism in females

A

Turners syndrome
Gonadal damage
PCOS
Primary ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is primary ovarian failure

A

Early menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are some causes of gonadal damge

A

Trauma
Radiotherapy
Autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Causes of secondary hypogonadism in females

A 
Kallmans syndrome
Pituitary/hypothalamic failure from tumour/infiltration
Hyperprolactinaemia
Functional- stress, eating disorder
Post OCP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Infiltrative causes of hypogonadism from pituitary failure

A

Haemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Pre pubertal signs of hypogonadism in women

A

No secondary sexual characteristics and primary amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Post pubertal hypogonadism signs

A

Regression of secondary sexual characteristics- breast atrophy and loss of sexual hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Sign of kallmans as cause of hypogonadism

A

Anosmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Sign of turners as cause of hypogonadism

A

Webbed neck

Short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Sign of hyperprolactinaemia

A

Galactorrhoea

Visual field defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Investigations for primary hypogonadism in females

A 
Pregnancy test
Bloods
- oestridol
- LH and FSH
- prolactin
- TFTs
Genetic testing, pelvic MRI/USS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Investigations for secondary hypogonadism in females

A

Pituitary function tests, MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Signs of hypogonadism in males

A

Delayed puberty
Erectile dysfunction
Infertility
Low libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Primary causes of hypogonadism in men

A

Klinefelters
Gonadal damage- torsion, irradiation, trauma
Post orchitis from mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Secondary causes of hypogonadism in men

A

Kallmans
Pituitary/hypothalamic tumours
Hyperprolactinaemia
Prader willi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Post pubertal signs of hypogonadism in men

A

Hair loss

Gynaecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Pre pubertal signs of hypogonadism in men

A 
High pitched voice
Small undescended testicles
Small penis
Decreased pubic and facial hair
Eunuchoid proportions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Signs of klinefelters as underlying cause of hypogonadism

A

Low IQ

Behavioral problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is LH and FSH in promar hypogonadism

A

Very high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is LH and FSH in secondary hypogonadism

A

Very low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is main hormone in female that is reduced in all causes

A

Oestradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Serous discharge from breast is what

A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What causes non infectious mastitis

A

Duct ectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How does breast abscess feel

A

Single red lump

Fluctuant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is wedge shaped lump on breast

A

Mastitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Management of non lactating mastitis

A

Analgesia

Co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Management of moderate lactating mastitis

A

Analgesia
Milk removal by hot towel etc
Advise to carry on lactation
Abx if sx dont improve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Management of severe lactating mastitis

A

Breast milk culture and refer to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When do you give abx in lactating mastitis

A

If sx dont improve after 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Management of breast abscess

A

Referral to hospital for surigcal drainage urgently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How does fat necrosis appear

A

Skin retraction and thickening

Irregular shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What gives full feeling in breast

A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Which atypical pneumonia causes bilateral consolidation

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What do if malignant HTN reading but no signs of organ damage on examination

A

Bloods, urinalysis, ECG to look for other signs of organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are syndesmophytes seen in

A

Ank spond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Role of calcium resonium in hyperkalaemia management

A

Removes potassium from body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What causes upper bitemporal hemianopia

A

Pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What causes lower bitemporal hemianopia

A

Craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Prophylactic abx for encephalopathy

A

Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Best investigation for mycoplasma pneumonia

A

Serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

If clopidogrel not tolerated in stroke prevention what is alternative

A

Aspirin and modified release dipyrimadole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What can often appear like someone is appearing drunk

A

Hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

X ray findings of ank spond

A

subchondral erosions, sclerosis

and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is lemon tinge to skin associated with

A

Perncious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What x ray is done in ank spond

A

Pelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is typically in history if have an aspergilloma

A

TB as child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What does management of HAP depend on

A

How long in hospital
If under 5 days give co amoxiclav
If over give piperacillin with tazobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What antithyroid drug can be given while waiting for beta blockers to work if sx bad

A

Carbimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Most important drug acute HF

A

IV furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are lipid rich masses seen on CT of adrenals

A

Most commonly benign masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Most common inherited condition leading to bleeding

A

Von wilebrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

MOst common extra renal symptoms of PCKD

A

Liver cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which cancer is someone most at risk of with HNPCC that isnt colorectal

A

Endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Management of barretts oesophagus with no dysplasia

