OSCE nuggets Flashcards

1
Q

What is third HS heard in

A

HF

Young athletes

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2
Q

When is gallop rythm heard

A

HF on history of HTN

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3
Q

LVH vs HF on ECG and CXR

A

LVH- tall r waves and normal on X-ray cos heart grows in

HF- cardiomégalie and normal ECG

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4
Q

BMI levels

A
Overweight -25 30
Obese- 30 35
Severe obesity 35 40
Morbid obesity 40 50
Severe morbid 50+
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5
Q

How does obesity levels change with ethnicity

A

Over 23 is overweight in South Asians

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6
Q

What are you gonna do if BP over 140 diastolic

A

Check multiple times and and examine patient for signs of HTN

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7
Q

On examination what would be signs of HTN

A

Carotid bruits
S4
Fundoscopy
Heave

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8
Q

What is seen in grade 1 HTN fundoscopy

A

Silver wiring

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9
Q

What is silver wiring

A

Line in artery coming off the disc

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10
Q

What is grade 2 HTN fundoscopy finding

A

AV nipping

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11
Q

What is AV nipping

A

Crossing between artery and vein

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12
Q

What is grade 3 HTN of fundoscopy

A

Flame haemorrhages

Cotten wool spots showing ischaemia

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13
Q

What is grade 4 HTN fundoscopy finding

A

Papilloedema

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14
Q

What are secondary causes of HTN

A
Acromegaly 
Nephritis
Renal artery stenosis 
Coarctation of aorta
Cushing 
Cons
Phaeos
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15
Q

What is primary HTN called

A

Essential HTN

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16
Q

Why do FBC HTN

A

Polycythaemia

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17
Q

Why do U&Es HTN

A

Low K is Conns or Cushing

See if kidney function affected in nephritis or renal artery stenosis

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18
Q

ECG finding HTN

A

LVH

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19
Q

What to look for urinalysis HTN

A

Nephritis

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20
Q

Investigations would do for HTN

A
FBC
U&Es
Glucose 
Lipids
ECG
Urinalysis
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21
Q

Most important investigation for secondary HTN investigations

A

U&Es

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22
Q

If suspected Renal artery causing HTN what is first line investigation for this

A

MR Angio as can see aortic coarctation too

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23
Q

What are 3 steps to diabetic retinopathy

A

Background
Pre-proliferative
Proliferative

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24
Q

What are signs of background retinopathy

A

Hard exudates
Microaneurysms
Blot haemorrhages

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25
Q

What are signs of pre proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Cotton wool spots

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26
Q

What are signs of proliferative retinopathy

A

New blood vessels formed due to ischaemia

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27
Q

What is maculopathy

A

When macula is damaged by retinopathy

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28
Q

What are signs of maculopathy

A

Hard exudates over macula

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29
Q

Antibiotics used in appendicitis

A

Cefoxamine and metronidazole

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30
Q

Who does appendicular mass occur in

A

People who wait to present

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31
Q

What are appendix perfs more common in

A

When faecolith involved- children

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32
Q

What in any abdo pain in young women is first line

A

Pregnancy

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33
Q

What does a positive psoas sign suggest about appendix position

A

Retrocaecal

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34
Q

What does a positive copes sign suggest about appendix position

A

Near to obturator externus

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35
Q

What non bowel symptoms are common in diverticulitis

A

Urinary ones

Especially when fistula- brown urine

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36
Q

What surgical procedure is done in diverticulitis

A

Hartmanns

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37
Q

What is a hartmanns procedure

A

Form colostomy bag leaving anorectal stump- once inflammation has died down will do promary anastomosis

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38
Q

Why cant you do primary anastomosis in diverticulitis

A

Oedema will mean when close the bowel there will be holes

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39
Q

What is first line investigation for diverticular disease

A

Barium swallow through

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40
Q

OPeration done in severe diverticular disease

A

Primary anastomosis

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41
Q

Complications of diverticular disease

A
Perf
Diverticulitis
Peri-colic abscess
LBO
Faecal peritonitis
Fistulas
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42
Q

Risk factors to ask about in hernia history

A

Constipation
Chronic cough
Heavy lifting

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43
Q

Hernia presentation

A

Lump in groin
Groin pain
Scrotal swelling
Vomiting

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44
Q

Who does femoral hernias occur in

A

Elder females

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45
Q

Who does inguinal hernias occur in

A

Younger males

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46
Q

What do inguinal hernias contain

A

Bowel

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47
Q

What do femoral hernias contain

A

Omentum

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48
Q

In what position do hernias often reduce

A

Supinated

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49
Q

Signs of strangulated hernias

A
Tender 
Red
Colicky pain
Distension
Vomiting
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50
Q

Difference in management of femoral and inguinal hernias

A

Will do surgery much more often in femoral as risk of strangulation

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51
Q

Which drugs cause pancreatitis

A

Thiazides

Azathioprine

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52
Q

Signs on examination of pancreatitis

A

Epigastric tenderness
Reduced bowel sounds
Fever
Shock

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53
Q

What does a normal Ca in glasgow score suggest about pancreatitis cause

A

Hypercalcaemia

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54
Q

What does very low Ca suggest about prognosis

A

Not good

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55
Q

How long after eating does chronic pancreatitis pain present

A

15-30mins

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56
Q

What is often new diagnosis in chronic pancreatitis

A

T2DM

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57
Q

1st line investigation for chronic pancreatitis

A

CT abdo- see calcified pancreas

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58
Q

Management of sigmoid volvulus

A

Rigid sigmoidoscope decompression

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59
Q

What is the other name for watershed zone

A

Griffiths

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60
Q

If ischaemia at griffiths point what is most likely cause of

A

Hypovolaemia ( water shed zone is griffiths point)

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61
Q

Which areas are susceptible to ischaemic colitis

A

Sudeks point
Griffiths point
Right colon

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62
Q

Where is sudeks point

A

Rectosigmoid junction

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63
Q

What are most likely causes of ischaemic colitis

A

Hypoperfusion

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64
Q

What are most likely causes of acute mesenteric ischaemia

A

VTE

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65
Q

Managment of ischaemic colitis vs mesenteric ischaemia

A

Mesenteric immediate surgery

Ischaemic conservative- fluids and bowel rest

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66
Q

What is presentation of mesenteric ischaemia

A

Vomiting
Diarrorhoea
Sudden onset diffuse pain

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67
Q

Risk factors mesenteric ischaemia

A

AF
Cocaine
Smoking

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68
Q

Triad for mesenteric ischaemia

A

Sudden diffuse pain
Normal exam
Shock signs

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69
Q

Investigations for acute mesenteric ischaemia

A

ECG
ABG
AXR
CT

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70
Q

Signs seen on imaging mesenteric ischaemia

A

Perforated
Megacolon
Dilated

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71
Q

Managment of occlusive mesenteric ischaemia no gangrene

A

Thrombectomy

Thrombolysis

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72
Q

Management of non-occlusive mesenteric ischaemia with no gangrene

A

Fluid resus

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73
Q

Presentation of ischaemic colitis

A

Post prandial gut pain history
PR bleeding
Weigjht loss

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74
Q

Causes of non occlusive ischaemia in bowels

A

SEPSIS
Shock
Trauma

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75
Q

Complication of iscahemic colitis

A

Ileus

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76
Q

Management of iscahemic colitis causing ileus

A

Drip and suck

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77
Q

Management of ischaemic colitis

A

IV fluids

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78
Q

Diet lifestyle management in diabetes

A

Low sugars and complex carbs

Snack less regularly

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79
Q

After metformin what are 3 drugs can choose from

A

Sulphonylureas
Gliptins
SGLT2i

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80
Q

How does metformin work

A

Reduces liver production of glucose and improves sensitisation to insulin

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81
Q

Pros of metformin

A

Shown to easily reduce Hb1ac

Improves reduced CVA events, life expectancy and cancer risk

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82
Q

Cons of metformin

A

Diarrorhoea

Metabolic acidosis risk

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83
Q

Symptoms for metformin acidosis

A

stomach pain, nausea, irregular heart rate, anxiety, hypotension (low blood pressure), rapid heart rate.