A

Surveillance and high dose PPIs

134
Q

Management of barretts oesophagus with dysplasia

A

Ablation

135
Q

Management of toxic multinodular goitre

A

Radioiodine

136
Q

AF rate control in asthmatics

A

Diltiazem

137
Q

What factors can lower Hba1c

A

Losing weight

Poor renal function

138
Q

What is cut off for giving potassium with fluids in DKA and HHS

A

Only give if potassium less than 5.5

139
Q

When is only time can give IV insulin in DKA

A

If potasssium greater than 3.5

140
Q

What is charcots joint

A

Joint in foot that where people lose sensation they walk differently putting further pressure on it that can lead to fractures

141
Q

3 diabetic neuropathies

A

Peripheral neuropathy
Mononeuropathy
Autonomic neuropathy

142
Q

Examples of diabetic mononeuropathy

A

Wrist drop
Foot drop
3rd nerve palsy

143
Q

Examples of autonomic neuropathy in diabetes

A

Dysphagua
Constipation
Bladder dysfunction
Postural hypotension

144
Q

Post renal cause of diabetes insipidus

A

Ureteric obstruction

145
Q

Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus

A

Intranasal desmopressin

146
Q

What should people on desmopressin be told not to do

A

Not drink large amounts of water

147
Q

How is nephrogenic diabetes inspidus treated

A

Thiazides or NSAIDS

148
Q

Pulmonary causes of SIADH

A

Pneumonia

Bronchiectasis

149
Q

Treatment order to SIADH

A

Fluid restrict and treat cause
If this doesnt work use demeclocycline
Severe give hypertonic saline

150
Q

What does central pontine myelinolysis lead to

A

Paralysis
Pseudobulbar palsy
Seizures

151
Q

When only do you give hypertonic saline in SIADH

A

If reduced GCS or seizing

152
Q

Causes of hypernatraemia

A 
Unreplaed water loss like GI losses and sweat
Osmotic diuresis
Diabetes insipidus
Cushings
Conns
Iatrogenic hypertonic saline
153
Q

How to treat hypernatraemia

A

5% dextrose

0.9%saline

154
Q

How do pituitary adenomas affect rest of hormones

A

They compress rest of gland leading to hypopituitarism

155
Q

Causes of hyperprolactinaemia

A 
Pregnant
Breast feeding
Prolactinoma
Pituitary adenoma
Primary hypothyroidism
156
Q

How does hyperprolactinaemia present in men

A 
Loss of libido
ED
Infertility
Gynaecomastia
Effect of mass ie headache blurred vision etc
157
Q

How does hyperprolactinaemia present in women

A 
Galactorrhoea
Secondary amenorrhoea
Loss of libido
Infertility
Effect of mass ie headache blurred vision etc
158
Q

Investigations for hyperprolactinaemia

A

Pregnancy test
TFTs
Basal serum prolactin
MRI

159
Q

Above what serum prolactin suggests adenoma

A

6,000

160
Q

First line for prolactinomas

A

Dopamine agonist- bromocriptine or cabergoline orally

161
Q

How does primary hypothyroidism lead to hyperprolactinaemia

A

Increases TRH that triggers prolactin release

162
Q

If patient has prediabetes Hba1c what test carry out

A

fasting glucose- Hba1c isnt as sensitive for DM as fasting glucose

163
Q

Inheritacne of MODY

A

Dominant

164
Q

When there is raised ICP on one side(right lets say here) and there is a CN palsy what side typically gets affected

A

The side of bleed

165
Q

What drug can be used in management of severe alcoholic hepatitis

A

Pred

166
Q

What is double duct sign seen in

A

Pancreatic cancer

167
Q

Before a gastroscopy how long before should PPIs be stopped

A

2 weeks

168
Q

If someone presents with acute breathlessness and chest is clear what is most likely diagnosis

A

PE

169
Q

If DM patient starts seizing after fluid resus what is most likely cause

A

Cerebral oedema

170
Q

ECG findings in hypothermia

A 
bradycardia
'J' wave - small hump at the end of the QRS complex
first degree heart block
long QT interval
atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
171
Q

What does a hypodense crescenteric finding on head CT suggest about subdural

A

That it is chronic

172
Q

What is activated protein C resistance another name for

A

Factor V leiden

173
Q

If someone is in AF permenantly but is chad vasc of 0 what do

A

No treatment

174
Q

If CTPA negative and PE suspected what do

A

Offer proximal leg US

175
Q

If patient experiencing chest pain post PCI still in hospital what offer

A

CABG

176
Q

Why cant ppl with migraines be given the OCP

A

Risk of stroke

177
Q

Metabolic predispositions to osteoarthritis

A

Wilsons
Haemochromatosis
Acromegaly

178
Q

How is diagnosis for osteoarthritis made

A

If over 45 can be clinical

If under do X ray

179
Q

What is palindromic rheumatism

A

short, self limiting episodes of inflammatory arthritis (joint pain, swelling, stiffness) of only a few joints

180
Q

Most common site of purpuric rash in amyloidosis

A

Periorbital purpura

181
Q

Which signs only occur in AL amyloid

A

Cardiomyopathy

Macroglossia

182
Q

Metabolic associations of pseudogout

A

Acromegaly
Wilsons
Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism

183
Q

What are crystal arthropathies often preceded by

A

Infection

Trauma

184
Q

X ray finding of gout

A

Rat bite erosions

185
Q

How long does uric acid take to be elevated in gout

A

4-6weeks

186
Q

3 ways osteomyelitis can be caused

A

Spread in blood
Continuous spread
Direct inoculation

187
Q

Main risk factors for osteomyelitis

A 
IVDU
Immunosuppression
DM
Sickle cell
Cellulitis
Ulcers
Penetrating injury
Surgery
188
Q

If have sickle cell what is cause of osteomyelitis

A

Salmonella

189
Q

In children what bones are typically affected in osteomyelitis

A

Long bones

190
Q

In adults what bones are typically affected in osteomyelitis

A

Vertebrae

191
Q

Invesitigations for osteomyelitis

A

Bloods- WCC,CRP,ESR
XR/MRI
Bone/swab/ blood culture

192
Q

What is best imaging for osteomyelitis

A

MRI

193
Q

What is seen on imaging of osteomyelitis

A

Darkened in affected areas

Periosteal thickening

194
Q

How long does it take for osteomyelitis imaging signs to be seen

A

2 weeks

195
Q

What do you get brittle slow growing toe nails in

A

Intermittent claudication

196
Q

What does atrophic skin occur in

A

CLI

197
Q

When is IC pain worse

A

When walking uphill

198
Q

Investigations for PVD

A 
Bloods- glucose, lipids
ECG
ABPI
Duplex scan
Magnietic resonance angiography
199
Q

What is beneficial about magnetic resonance angiogram in PVD

A

Is no contrast

200
Q

Normal ABPI

A

.9-1.2

201
Q

CLI ABPI range

A

Less than .5

202
Q

First line for leriche syndrome

A

CT angio

203
Q

Which ulcers have pale base from grey granulation tissue

A

Arterial

204
Q

Ulcer night pain worse supine

A

Arterial

205
Q

What are edges in arterial ulcers

A

Well defined

206
Q

Ulcer that is itchy and swollen

A

Venous

207
Q

What are 4 signs of venous ulcers

A

Lipodermatosclerosis
Atrophie blacnhe
Haemosederin deposition
Stasis eczema

208
Q

What is atrophie blanche

A

Area of white shiny atrophie skin

209
Q

Gold standard investigation for arterial and venous ulcer

A

Duplex USS

210
Q

Why would you biopsy venous ulcer

A

If possibility of marjolins ulcer

211
Q

What is a marjolin ulcer

A

One where a squamous cell carcinoma develops from areas of chronnic inflammation

212
Q

Management plan for venous ulcers

A

Gradeed compression stocks with greatest pressure distally
Debride and clean
Abx if infeted
Moisturising cream