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84
Q

How do sulphonylureas work

A

Increase insulin production at level of pancreas

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85
Q

How can metformin does be delivered to help with diarrorhoea

A

Titre up slowly

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86
Q

What impact does sulphonylureas have on weight

A

Makes you gain weight

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87
Q

What is main risk of sulphonylureas

A

Can have hypoglycaemic episode

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88
Q

Who isnt sulphonylureas appropriate for

A

Overweight people

People who drive regularly or are truck drivers as risk of hypo

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89
Q

Cons of sulphonylureas

A

Weight gain
No benefit longer term in terms of mortality
Risk of hypos

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90
Q

What do gliptins do

A

GLP 1 enzyme inhibitor thus increases insulin production

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91
Q

Benefits of gliptins

A

Help reduce appetitie and lose weight

Good at lowering Hb1ac

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92
Q

Cons of gliptin

A

Risk of pancreatitis

Can have diarrorhoea

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93
Q

How do SGL2Ti work

A

Block a channel in kidney allowing glucose to pass out

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94
Q

Side effects of SGL2Ti

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

Genital infections

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95
Q

Positives of SGL2Ti

A

Especially helpful for kidney and heart failure patients- improved mortality
Help lose weight

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96
Q

Names of sulphonylureas

A

Glibenclamide

Glipizide

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97
Q

Names of gliptins

A

Vildagliptin

Saxagliptin

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98
Q

Names of SGLT2i

A

empagliflozin

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99
Q

If troponin and ECG neg what is next investigation

A

Exercise tolerance test

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100
Q

Gastro causes of chest pain

A

Oesophagitis
Gastritis
Oesophageal spasm

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101
Q

What is major risk factor for boerhaves perforation

A

Recent endoscopy

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102
Q

How high can JVP go

A

Up to ear can even appear pulsatile

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103
Q

Causes of tricuspid regurg

A

RV dilation

Leaflet damage- RF, endocarditis

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104
Q

What infection can commonly lead to pericarditis

A

TB

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105
Q

Rfs for pericarditis

A

TB
Recent URTI infection
CTD

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106
Q

What questions ascertains in syncope if LOC

A

Can you remember

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107
Q

What does sinus mean in reference to rythm

A

Present P waves

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108
Q

Causes of sinus tachycardia

A
Hypovolaemia
Sepsis
Pain
Caffeine
PE
Endo- thyrotoxicosis, phaeochromocytoma
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109
Q

How to determine if AVRT or AVNRT

A

Return to normal rate and rythm

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110
Q

Amir sam causes of Afib

A
Thyrotoxicosis
Alcohol
Heart:
- pericarditis
- muscle. cardiomyopathy, IHD
- Valvular
Lung
- PE
- cancer
- pneumonia
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111
Q

Causes of VT

A

Electrolyte abnormalities
Ischaemia
Long QT

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112
Q

Management of SVT haem stable

A

Valsalva and vagal manouevres
Adenosine
Treat cause

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113
Q

Management of SVT haem unstable

A

DC cardioversion

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114
Q

What can cause fixed splitting of S2

A

Atrial septal defect

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115
Q

If patient is hypothermic needing defib what must do

A

Warm up

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116
Q

Management of haem stable VT

A

IV amiodarone
Treat underlying cause
ICD

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117
Q

How to work out if LVH

A

Add deep S in V1 to tall R in V5/6 and if greater than 35 small squares

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118
Q

What scores are used to work out if anticoagulate in Afib

A

CHAD VASC

HASBLED

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119
Q

How to work out if long QT

A

Draw 2 lines between R waves and work out midpoint

If t wave here or further then long QT

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120
Q

Which type of stroke will normally lead to collapse

A

Haemorrhagic

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121
Q

Why do we feel carotid pulses

A

Hypovolaemia will be weak

Slow rising pulse for aortic stenosis

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122
Q

What does carotid feel like in aortic stenosis

A

Like a thrill
Slow rising
Weak

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123
Q

What is pulsus tardus and parvus seen in

A

Aortic stenosis

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124
Q

What is bifid carotid pulse seen in

A

Aortic regurg

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125
Q

What is the anion gap

A

Sodium and potassium - chloride and bicarbonate however chloride and bicarrbonate dont account for all of the negative ions so the anion gap is all those left that allow electroneutrality

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126
Q

What is a normal anion gap

A

Should be small

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127
Q

What is an abnormal anion gap

A

Very high- due to extra anions normally due to dissociated acid part

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128
Q

What causes a high anion gap

A
Lactate
Uraemia
Ketones
Toxins
KULT
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129
Q

What does hypoalbuminaemia indicate about liver disease

A

Chronic

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130
Q

What does isolated elevated PT suggest about liver disease

A

Acute liver disease

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131
Q

Causes of hyperkalaemia

A
Addisons
Renal failure
ACE
Spironolactone
Rhabdomyolysis
Metabolic acidosis
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132
Q

Main ECG findings of hyperkalaemia

A
Bradycardia
Absent or small p waves
Long PR
Broad QRS
Tented T waves
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133
Q

Management of hyperkalaemia

A
ECG
Calcium Gluconate 10% 10ml
Salbutamol nebs.10mg 
Insulin 5-10 units 
  \+ Glucose 50% 50mmol
Regular VBGs
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134
Q

Symptoms of hypokalaemia

A

Weakness
Arrythmia
Hypokalaemia

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135
Q

Causes of hypokalaemia

A
Vomiting
Diarrorhoea
Loop diuretics
Thiazide diuretics
Conns
Cushing
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136
Q

Arrythmia hypokalaemia can lead to

A

Torsades de pointes

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137
Q

What does RAAS do to k and na

A

Excretes K

Reabsorb Na

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138
Q

Keys to managment of hypo Na and K

A

Do it slowly
Na fast leads to central pontine myelinolysis
K is an irritant to veins so either cheset drain or slowly in cannula

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139
Q

Mild hyponatraemia presentation

A

Confusion

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140
Q

Severe hyponatraemia presentation

A

Vomiting
Seizures
Death

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141
Q

What causes ADH release

A

Low volume at carotid sinus

Low Na concentration

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142
Q

Why does ADH release cause hyponatraemia

A

It only retains water not Na like aldosterone as acts on collecting duct

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143
Q

Hypovolaemia signs on examination

A
Dry membranes
Reduced skin turgor
Postural hypotension
HR up
Reduced urine output
Confused
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144
Q

What happens to urine sodium in hypovolaemia

A

Its low

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145
Q

Signs on examination of hypervolaemia

A

JVP up
Bibasal creps
Peripheral oedema

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146
Q

Why do you get hyponatraemia in hypovolaemia

A

Lose sodium and fluid however ADH only fixes water so volume goes up but sodium remains the same

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147
Q

Why do you get hyponatreamia in hypothyroidism

A

Reduced thyroxine reduces CO thus reducing apparent volume causing ADH release

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148
Q

How does addisons lead to hypovolaemic then euvolaemic hyponatraemia

A

Aldosterone production is reduced causing sodium loss and so also water loss leading to hypovolaemia. Then as reudced volume ADH increase water up to euvolaemic

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149
Q

Why dont you become hypervolaemic in SIADH

A

Initially you release too much ADH causing retention of water however this hypervolaemia triggers ANP and BNP release which gets rid of water and sodium

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150
Q

Causes of SIADH

A

CNS pathology such as meningitis, enchepahlitis and SAH
Surgery
Drugs- SSRIs, TCAs, opiates, PPIs, carbamezapines
Lung pathology

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151
Q

Investigation for euvolaemic hyponatraemia

A

Short SynACThen
TFTs
Urine osmolaltiy

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152
Q

Causes of hypernatraemia

A

Diabetes insipidus
Conns
Cushings

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153
Q

What is defined as HTN

A

BP over 140/90mmHg

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154
Q

If in OSCE take BP what do you offer to do

A

Take in both arms and if is difference of over 15 then recheck in the arm with highest BP

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155
Q

If you notice that BP is over 140/90 on first go what do you do

A

Ideally take 3 readings and take the lower of last 2

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156
Q

Once a clinic reading of 140/90 is made what is next step

A

Offer ambulatory BP measurement

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157
Q

What are 3 cut offs for ABPM

A

If under 135/85 then not hypertensive
If over 150/95 then stage 2 HTN
If over 135/85 then stage 1 HTN

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158
Q

What does stage 1 HTN mean for treatment plan

A

If under the age of 80 and has one of these then treat;

  • established CVD
  • renal disease
  • diabetes
  • organ damage
  • 10 year risk of CVA over 10%
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159
Q

Way to remember HTN stage 1 reasons for treatment

A

CORD 10

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160
Q

What does it mean for stage 2 HTN

A

Treat all patients regardless of age

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161
Q

What is metformin contraindicated in

A

Renal failure due to lactica acidosis risk

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162
Q

What would be suspected in MI at young age

A

HOCM
Long QT
Familial hypercholesterolaemia

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163
Q

What can cause elevated lipids non lifestyle

A

Liver failure
Renal problems
Hypothyroidism
High glucose

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164
Q

Management plan for hypercholesterolaemia

A

Lifestyle
Statin
Ezetimibe
Bezafibrate

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165
Q

SEs of statins

A

Headache
Proximal myopathy
Flatulence
Tired

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166
Q

What is problem of nifedipine in malignant HTN management

A

Done too quickly- want to manage slowly down in around 24hrs

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167
Q

What is target BP for diabetics

A

130:80

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168
Q

What offer if BP less than 140:90

A

To check every 5 years maybe less if close to target

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169
Q

What must be measured when giving apixaban

A

Renal function

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170
Q

Investigations for stable angina

A
Bedside
- ECG
- Obs- BP to see if hypertensive
Bloods
- FBC 
- troponin
- lipid profile
- glucose or hba1c
Imaging
- ETT with ECG
- ETT with echo
- stress echo
- cardac CT angiography
- invasive coronary angiography
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171
Q

Management plan for stable angina

A
Lifestyle advice
- lipid, diabetes and HTN management
Aspirin 75mg or clopidogrel or both
GTN spray for when in pain
First line anti anginal of either CCB or beta blocker 
depending on SEs of patietns choice
Then both if tolerated
Second line ivabradine or long acting nitrate
Third line PCI with stent or CABG
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172
Q

Why is FBC important in stable angina

A

Anaemia can exacerbate symptoms

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173
Q

In cardiac CT angio and invasive coronary angio what is defined as coronary obstruction

A

Stenosis of 50-70%

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174
Q

Management plan for acute UAP

A

Aspirin and clopidogrel
Nitrates- if not toleralted morphine
Fondaparinaux
Sent for ETT/stress echo then potential PCI

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175
Q

Investigations for UAP

A
Bedside
- obs
- ECG
Bloods
- troponin
- FBC
- U&Es
- LFTSs
- lipids
- glucose/Hba1c
Investigations
- stress echo
- echo
- ETT
- myoview of heart
- cardiac CT angio
- invasive angio with potential PCI
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176
Q

Why are LFTs important in ACS

A

Check clotting for anticoagulation

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177
Q

Why are U&Es important ACS

A

Baseline

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178
Q

Why do an Echo UAP

A

See if any regional wall abnormaliites

Check LVF

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179
Q

What is seen in myocardial perfusion scan of heart UAP

A

Unmatched perfusion between rest and stress

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180
Q

Long term management of UAP

A

Continue on aspirin for life and clopidogrel for one year
Statin
Beta blockers or verapmil or carvedilol (mainly beta blocker)
ACEi/ARB
Spironolactone
DM/HTN management

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181
Q

What is verapamil MOA

A

CCB

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182
Q

What class of drug is clopidogrel

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

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183
Q

What are 2 P2Y12 inhibitors

A

Clopidogrel

Ticagrelor

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184
Q

What is MOA of flecainide

A

Sodium channel blocker

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185
Q

What are 2 examples of ARBs

A

Losartan

Candesartan

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186
Q

MOA of thiazides

A

Inhibits Na/Cl channel DCT

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187
Q

2 examples of thiazide diuretics

A

Bendroflumethazide

Indapamide

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188
Q

MOA of spironolactone

A

Aldosterone inhibitor

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189
Q

What does ARB stand for

A

Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker

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190
Q

MOA of digoxin

A

Reduces HR and also improves contractility

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191
Q

Management plan of Type B aortic dissection

A

If no end organ ischaemia
- beta blockade using labetalol
- aiming for HR under 60 and systolic under 120 so if beta blockade fails use vasodilator therapy
- first line vasodilator therapy is nitropusside
- second line diltiazem
If end organ failure open surgery or endovascular graft

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192
Q

BP managemet in any aortic dissection

A

Beta blockade using labetalol
Aim for HR under 60 and sys under 120
If beta blockade fails use 1st line nitropusside, 2nd line diltiazem

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193
Q

Investigations ordered for aortic dissection

A
Bedside
- BP in both arms
- ECG
Bloods
- FBC
- U&Es
- LFTs
- G&S
- troponin
- VBG
Imaging
- CXR
- CT angio
- echo
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194
Q

What can be seen aortic dissection on ECG

A

St depression or ST elevation

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195
Q

CXR findings aortic dissection

A

Widened mediastinum with blunted aortic knuckle

Can get pleural effusion

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196
Q

Risk factors for pericarditis

A
TB
CTD
Recent MI
URTI- viral
Cancer
Uraemia
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197
Q

Where can pericarditis pain also be

A

Trapezius ridge

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198
Q

O/E constrictive pericarditis

A

Pericardial friction rub
Raised JVP
HF signs possible

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199
Q

Management plan for pericarditis

A

NSAIDS(aspirin or ibuprofen) with PPI!
Colchicine
Exercise restriction
Second line steroids if unresponsive

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200
Q

Investigations for pericarditis and findings

A
ECG- widespread concave ST elevation
Throat swab
Bloods
- FBC- lymphocytosis
- U&Es- uraemia is cause
- troponin
Echo- pericardial effusion or helps distinguish from MI and pericardial thickening helps distinguish from restrictive cardiomyopathy 
Pericardiocentesis helps identify cause
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201
Q

Examples of target organ failure in HTN

A

LVH
Retinopathy
Increased albumin to creatinine ratio
CKD

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202
Q

In stage 2 HTN when is a statin given

A

If q risk over 10%

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203
Q

What is as significant contraindications for CCB

A

HF

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204
Q

What is main side effect of thiazides

A

Sexual dysfunction

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205
Q

Complications of pneumothorax

A

Bronchopleural fistula

Recurrent pneumothoraces are common- 20% chance of repeat

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206
Q

Management of recurrent pneumothoraces

A

PLeuroidesis using sclerosants like tetracycline

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207
Q

Diffuse abdo pain with nausea and vomiting

A

Obstruction

Mesenteric ischaemia

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208
Q

How does acute mesenteric ischaemia present

A

Acute diffuse abdo pain
Nausea and vomiting
Haematochezia
Complains of post prandial pain

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209
Q

What is small meal syndrome

A

When due to chronic mesenteric ischaemia you start eating smaller meals due to pain caused by eating larger ones

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210
Q

Risk factors for liver abscess

A
intrahepatic processes/surgery
DM
Biliary disease
GI infection
Recent travel
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211
Q

Difference in pain of SBO vs LBO

A

SBO pain higher up due to somatic supply

LBO lower and spasms last for longer

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212
Q

What is PT in obstructive causes of jaundice

A

High as reduced absorption of VIT K

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213
Q

US finding of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Mass

Dilated bile ducts

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214
Q

What are 2 cancer markers raised in cholangiocarcinoma

A

CA19-9
CEA
Ratio of CA19-9>40xCEA

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215
Q

What non cancerous disease is CEA raised in

A

IBD

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216
Q

Why isnt measuring CEA to screen adenocarcinoma in UC a good idea

A

Also elevated in UC

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217
Q

Why do U&Es plus LTFs in sarcoidosis

A

Can get liver and renal involvement

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218
Q

Management of diverticular disease

A

Improved diet and hydration
If bacterial overgrowth suggested give abx
If symptoms persist for a while can consider surgery

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219
Q

Management plan for diverticulitis

A

Analgesia
Fluids
Abx
Consider surgery if perforation, abscess, fistula or excessive bleeding

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220
Q

What should be done if excessive bleeding that cant be stopped in acute diverticulitis

A

Consider transfusions

CT angio or isotope labelled red blood cell nuclear scan

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221
Q

Complications of diverticulitis

A
Abscess
Fistula
Perforation
Sepsis
Excessive bleeding
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222
Q

Investigatons for acute diverticulitis

A
Bloods
FBC- neutrophillia, CRP up, anaemia
U&Es for baseline
Blood cultures
G&S
CT
eCXR or AXR to look for pneumoperitoneum
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223
Q

What is seen on CT diverticulitis

A

Abscess
Fistula
Thickened bowel walls
Outpouchings inflammed

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224
Q

What can be done for patients who have regular COPD exacerbations

A

Arithomycin thrice weekly

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225
Q

Who does constipation cause confusion in

A

The elderly especially post op

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226
Q

What causes ischaemic colitis in younger people

A

Cocaine use

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227
Q

What happens to Hba1c in hereditary spherocytosis

A

It decreases and is so underestimated

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228
Q

What causes PSM heard loudest at left sternal edge lower down and with louder P2

A

VSD

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229
Q

If variceal haemorrhage is uncontrolled with terlipressin what must be done prior to endoscopy

A

Insertion of sengstaken blakemore tube

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230
Q

If patient has atelectasis what is best immediate management

A

Sit patient up

Then refer for chet physio

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231
Q

What can cause ischaemic hepatitis

A

Sepsis leading to hypoperfusion

Clot

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232
Q

What artery most commonly affects the trigeminal nerve in TN

A

Superior cerebellar artery

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233
Q

What can be secondary causes of cluster headaches

A

Pituitary adenoma or hypothalamic dysregulation

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234
Q

Pathophysiology of cluster headaches

A

hypothalamic activation with secondary trigeminal and autonomic activation

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235
Q

What can trigger a cluster headache

A

Alcohol
Stress
Sleep
Volatile smells

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236
Q

Investigations for cluster headache

A

ESR to rule out GCA
MRI to rule out secondary pituitary or hypothalamic cause
Pituitary function tests can rule out secondary cause

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237
Q

What is seen on head CT of extradural

A

Lemon shaped bleed

Midline shift and cerebral oedema

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238
Q

What is alternative cause of extradural and how would be investigated

A

AV malformation

CT angio

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239
Q

Major criteria for rheumatic fever

A
JONES pnemonic
Arthritis
Carditis
Nodules sub cut
Erytherma marginatum
Sydenhams chorea
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240
Q

Minor criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Raised CRP
Raised ESR
Fever over 38.5
Prolonged PR

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241
Q

Investigations for rheumatic fever

A
Bloods
-ESR
-CRP
-WCC
ECG
- can show elongated PR
Echo
- valve damage
PCR or throat culture for strep
Anti-streptolysin titres
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242
Q

How does erythema marginatum appear

A

Ring like appearance on torso and legs

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243
Q

What is management of gallstones

A

If symptomatic give NSAIDS like diclofenac and offered laparoscopic cholecystectomy
If asymptomatic from being found incidentally dont offer cholecystectomy unless signs of porcelain gall bladder, high risk of GB cancer and chronic risk like SCD

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244
Q

When would you offer cholecystectomy in asymptomatic biliary colic

A

Signs of porcelain GB
High risk of GB cancer
Chronic risk from diseases like SCD

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245
Q

What are main complications of biliary colic

A
Cholecystitis
Cholangitis
Pancreatitis
Mirrizi syndrome
Gallstone ileus
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246
Q

Investigations ordered for bilairy colic

A
Bloods
- FBC looking for WCC 
- CRP as inflammation
- LFTs see if liver function deranged
- amylase
- lipid profile
Imaging
- US showing gallstones, dilated ducts and sludge
- MRCP and CT also showing this
 Only really would do this if stones unidentifiable or signs of complications
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247
Q

What is most common viral cause of subacute thyroiditis

A

Cocksackie virus

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248
Q

Investigations for subacute thyroiditis

A

Bloods
- ESR and CRP up
- TFTs depends on the stage of disease
- antithyroid peroxidase abs can be present
Imaging
- scintigraphy will show global reduced uptake
- FNA will show granulomas and WCC infiltration

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249
Q

How long cant you drive for following a first unprovoked seizure

A

6 months

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250
Q

O/E idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Clubbing

Fine late inspiratory crackles

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251
Q

What should be ruled out in initial idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis screen

A

RA

Myositis

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252
Q

What is positive BPPV finding

A

Delayed onset torsional unilateral nystagmus

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253
Q

What is podagra

A

Gout

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254
Q

What are smudge/smear cells

A

Remnants of cells

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255
Q

RFs for saccular aneurysms

A

Marfans
Ehlers
PCKD
NF1

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256
Q

What is lupus vernio seen in

A

Sarcoid

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257
Q

What are risk factors for burkitts lymphoma

A

Immunosuppression- HIV

EBV

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258
Q

Investigations for SIADH

A

TFTs

Short Synacten to rule out these as causes of euvolaemic hyponatraemia

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259
Q

What is difference in pupil between anterior uveitis and closed angle glaucoma

A

Dilated in glaucoma

Constricted in anterior uveitis

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260
Q

what is finding of CSF in GBS

A

High protein

Albumin cytological dissociation

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261
Q

What indicates severity of mitral stenosis

A

Length of murmur

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262
Q

How to diagnose zollinger ellison syndrome

A

Fasting gastrin level

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263
Q

How is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus treated

A

Thiazide diuretics

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264
Q

How is cranial diabetes insipidus treated

A

Intranasal desmopressin

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265
Q

What virus predisposes to MS

A

EBV

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266
Q

What 2 lifestyle changes will help improve BP

A

Lose weight

Eat less salt

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267
Q

What cardiac abnormailities are seen in carcinoid syndrome

A

Pulmonary stenosis

Tricuspid insufficiency

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268
Q

O/E myocarditis

A

HF signs
Sinus tachycardia
Arrythmias common

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269
Q

Investigations for myoarditis

A
Bloods
- WCC up
- CK MB up
- troponin very up
ECG
- non specific ST elevation and depression
- some T wave inversion
CXR
- bibasal crackles if in HF
Echo
- global dyskinesia
- LV dilation
Endomyocardial biopsy 
- infiltration and necrosis
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270
Q

Management plan for bronchiectasis

A
All patients 
- improve diet and exercise
- physio
Some patients 
- inhaled bronchodilator
- mucolytic (hypertonic saline)
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271
Q

What is example of mucolytic used in bronchiectasis

A

Hypertonic saline

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272
Q

What is done for patients with bronchiectasis who have over 3 exacerbations a year

A

Inhaled abx

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273
Q

When are patients with bronchiectasis given inhaled abx

A

If have over 3 exacerbations a year

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274
Q

What causes systolic HF

A

Arrythmia
Cardiomyopathy
MI

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275
Q

What causes diastolic HF

A

Constrictive pericarditis
Valve regurg
HTN

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276
Q

Why in stroke do you stop anticoagulants

A

Is risk of haemorrhagic transformation

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277
Q

Immediate treatment for stroke

A

Aspirin 300mg and stop anticoags

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278
Q

Anticoagulation for stroke first 2 weeks

A

Aspirin 300mg and stop anticoags

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279
Q

Anticoagulation for stroke after first 2 weeks

A

Stop aspirin
Clopidogrel 75mg OD
Specialist consideration for anticoags depending on cause etc

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280
Q

What is given to someone just before going to PCI regardless of if NSTEMI or STEMI

A

Unfractionated heparin

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281
Q

Immediate antplatelet therapy in ACS

A

Aspirin 300mg

Clopidogrel 300mg or ticagrelor 180mg

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282
Q

Long term ACS dual antiplatelet

A

Aspirin 75mg for life

Clopidogrel 75mg or ticagrelor 90mg BD

283
Q

What is only long term ACS antiplatelet take BD

A

Ticagrelor

284
Q

What is myelodysplasia

A

A precancerous state where mutations leads to bone marrow production of immature cells in all myeloid strains leading to pancytopenia

285
Q

What does myelodysplasia lead to in 1/3 of cases

A

AML

286
Q

What happens initially in myelofibrosis

A

Produce loads of every cell but bone marrow then decompensates leading to fibrous deposits

287
Q

Causes of TTP

A

Cancer
Pregnancy
Idiopathic

288
Q

What are nerve comlpications of amyloid

A

Carpal tunnel

Neuropathies

289
Q

What causes dry eyes in sarcoid

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

290
Q

What is skin change seen in amyloid

A

Purpuric rash

291
Q

What is main difference between PBC and PSC

A

PBC only affects intrahepatic bile ducts

292
Q

What is condition linked to polyarteritis nodosa

A

Hep B- most sufferers will have Hep B

293
Q

What is rosary sign seen in

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

294
Q

What is rosary sign

A

Aneurysms formation polyarteritis nodosa

295
Q

What is pathergy test used for

A

Behcets

296
Q

What happens in pathergy test

A

Skin prick made into skin and in behcets get small red lump

297
Q

What are 3 types of amyloid

A

AL- myeloma
AA- inflammatory conditions
ATTR- elderly and familial

298
Q

What does Amyloid ATTR stand for

A

Amyloid trans thyretin

299
Q

What is only vasculitis that causes cavitating lesion

A

Wegners

300
Q

What is common to all COPD categories

A

FEV1/FVC ratio less than 0.7

301
Q

COPD categories are based on what

A

Percentage of expected FEV1

302
Q

COPD categories

A

Mild above 80% expected FEV1
Moderate 50-80% expected FEV1
Severe 30-50% of expected FEV1
Very severe less than 30% of expected FEV1

303
Q

What are main complications of COPD

A

Cor pulmonale
Pneumothorax
Recurrent infection leading to exacerbations
Polycythaemia vera

304
Q

What are 3 treatmetns known to improve mortality in COPD

A

Stop smoking
Lung reduction surgery
Long term O2

305
Q

4 factors that determine if COPD patient goes down asthma pathway

A

Raised eosinophil count
Diurnal variation of PEF greater than 20%
FEV1 variation in time
Diagnosis of asthma or atopy

306
Q

Simple COPD management

A

Stop smoking
Annual flu vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccination

307
Q

Drug management COPD

A

SABA or SAMA
If asthmatic LABA and ICS
If not LABA and LAMA
Finally LABA, LAMA, ICS

308
Q

Further long term management of COPD

A

Lung reduction surgery
Long term O2 if meet criteria 1 of either
- terminally ill
- PaO2 less than 7.3
- PaO2 7.3-8 with pulmonary HTN, PCV or nocturnal hypoxaemia

309
Q

What is difference in hydrocrotisone dose between asthma and COPD infective exacerbation

A

100mg in asthma

200mg in COPD

310
Q

How does Hep C present typically

A

Asymptomatically- most people will be able to clear but sometimes can progress to cirrhosis

311
Q

What is main risk factor for progression of Hep C to cirrhosis

A

Alcohol intake

Hep C

312
Q

Most common cause of CKD

A

Diabetes

313
Q

What antibiotic should be avoided in pregnancy

A

Trimethoprin

314
Q

Which is more common FAP or HNPCC

A

HNPCC

315
Q

What is target Hba1c for T1DM

A

48

316
Q

What does ST elevation alone in AVR and widespread ST depression imply

A

Left main or LAD ischaemia

317
Q

What is definition of TIA based on now

A

The definition of a TIA is now tissue-based, not time-based: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction

318
Q

General management of atypical pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin and clarithomycin

319
Q

If want to DCcardiovert someone in AF who has been symptomatic for longer than 48 hours what are 2 options

A

TEE to look for clots if clear can do it

Anticoagulate for 3 weeks

320
Q

Metabolic compications of DM

A

DKA
HHS
Hypoglycaemia

321
Q

Cavitating lesion causes

A
Wegners
SqCC
Klebsiella
TB
Staph aureus
Mycetoma
Rheumatoid arthritis
322
Q

Cause of bleed if malaena and recurrent nose bleeds

A

Hereditary telengiectasia

323
Q

Cancer causes of parasthesia

A

Myeloma

Paraneoplastic syndrome

324
Q

Hereditary causes of parasthesia

A

Hereditary sensory motor neuropathy

325
Q

Common symptom of MS often overlooked by clinicians

A

Fatigue

326
Q

What is L’hermites sign most commonly seen in

A

MS from transverse myelitis

327
Q

Which countries are MS sufferers normally seen in

A

Scandinavia

328
Q

How can you tell if a lesion in MS is new or old

A

Gadolinium contrast will show what lesions are new as acute inflammation leads to increased uptake

329
Q

Which types of people does MG most commonly occur in

A

Women under 40

Men over 60

330
Q

What happens to reflexes in MG

A

Normal

331
Q

What mainly happens to thymus in MG

A

Majority of time get thymic hyperplasia but can sometimes get thymomas

332
Q

What is picks disease

A

A type of frontotemporal dementia

333
Q

How is diagnosis of MND made

A

Clincal but other diagnoses must be excluded

334
Q

Differential diagnoses to rule out in MND

A
B12 deficiency
MS
Cervical myelopathy
HIV
Metastatic brain cancer
335
Q

Investigations done in MND work up

A

Bloods- B12, HIV and lyme disease serology

CT/MRI

336
Q

EMG finding of MND

A

Fasiculations and fibrillations

337
Q

Main wasting sites of MND

A

Thenar

Tongue

338
Q

Sign on examination of MND causing dysphagia

A

Tongue wasting

339
Q

What is typical initial presentation of ALS

A

Foot drop

Clumsy weak hand

340
Q

Signs on examination of initial ALS

A

Some wasting

Mix of initial UMN and LMN

341
Q

Proportions of types of MND

A

ALS- 60%
Bulbar- 30%
Progressive lateral sclerosis- 5%
Progressive muscular atropy-5%

342
Q

4 types of MS

A

Relapsing remitting
Primary progressive
Secondary progressive
Clinically isolated syndrome

343
Q

What is presentation of bulbar MND

A

Dysarthria and dysphagia

344
Q

Signs on examination of bulbar MND

A

Dysarthria
Brisk jaw jerk
Tongue fasiculations and wasting

345
Q

What is difference in prognosis between bulbar MND and ALS

A

Bulbar much worse

346
Q

What MND gives pure UMN onset

A

Primary lateral sclerosis

347
Q

What MND gives purely LMN onset

A

Progressive muscular atrophy

348
Q

What does pseudobulbar MND mean

A

Purely UMN findings

349
Q

What is difference between pseudobulbar and bulbar MND

A

Pseudobulbar is purely UMN whereas bulbar is a mix

350
Q

What are UMN bulbar signs

A

Exaggerated gag reflex
Brisk jaw jerk
Spastic tongue

351
Q

What are LMN bulbar signs

A

Tongue wasting
Tongue fasicullations and fibrillations
Absent jaw jerk and gag reflex

352
Q

Main risk factors for parkinsons

A

Male
Age
Living in countryside
Fhx

353
Q

What rigidity is seen on examination on parkinsons

A

Initially is lead pipe but with tremor superimposed becomes cog wheel

354
Q

What comes under umbrella of parkinsonism

A

Parkinsons disease
Drug induced parkinsons
Atypical parkinsons diseases

355
Q

What drugs can causes drug induced parkinsonism

A

Anti-epileptics
Anti-emetics
Anti-psychotics

356
Q

What are some atypical parkinsons diseases

A

Multi infarct parkinsons

Parkinsons diseae dementia

357
Q

What is main difference between parkinsons disease dementia and LBD

A

With LBD motor and cognitive sx come on at same time

In parkinons disease dementia the cognitive decline comes on way after

358
Q

What is main pathognomic symptom for parkinsons disease dementia

A

Visuospatial disturbances

359
Q

What is best test for parkinsons

A

Responsiveness to L dopa

360
Q

What does lead pipe rigidity mean on examination

A

Increased smooth hypertonia in both directions

361
Q

Hypomimia sign on face

A

Blinking

362
Q

What is needed for parkinsons diagnosis

A

3 of triad

2 is just parkinsonims

363
Q

What are 2 degenerations of parkinsons

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

Multiple system atropy

364
Q

Defining features of progressive supranuclear palsy

A

Dysarthria
Instability
Fail to look downwards

365
Q

Defining features of multiple system atrophy

A

Early autonomic features- incontinence, orthostatic hypotension

366
Q

What is degeneration of parkinsons that leads to autonomic symptoms

A

Multiple system atrophy

367
Q

What is degeneration of parkinsons that leads to postural instability and impaired gaze

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

368
Q

What are features that distinguish parkinsons from parkinsonism

A

Asymmetrical features
Response to L dopa
No atypical features
No history of parkinsonism assocaited drugs

369
Q

Common drugs causing parkinsonism

A

Haloperidol
Metoclopramide
Risperidone

370
Q

What is defining feature on imaging of pseudogout

A

Chondrocalcinosis

371
Q

What is main cause of renal artery stenosis in younger women

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

372
Q

What is normal appearance of arthrocentesis

A

Cloudy yellow

373
Q

What is appearance of arthrocentesis in septic arthritis

A

Turbid grey

374
Q

What is appearance of crystal arthritis on arthrocentesis

A

Cloudy yellow

375
Q

What is appearance of crystal arthritis on arthrocentestis

A

Cloudy yellow

376
Q

Dementia differentials

A
Alzheimers
LBD
PDD
Frontotemporal dementia
Depression
Syphillis
Hydrocephalus
377
Q

What typically comes first in alzheimers

A

Amnesia

378
Q

What is later progression of alzheimers

A
Language problems
Failure to recognise people
Poor calculation
Loss of executive thinking
Poor with names
379
Q

What is episodic memory

A

Remembering specific dates and days you did something

380
Q

What part of brain is affected in episodic memory loss

A

Hippocampus

381
Q

On MRI of brain what is seen in huntingtons

A

Atrophy of medial temporal lobe mainly

Whole brain atrophy

382
Q

What is needed to definitively diagnose dementia

A

Brain biopsy

383
Q

What is seen on biopsy of dementia brain

A

Amyloid deposits
Fibrillatory tangles
Loss of synapses and neurones

384
Q

What are fibrillatory tangles

A

Hyperphosphate tau proteins

385
Q

Investigations for dementia

A

Clinical diagnosis using various mental tests
LP will show high tau protein and low amyloid
CT/MRI in later disease progression will show atrophy

386
Q

Cognitive tests that can be done assess dementia

A

MOCA
MMSE
Addenbrookes cognitive assessment

387
Q

Features of vascular dementia

A
Focal neurology
Stepwise decline
Emotional and personality changes
Stepwise decline
Cardiovascular rfx
388
Q

Imaging finding of vascular dementia

A

Multiple hypodense lesions showing haemosederin deposites

389
Q

What is picks disease a type of

A

Frontotemporal dementia

390
Q

What are features of frontotemporal dementia

A

Poor hygiene
Loss of inhibition
Personality changes

391
Q

Which ages does picks disease tend to affect

A

Younger than other dementias- 40-60

392
Q

What is different about brain biopsy finding of picks disease to alzheimers

A

Picks is purely tau proteins

393
Q

What is athetosis

A

Writhing movements of hands

394
Q

Presentation of huntingtons

A
Chorea
Athetosis
Ataxia
Dysphagia
Cognitive symptoms
395
Q

What is disease course progression of huntingtons

A

To begin with twitching of hands then get full motor symptoms
Later on progresses to cognitive dysfunction

396
Q

Cognitive dysfunctioning of huntingtons

A

Poor concentration
Depression
Dementia
Personality changes- aggression

397
Q

What is inheritance of huntingtons

A

Autosomal dominant

398
Q

What is mutation in huntingtons

A

CAG repeat in HTT gene

399
Q

What is early MRI finding of huntingtons

A

Basal gangial atrophy

Mainly striatum

400
Q

What is late MRI finding of huntingtons

A

Global brain atrophy

401
Q

What are investigations for huntingtons

A

Genetic testing for HTT

MRI showing striatal atrophy

402
Q

In which disease cant you stick out tongue

A

Huntingtons

403
Q

How does alcoholism lead to wernickes

A

Alcoholics have poor diet

Alcohol impairs ability to absorb B1

404
Q

Investigations done for wernickes

A

Bloods - B1 and albumin as marker of liver disease
ECG
CT scan
Neuropsycology

405
Q

Differences between werkickes and korsakoffs

A

W patient is confused but in korsakoffs alert
Signs of W are cerebellar whereas K is confabulation and amnesia
W reversible whereas korsakoffs irreversible
W acute but K chronic

406
Q

3 mechanisms leading to iscahemic stroke

A

Thrombous
AF
Watershed stroke

407
Q

What are watershed strokes

A

In hypotension reduced blood flow to areas on borders between artery territories

408
Q

What HAS BLED score would contraindicate against CHAD VASC

A

HASBLED of 3

409
Q

What in history would suggest haemorrhagic stroke

A

Headache
Meningism
Nausea and vomiting
LOC

410
Q

Causes of haemorrhagic stroke

A

HTN
Microaneurysms
AV malformations
Vasculitis

411
Q

In stroke what are eye abnormalities at in each territory for ACA, MCA and PCA

A

ACA- homonymous hemianopia
MCA- quadrantopias
PCA- macula sparing homonymous hemianopia

412
Q

What are eye deficits in MCA strokes

A

Quadrantopias

413
Q

What are eye deficits in PCA strokes

A

Macula sparing homonymous hemianopias

Visual agnosia

414
Q

Where is damage in visual agnosia

A

Occipital lobe

415
Q

Where are strokes in LOC or reduced consciousness

A

Posterior CA

416
Q

MCA stroke symptoms

A
Contralateral hemiparesis upper limb/face > lower limb
Contralateral hemisensory loss
Apraxia
Aphasia
Quadrantopias
417
Q

What is apraxia

A

Disorder of skilled movement

418
Q

Where is stroke in pure motor loss

A

Internal capsule

419
Q

Patient comes into A&E with suspected stroke what do

A

A-E make sure hydrated, saturated
Send for CT scan non contrast
Take bloods
ECG is possible

420
Q

What bloods are ordered in stroke

A
Glucose
FBC- thrombophlia, polycythaemia
U&Es- electrolyte imbalances could be cause of sx
LFTs- clotting and INR
Cardiac enzymes
421
Q

Is aspirin given before or after alteplase

A

After

422
Q

Management of stroke when on ward

A

A-E
Swallow screen
GCS monitoring
DVT prophylaxis

423
Q

Subsequent tests for stroke

A

Doppler
Echo
MR angiography

424
Q

What does secondary prevention of stroke depends on

A

Whether stroke AF in origin or not
If AF anticoagulate based on chadvasc and hasbled
If not clopidogrel for life after 2 weeks

425
Q

What is done to assess risk of stroke progression in TIA

A

ABCD2

426
Q

What are criteria for carotid endarterectomy

A

Over 70% stenosed
50-69% stenosed and symptomatic
Fully recovered from stroke

427
Q

Complications of stroke

A
Aspiration pneumonia
Cerebral oedema (↑ ICP)
Immobility
Depression
DVT
Seizures
Death
428
Q

Management of haemorrhagic stroke

A

ITU place and refer to neurosurgery

BP and ICP management

429
Q

Causes of reflex syncope

A

Carotid sinus hypersensitivity
Vasovagal
Situational

430
Q

Define epilepsy, seizure and convulsion

A

Seizure- abnormal paroxysmal discharge of cerebral neurones
Convulsion- motor seizure
Epilepsy- increased tendancy to have unprovoked seizures

431
Q

What are triggers for epilepsy

A
Poor sleep
Alcohol
Increased flashing lights
Stress
Poor adherance to medications
432
Q

Feelings of epilepsy before seizure

A

Deja vu
Flashing lights
Strange smells
Feeling in the gut

433
Q

What happens during epileptic seizure

A

Lasts for less than 3 mins
Incontinence
Tongue biting
Convulsions

434
Q

What happens after seizure

A

Slow time to recover
Confused
Weakness in arm

435
Q

What happens in focal parietal seizure

A

Sensory loss or tingling in body

436
Q

What happens in focal frontal seizure

A

Spasms
Todds paresis after
Involuntary actions
Jacksonian march

437
Q

What happens in jacksonian march

A

Spasms spread from distal to proximal muscles

438
Q

Investigations for epilepsy

A

EEG
Bloods
CT

439
Q

Bloods ordered after seizure

A

Glucose
FBC to look if infection as cause
U&Es as can cause seizure

440
Q

Main problems of epilepsy drugs

A

Weight gain

Depression

441
Q

Management of focal epilepsy

A

First line carbamezapine

Second line lmaotrigine

442
Q

Management of generalised epilepsy

A

Sodium valproate is first line

Second line carbamezapine

443
Q

Which antiepileptic should be strictly avoided in pregnancy

A

Sodium valproate

444
Q

Complications of epilepsy

A

SUDEP (sudden death in epilepsy)
Behavioural problems
Fractures (from seizures)
Complications from drugs

445
Q

First line management of status elipticus

A

ABC- secure airway

THEN LORAZEPAM

446
Q

What antibody can be found in GBS

A

Anti ganglioside

447
Q

Investigations for GBS

A

Spirometry to check FVC
LP- high protein, albumincytological dissociation
Nerve conduction studies showing decreased velocity

448
Q

What is pathophysiology of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Increase in size of ventricles without increase in CSF volume

449
Q

What can cause non communicating/obstructive hydrocephalus

A

Stenosis of cerebral aqueduct

Lesions of posterior fossa

450
Q

Wha causes white matter damage in hydrocephalus

A

Seapage out through ventricle walls

451
Q

What are sunset eyes seen in

A

Hydrocephalus

452
Q

What are sunset eyes

A

Eyes permenantly looking downwards

453
Q

What are investigations for hydrocephalus

A

CT/MRI

Intraventricular drain

454
Q

Where is lesion in radiculopathy, CES and spinal chord compression

A

CES- below L2 over cauda equina
Spinal chord compression- above cauda euina in spinal chord
Radiculopathy the spinal nerve root is affected

455
Q

Causes of spinal chord compression

A
Pagets
Osteoporosis
Steroid use
Cancer
Osteoarthritis
Intervertebral disease
Trauma
456
Q

What are signs below and at level of chord compression

A

LMN at site

UMN below

457
Q

Investigations for chord compression

A

Bloods- FBC, U&Es, LFTs, calcium, ESR, immunoglobulins
MRI
Urinalysis for bence jones proteins

458
Q

What causes dissociative seizures

A

Hx of abuse, psychological or emotional precipitants

459
Q

What are features of dissociative seizures

A

NO biological correlate
Prolonged duration
Hx of abuse, psychological or emotional precipitants

460
Q

How does a radiculopathy present

A

Sensory loss in a dermatome
Pain and numbness in that area
Weakness in those muscles supplied

461
Q

Where is weakness in sciatica

A

The calfs

462
Q

Where is pain in sciatica

A

Back of thigh and buttock

463
Q

What is nerve affected in sciatica

A

Lumbosacral

464
Q

Causes of radiculpathies

A
Degenerative disc disease
Spondylolisthesis
Osteoarthritis
Cancer
Abscess
465
Q

What is spondylolisthesis

A

Forward protrusion of vertebral disc impinging on nerve

466
Q

How is sciatica diagnosed

A

Clinically using straight leg test

467
Q

What is done in straight leg test

A

Someone flexes the hip with straight leg and if pain of sciatica is replicated then is positive- lesagues sign

468
Q

What is a positive lesagues sign

A

Pain replicated on passive flexion of straight hip

469
Q

What is a positive lesague test indicative of

A

Sciatica

470
Q

Investigations for sciatica

A

Straight leg test

MRI/CT to visualise the cause

471
Q

What happens to liver in acute phase of drinking alcohol

A

Steatosis with no symptoms

472
Q

What tends to cause alcoholic hepatitis

A

Not necessarily binge drinking but after drinking heavily for a substantial amount of time

473
Q

How does mild alcoholic hepatitis present

A

N&V
Anorexia
Weight loss

474
Q

Sign on examination of mild alcoholic hepatitis

A

Hepatomegaly

475
Q

Presentation of severe alcoholic hepatitis

A

Jaundice
Fever
Ascites

476
Q

Signs on examination of severe alcoholic hepatitis

A

Jaundice
Bruising
Ascites
RUQ tenderness

477
Q

Investigations for alcoholic hepatitis

A

Bloods
- FBC macrocytic anaemia, WCC up
- LFTs AST, ALT and GGT all up mainly AST and GGT
- Clotting PT very high
Liver USS rule out cancer, clots and see if cirrhosis
Biopsy will show mallory denk bodies and ballooning

478
Q

What are mallory denk bodies a sign of

A

Liver inflammation not specific to any condition

479
Q

What is management in hospital of alcoholic hepatitis

A
Mainly supportive
Fluids and hydration
Feeding enterally with vitamins etc
Alcohol abstinence
Treat complications- ascites, SBP, alcohol withdrawal
480
Q

Longer term management of alcoholic hepatitis

A

Lose weight
Stop smoking and drinking
Refer to therapy groups to help with this

481
Q

Management of alcoholic hepatitis if severe in hospital

A

Can give steroids

482
Q

What are 3 parts to progression of NAFLD

A

Steatosis
NASH
Cirrhosis

483
Q

What are rfs for NAFLD

A

Hyperlipidaemia
HTN
Diabetes
Obesity

484
Q

Management of NAFLD

A

Exercise
Improve diet
RF management- statin for cholesterol, metformin for DM, HTN drugs

485
Q

Investigations for NAFLSD

A

LFTs- high ALT and AST

Measure Hba1c and cholesterol

486
Q

What can be sign on examination of insulin resistance

A

Acanthosis nigricans

487
Q

Why cant metfromin be given in liver failure

A

Risk of metabolic acidosis

488
Q

How do hep a and e present

A

Acutely with jaundice

489
Q

What is presentation of Hep A

A

Prodrome of fever, malaise and vomiting

Then get jaundice, RUQ pain, dark urine and pale stools

490
Q

What is only hepatic cause of jaundice that gives you pale stools

A

hep A

491
Q

Transmission of Hep A

A

Faeco oral-
Gay sex
Contaminated water

492
Q

Management of Hep A and E

A

Supportive

Avoid alcohol and

493
Q

Management of acute Hep B

A

Supportive as 90% of people will self recover

494
Q

Management of acute Hep C

A

Antiviral- sofosbuvir or ledipasvir

Same for chronic

495
Q

Management of chronic Hep C

A

Antiviral- sofosbuvir or ledipasvir

Same for acute

496
Q

What is role of anti virals in chronic Hep B

A

Suppress viral replication but isnt curative

497
Q

Management of Hep B if compensated liver disease

A

If liver working well then give peg interferon

498
Q

Management of Hep B if decompensated liver disease

A

Tenofovir or entecavir

499
Q

Management of Hep D superimposed on Hep B

A

Tenofovir and peg interferon

500
Q

How can Hep E affect pregnant women differently

A

Strong chance will progress to liver failure

501
Q

How does Hep E affect immunocompromised individuals differently

A

More likely to become chronic

502
Q

Difference on serology of Hep D chronic vs acute

A
Acute
IgM
HepD RNA
Chronic
IgG
HepD RNA
Will always be RNA no matter if acute or not
503
Q

What is main difference between transmission of Hep B vs C

A

Hep B more likely to be form sex

Hep C more likely to be from poor medical products

504
Q

What is Hep C serology findings infection vs cleared

A

Firstly do HCV IgG- present in all forms
Then check for HCV RNA
If cleared will be absent
If acute or chronic will have

505
Q

Serology findings of chronic Hep C

A

HCV IgG

HCV RNA positive for over 6 months

506
Q

Serology findings of cleared Hep C infection

A

HCV IgG

RNA negative

507
Q

Serology findings of acute Hep C infection

A

HCV IgG

RNA positive for less than 6 months

508
Q

Secondary causes of haemochromatosis

A

Iron overload from transfusions

509
Q

Causes of haemochromatosis

A

Hereditary haemochromatosis

Iron overload

510
Q

What can haemochromatosis progress to

A

CIrrhosis

Cancer

511
Q

What is differnce between macronodular and micronodular cirrhosis

A

Size of nodules
<3cm is micro
>3cm is macro

512
Q

What tends to be difference in cause of micro and macro nodular cirrhosis

A

Macro is viral

Micro alcohol

513
Q

Common causes of liver cirrhosis

A
Alcohol
Hep B/C
NASH
Haemochromatosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
PSC and PBC
514
Q

Definition of NAFLD

A

Fatty damage to liver having not drank the alcohol to cause damage such damage

515
Q

Define liver cirrhosis

A

Replacement of healthy liver tissue with fibrosis and nodules of regenerating hepatocytes

516
Q

Long term management of liver cirrhosis

A

Avoid hepatotoxic drugs
Work out MELD score
6 monthly USS
Endoscopy on diagnosis and 3 yearly one to look for varcies

517
Q

What is MELD score

A

Model for end stage liver disease

518
Q

4 main complications of liver cirrhosis

A

Ascites
SBP
Encephalopathy
Varices

519
Q

Management of ascites

A
Ascitic tap and sample
Sodium and fluid restrict
Spironolactone and or furosemide
Therapeutic paracentesis
Albumin supplementation
520
Q

Management of SBP

A

Broad spectrum Abx- cefuroxamine and metronidazole

521
Q

Most common cause of SBP

A

E coli

522
Q

Management of encephalopathy (4 points)

A
Lactulose and phosphate enemas
Protein restrict short term
Treat cause (infection, GI bleed)
Avoid sedation
523
Q

What are common tirggers for encephalopathy

A

Infection
GI bleed
High protein diet

524
Q

Primary prevention of oesophageal varices if small if picked up on endoscopy

A

Non selective beta blocker- pindolol or propanolol

525
Q

Acute management of oesophageal varices

A

ABCDE
IV access- fluids or blood if Hb beloe 70
Terlipressin and abx
If this doesnt work sengstaken blakemore tube
After resus and haemoodynamically stable do endoscopic band ligation

526
Q

Primary prevention of oesophageal varices if large if picked up on endoscopy

A

Endoscopic band ligation

527
Q

Secondary prevention of oesophageal varices

A

Pindolol or propanolol started after 2-5 days

If propanolol or endoscopic band ligation fails do TIPS

528
Q

Definition of liver failure

A

Dysfunction of liver leading to jaundice, encephalopathy and coagulopathy

529
Q

How is liver failure classified

A

Based on onset of encephalopathy following jaundice
Hyperacute- within 7 days
Acute- 1-4 weeks
Subacute- 4-12 weeks

530
Q

What is most common cause of acute liver failure

A

Paracetamol

531
Q

Investigations for liver failure acute

A

Viral serology

Paracetamol mesurements

532
Q

Management of liver failure

A

Treat cause ie paracetamol OD
Suportive
Treat complications
Transplant ideally

533
Q

RUQ pain that radiates to shoulder with jaundice

A

Liver abscess

534
Q

RUQ pain with jaundice, travel history and diarrorhoea

A

Entamoeba histolytica abscess

535
Q

Most common cause of liver abscess in child

A

S.aureus

536
Q

Most common cause of liver abscess in adults

A

E coli

537
Q

What is major risk factor for hydatid cyst

A

Contact with sheep

538
Q

What organism causes hydatid cyst

A

Tapework echinoccus granulosis

539
Q

4 causes of liver cyst/abscess according to amir sam

A

Pyogenic
Amoebic abscess
Hydatid cyst
TB

540
Q

What is blood finding for hydatid cyst

A

Eosinophilia

Serology positive

541
Q

Aspiration finding for amoebic abscess in liver

A

Anchovy sauce with necrotic hepatocytes and trophozoites

542
Q

What is a trophozoite

A

Early stage of life parasite

543
Q

How is amoebic abscess best diagnosed

A

Stool sample

544
Q

How is hydatid cyst best diagnosed

A

Stool sample

545
Q

What is cholelithisasis vs biliary colic

A

Cholelithiasis is gallstones in the gall bladder whereas biliary colic is with this with pain

546
Q

Management of biliary colic vs cholelithiasis vs cholecystitis

A

Bilairy colic- analgesia and elective cholecystectomy
Cholelithiasis- no management
Cholecystitis- clear fluids, fluid resus, analgesia, IV abx, lap chole within a week

547
Q

What is difference between asymptomatic stone in CBD, stone in CBD with pain and cholangitis

A

Asymptomatic stone in CBD- choledocholithiasis
Painful stone in CBD- biliary colic
Painful stone in CBD with infection- cholangitis

548
Q

Management of choledocholitiasis

A

ERCP and lap chole

549
Q

Management of biliary colic in CBD

A

Analgesia
ERCP
Lap chole

550
Q

Managemnet of biliary colic in CBD vs cystic duct

A

Have to do ERCP if in common bilde duct

551
Q

When is percutaneous cholecystostomy only indicated in acute cholecystitis

A

If complicated ie empyema

552
Q

Complications of choledocholithiasis

A

Pancreatitis
Asceding cholangitis
Obstructive jaundice

553
Q

Complications of cholecystitis long term

A

Porcelain gall bladder

Increased GB cancer risk

554
Q

What is florid duct lesion on histology seen in

A

PBC

555
Q

What is concentric onion skin fibrosis seen in

A

PSC

556
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic cancer

A
Obesity
T2DM
Chronic pancreatitis
Smoking
MEN
557
Q

Signs on examination of pancreatic cancer

A
Corvoursiers law
Trousseas sign
Hepatomegaly if met
Scleral icterus
Cachexia
558
Q

Gold standard for diagnosing pancreatic cancer

A

ERCP with biopsy

559
Q

Most common source of mets to liver

A
Oesophagus
Bowel
Breast
Pancreas
Stomach
560
Q

Risk factors for primary liver cancer

A
Viral hepatitis, Hep C and B most common
Alcoholic cirrhosis
PSC and PBC
Haemochromatosis
AIH
NAFLD
561
Q

Symptoms of liver cancer

A
Anorexia
RUQ pain
Weight loss
Malaise
Jaundice
562
Q

Investigations for liver cancer

A

Bloods- LFTS, AFP
CT
Biopsy

563
Q

Gold standard for liver cancer

A

Biopsy

564
Q

Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma

A

PSC
Cirrhosis
Worms

565
Q

Stroke territory if cant name an item they can see in front of them

A

Posterior- visual agnosia

566
Q

What is abx given in variceal bleed management

A

Tazocin

567
Q

Why is tazocin given in variceal bleed

A

Portal HTN increases risk of SBP

568
Q

What causes palpable kidneys

A

PCKD
Cancer
Hydronephrosis

569
Q

Causes of suprapubic mass

A

Bladder cancer

Bladder retention

570
Q

Causes of pain in suprapubic

A

Bladder cancer
Urinary retention
Torsion

571
Q

RIF in elderly

A

Caecal- volvulus, cancer

Aorta

572
Q

Diarrhoea in young person

A
IBD
Gastroenteritis
Coeliac
Hyperthyroid
IBS
573
Q

What causes pain on eating 4 things

A

Chronic mesenteric ischaemia
GORD
Peptic ulcers
Gallstones

574
Q

What endocarditis causing organism is associated with colorectal cancer

A

Strep bovis

575
Q

First sign of hyperkalaemia on ECG

A

Tented T waves

576
Q

Blood abnormalities in hypothyroidism

A

Macrocytic non megaloblastic anaemia

577
Q

Risk factors for endocarditis

A
Damaged valves
Artifical valves
IVDU
Dental stuff
Immunocompromised
578
Q

Difference between pulmonary HTN and Cor pulmonale

A

Pulmonary HTN- heart hypertrophies due to having to work harder
In cor pulmonale there is failure of RH and so dilates

579
Q

How much post bronchodilator change must there be in asthma

A

Over 12 %

580
Q

Mouth ulcers differentials

A
SLE
Behcets
Crohns
Coeliac 
Anaemia
581
Q

Pathophysiological causes of anal fissure

A

Hard stools tearing mucosal lining of distal anal canal

Poor blood supply

582
Q

Risk factors for anal fissure

A

Constipation
(anything that causes constipation like opiates)
Pregnancy

583
Q

How do you examine an anal fissure

A

You cant do DRE- mainly clinical diagnosis

Must be under anaesthetic

584
Q

First line management of anal fissure

A

Manage constipation- more fibre and water
Sitz baths
Topical GTN or diltiazem

585
Q

How long do anal fissure normally take to heal

A

6-8 weeks

586
Q

Management of anal fissures if persist

A

Botulinim injection

Surgical sphincterectomy

587
Q

What is a sitz bath

A

Use warm water on buttocks

588
Q

What causes frequent abscesses around the anus

A

Anal fistula

589
Q

What are rfx for anal fistula

A

Crohns
Trauma
Radiation
Clogged anal glands

590
Q

How do anal fistulas present

A

Frequent anal abscesses
Pain and abscesses around the anus
Bloody foul smelling drainage inuinderwear

591
Q

What presents with pus in underwear thats foul smelling

A

Anal fistula

592
Q

How does an anal fistula appear on examination

A

Opening of skin around the anus

Swelling

593
Q

What is an anal fistula

A

Connection between anal canal and skin surrounding the anus

594
Q

How do you examine an anal fistula

A

Rectoscope

If doesnt work consider MRI or examination under anaesthetic

595
Q

How to manage anal fistulas

A

Fistulotomy

Seton

596
Q

Risk factors for anal abscesses

A

Crohns
Anal fistulas
Constipation

597
Q

How do anal abscesses present

A

Perianal pain not related to defaecation
Perianal swelling and tenderness
LOOK OUT for fever and tachycardia if shock

598
Q

Diagnosis for anal abscess

A

Visualise abscess or EUA then MRI if internal pelvic abscess

599
Q

Management of anal abscess

A

Surgical drainage of abscess
Fistulotomy
IF SYSTEMIC give ABX

600
Q

What are 2 types of anal haemorrhoid

A

Internal or external

Depends if above or below the dentate line

601
Q

What is boundary between internal and external haemorrhoids

A

Dentate line

602
Q

What are rfx for haemorrhoids

A

Constipation
Pregnancy
SOL in pelvis

603
Q

Presentation of haemorrhoids

A

Painlesss bleeding with defacation
Can be painful and cause discomfort
Anal pruritus
Palpable mass

604
Q

How to diagnose a haemorrhoid

A

Anoscope

Can consider colonoscopy to rule out other diagnoses and FBC

605
Q

Conservative management of haemorrhoids

A

Lifestyle- fibre and water

Discourage straining

606
Q

What is management of grade 1 haemorrhoids

A

Topical corticosteroids to alleviate itching

607
Q

What is management of grade 2 haemorrhoids

A

Rubber band ligation

608
Q

What is management of grade 3 haemorrhoids

A

Rubber band ligation

609
Q

What is management of grade 4 haemorrhoids

A

Surgical haemorrhoidectomy

610
Q

Complication of haemorrhoids

A

Thrombosed haemorrhoid

611
Q

How to manage thrombosed haemorrhoid

A

Conservative - stool softeners, ice packs, warm baths, analgesia
If very severe or early on in presentation can consider excision

612
Q

How does a thrombosed haemorrhoid present

A

Significant pain and tender lump

613
Q

How does a thrombosed haemorrhoid appear on examination

A

Purple
Oedematous
Sub cut mass

614
Q

What causes pilonidal sinus

A

Caused by forceful insertion of hairs into skin of natal cleft

615
Q

Rfx for pilonidal sinus

A

Young males
Stiff hair
Hirsutism

616
Q

Presentaion of pilonidal sinus

A

Pain when sitting down
Swelling
Discharge that can be offensive and stains underwear

617
Q

Investigation for pilonidal sinus

A

Clinincal diagnosis

618
Q

How to manage pilonidal sinus if symptomatic

A

Surgical management to excise it
Antibiotics
Laser hair removal
Local hygiene advice

619
Q

Management of asymptomatic pilonidal sinus

A

Laser hair removal and local hygiene advice

620
Q

What is lynch syndrome

A

HNPCC

621
Q

Rfx for colonic cancer

A
Age
Obesity
UC
Acromegaly
Poor fibre intake
HNPCC
FAP
622
Q

Signs on examinatin of colon cancer

A
Koilonychia
Cachexia
Lymphadenopathy
Mass
Ascites
623
Q

How old do you have to be to be investigated urgently for IDA

A

60

624
Q

What imaging is used for colon cancer

A

Colonoscopy with biopsy
Double contrast barium enema
CTAP for staging

625
Q

What imaging is apple core sign seen on

A

Double contrast barium swallow

626
Q

Risk factors for crohns

A

FHx
Smoking
OCP
High sugar diet

627
Q

What condition is seen frequnetly in the ashkenazi jews

A

Crohns

628
Q

Where can pain be in crohns

A

RIF and periumbilical

629
Q

Signs on examination of crohns

A
Oral ulcers
RIF tenderness
Fistulae
Abscesses
Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
Episcleritis
630
Q

CT findings of crohns

A

Bowel wall thickening

Skip lesions

631
Q

Barium findings of crohns

A

Rose thorn ulcers

String sign of kantor

632
Q

What do rose thorn ulcers refer to

A

Deep ulcerations

633
Q

What does string sign of kantor suggest

A

Fibrosis and strictures

634
Q

What is seen on colonoscopy of crohns

A

Ulcers

Cobblestoning

635
Q

How is crohns confirmed

A

Histology

636
Q

How is crohns treated in relapse

A

IV steroids and azathioprine/mercatopurine/methotrexate

637
Q

What further therapy can be given to crohns patients to induce remission

A

Biologics- adalimumab or infliximab

638
Q

What is severe management stricture in crohns management

A

Surgery

639
Q

What is further adjunct management of crohns

A

Nutritional management
Perianal disease mx
Smoking cessation

640
Q

How are extra intestinal manifestatoins of crohns and UC managed

A

MDT

641
Q

Maintaining remission in crohns

A

Infliximab

Azathioprine or any other immunomodulator

642
Q

What immunomodulators are given in crohns

A

Azathioprine
Mercatopurine
Methotrexate

643
Q

Risk factors for UC

A

FHx
HLAB27
Not smoking

644
Q

Examination finding of UC

A

Skin
Episcleritis
Anaemia
DRE see blood

645
Q

Investigations for UC bloods

A

FBC -anaemia
LFTs- PSC and albumin
CRP and ESR
pANCA

646
Q

Histology signs of UC

A

Crypt abscesses
Goblet cell depletion
Mucosal ulceration

647
Q

What is seen on UC plain AXR

A

Severe dilation of large bowel
Leadpipe
Thumbprinting
Ank Spond

648
Q

What is a double contrast barium swallow

A

Use negative and psoitive contrasts to increase sensitivity

649
Q

Double contrast barium swallow findings UC

A

Thickened haustra

Leadpiping

650
Q

Treatment of aute UC

A

Oral betclamethasone

Mesalazine

651
Q

Maintaining remission UC

A

Azathioprine
Infliximab

Niche ciclosporin and vedolizumab

652
Q

How to cure UC

A

Total colectomy

653
Q

4 comlications of UC

A
Toxic megacolon
PSC
Adenocarcinoma
Strictures
Obstruction and perforation
654
Q

Histology finding of coeliac

A

Subvillous atropy
Crypt hyperplasia
Lymphocyte infiltrates

655
Q

RFs coeliac

A

T1DM
Autoimmune thyroid
FHx
IgA deficiency

656
Q

Management of coeliac

A

Gluten free diet

Vitamin supplements

657
Q

Investigations for IBS

A

Exclude coeliac, IBD
Bloods- anaemia, CRP
TTG, IgA
FIT and calprotectin

658
Q

Main difference between IBS and coeliac

A

Pain