213
Q

If want to treat venous ulcers with compression stockings first what must do

A

Exclude DM, neuropathy and PVD

214
Q

How is a AAA defined

A

Enlargement of arota greater than 3cm or 50% of previous size

215
Q

What is a false aneurysm

A

Tear in tunica intima leading to false lumen like in dissection

216
Q

Whatvare 2 true aneursysms of AAA

A

Fusiform

Saccular

217
Q

What is difference between saccular and fusiform aneurysms

A

Fusiform is distended on both sides but saccular only 1

218
Q

Symptoms of AAA

A

Normally asymptomatic but can have back or tummy pain

219
Q

Symptoms of ruptured AAA

A

Sudden pain anywhere in back or tummy
Shock
Syncope

220
Q

Sign on examination of burst AAA

A

Grey turners sign

221
Q

Sign on examination of AAA

A

Pulsatile and expansile mass on palpation

Abdominal bruit

222
Q

First line investigation for AAA

A

US

223
Q

First line investigation for ruptured AAA

A

CT angio

224
Q

Investigation done for ruptured AAA if allergic to contrast or renal impairment

A

MR angion

225
Q

What does murmur heard on back suggest

A

Aortic dissection

226
Q

What is crack cocaine often a risk factor for

A

Aortic dissection

227
Q

Diagnostic test for aortic dissection

A

CT angio

228
Q

Definition of varicose veins

A

Subcutaneous permenantly dilated venis over 3mm

229
Q

Main risk factors for varicose veins

A

Age
Female
Obestiy
White

230
Q

What causes 98% of varicose veins

A

Idiopathic valvaular incompetence

231
Q

How can secondary causes of varicose beins be classified

A

Venous outflow obstruction
DVT
AV malformations

232
Q

Venous outflow obstruction causes of varicose veins

A

Pregnancy
Ascites
Ovarian cysts
Pelvic malignancy

233
Q

Symptoms of varicose veins

A

Visible dilation of veins
Leg aching on standing
Swelling and itching
Can bleed

234
Q

When are varicose veins most painful and visible

A

On standing

235
Q

First line investigation for varicose veins

A

Duplex US

236
Q

Conservative management of varicose veins

A

Compression stockings
Weight loss
Leg elevation

237
Q

Endo vascular treatment of varicose veins

A

Radiofrequency ablation
Endovenous laser ablation
Microinjection scleropathy

238
Q

Surgical management of varicose veins

A

Stripping of the long saphenous vein
Saphenofemoral ligation
Avulsion of varicosities

239
Q

Complications of varicose veins

A

Venous ulcers
Stasis eczema
Lipodermatosclerosis
Haemosederin deposition

240
Q

Signs on examination of varicose veins

A

Veins feel hard or tender

Bruits

241
Q

What is tap test

A

Used in varicose veins

Tap VV distally and will feel thrill over saphenofemoral junction

242
Q

Odonyphagia in HIV patient

A

Candidiasis

243
Q

First line investigation for people with stable chest pain

A

CT angio

244
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in middle aged person

A

Strep pneumonia

245
Q

What is new test used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis

A

EMA binding test

246
Q

Who does type 2 AIH occur in

A

Children

247
Q

Dactylitis in an arthritis history of hands

A

Psoriatic arthritis

248
Q

If have addisons and are ill what is done to hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone dose

A

Hydro x2

Fludro keep the same

249
Q

Which lymphoma is coeliac associated with

A

Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma

250
Q

Which lymphoma is H pylori infection associated with

A

MALT lymphoma

251
Q

Which underlying disease can lead to a false mantoux test when have TB

A

Sarcoidosis

252
Q

Which virus most commonly causes meningitis

A

Cockasackie B

253
Q

What does diarrhoea worse around periods suggest

A

IBS from stress

254
Q

What is needed to diagnose TLS

A

Arrythmia
High creatinine
Seizure

255
Q

What do to antiplatelets if someone has stable CVD then develops AF

A

Stop clopidogrel and start DOAC

256
Q

What scar is made in whipple procedure

A

Rooftop

257
Q

Most significant determinant of c diff disease

A

WCC

258
Q

If someone has steatorrhoea post cholecystectomy what is treatment

A

Cholestyramine

259
Q

What can differentiate on presentation pancreatic cancer from PSC or PBC

A

Appetite

260
Q

Some common triggers of ulcerative colitis

A

NSAIDS
Abx
Smoking cessation

261
Q

In crohns refractory to steroid treatment what drug is used

A

Infliximab

262
Q

What is excessive salivation associated with

A

Wilsons

263
Q

Which other cancer in men can HNPCC be linked to

A

Renal

264
Q

Gastroenteritis organism if person has been in swimming pools

A

Giardia

265
Q

Gastroenteritis organism if steatorrhoea

A

Giardia

266
Q

What is used to determine severity of liver cirrhosis

A

Child pugh

267
Q

Caecal volvulus management

A

Right hemicolectomy

268
Q

Rfs for caecal volvulus

A

Pregnancy

Adhesions

269
Q

Treatment for mild/moderate UC

A

Rectal aminosalicylate

270
Q

What does double target sign on CT suggest

A

Liver abscess

271
Q

What is bleeding gums seen in

A

Vit C deficiency

272
Q

Which cancer will PSC cause in questions

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

273
Q

Which cancer other than gastric will cause sister mary joseph node

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

274
Q

What is given first line to someone with

A

Bulk forming laxatives

275
Q

What vitamin deficiency affects acclimatisation to light

A

Vitamin A

276
Q

First line for alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepine

277
Q

What vitamin defiency presents with mass bleeding in infancy

A

K

278
Q

Conditions associated with NF1

A

Phaeos

Scoliosis

279
Q

Most common non motor feature of parkinons

A

Depression

280
Q

If gastroenteritis doesnt disappear after 2 weeks what investigation is done next

A

Stool sample

281
Q

What is seen on CT of pyelonephritis

A

Gas

282
Q

What congenital kidney defect leads to hypercalciurua

A

Medullary sponge

283
Q

If there is an acute badder obstruction what would be seen on imaging of KUB

A

Bilateral hydronephrosis

284
Q

What test would you carry out to confirm T2DM in a symptomatic patient

A

Random gluocse

285
Q

What is it called when get cushings following removal of adrenals

A

Nelson syndrome

286
Q

What are faggot cells seen in

A

APML

287
Q

What blood cancer is downs a risk factor for

A

AML

288
Q

Risk factors for non hodgkins lymphoma

A

Sjogrens

289
Q

How is lymphoma staged

A

Ann arbor

290
Q

What is seen on bone marrow aspirate of myeloma

A

Plasma cells of over 10%

291
Q

What is MGUS

A

Premalignant condition where get accumulation of some plasma cells but no CRAB features

292
Q

Primary vs secondary myelodysplasia

A

Primary is intrinsice BM problem

Secondary radiation and chemo

293
Q

What is tetany caused by

A

Hypocalcaemia

294
Q

How to diagnose haemophilia

A

Factor assay that will distinguish A from B

295
Q

What is difference between acute overt and chronic non overt DIC

A

Acute occurs in sepsis and leads to depletion of of plts and clotting factors so is bleeding
Chronic non overt they dont get used up so compensatory mechanisms mean factors are replaced leading to more clotting than bleeding

296
Q

What Vwb disease presents with normal vwb levels

A

Type 2

297
Q

Levels of vwb factor in all 3 types

A

T1- reduced levels of normal vwf
T2- normal levels of defective vWF
T3- complete lack of vwf and factor 8

298
Q

What is MCV in SCD

A

Normal

299
Q

Clotting factor affected in Haemophilia A vs B

A

A 8

B 9

300
Q

Inheritance of types of VWB

A

1 and 2 dominant

3 recessive

301
Q

What condition changes threshold of Hb for transfusion

A

ACS

Makes it 80 instead of 70

302
Q

If flu and fever are present what does this suggest about SCD patients exacerbation

A

Parvovirus leading to aplastic crisis

303
Q

Young person with IDA what should be screened for

A

Coeliac

304
Q

Anaemia in young person from northern europe

A

HS

305
Q

What causes erythema infectiosum

A

Parvovirus B19

306
Q

What is progression in richters transformation

A

CLL to diffuse large b cell NHL

307
Q

Most common contaminated infection for platelet transfusions

A

Bacterial

308
Q

Meningitis with CN involvement

A

Listeria

309
Q

What is dextrocardia on ECG

A

Inverted p waves

310
Q

At what temperature can patients in VF/VT be shocked

A

Above 30

311
Q

If topical 5-ASA dont work to begin with in moderate UC what do next

A

Oral 5-ASA then if this doesnt work add oral pred

312
Q

Which pneumonia leads to reactivation of HSV

A

Strep pneumonia

313
Q

Which organism would lead to sepsis pneumonia after a splenectomy

A

Pneumococcal

314
Q

AF rate management if NBM

A

Metoprolol

315
Q

Order of most common cushings causes

A

Exogenous steroids
Cushings disease
Adrenal tumour
Ectopic ACTH

316
Q

Order to cushings investigations

A

24 hour cortisol/ low dose dexamethasone
Midnight ACTH
High dose dexamethasone/petrosal venous sampling

317
Q

Alternative test to high dose dexamethasone

A

petrosal venous sampling

318
Q

2 associations of phaeochromocytoma

A

Von hippel landau

MEN 2

319
Q

Diagnostic criteria for PCOS

A

Diagnostic criteria (2 out of 3):
Amenorrhoea/Oligomenorrhoea
Clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism
Polycystic ovaries on USS

320
Q

What is a decubitus ulcer

A

Pressure ulcer

321
Q

When cant you give IM glucagon

A

Alcohol

322
Q

What are seizure auras

A

Actually seizures- if have grand mal after aura is secondary tonic clonic

323
Q

If someone on chemo presents severely with sepsis what is most important first investigation

A

FBC- neutropenia

324
Q

What does parallel lines on CXR suggest

A

Bronchiectasis

325
Q

How does myeloma increase stroke risk

A

Paraproteinaemia

326
Q

First line investigation for metastatic prostate cancer

A

MRI

327
Q

What give if elderly with varicella zoster

A

Oral aciclovir

328
Q

What give if elderly with disseminated varicella zoster

A

IV aciclovir

329
Q

What can cause a rapid drop in plts after heparin treatment

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

330
Q

What can happen when shingles reactivated in facial distribution

A

Conjunctivitis

Year 3 Conditions (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions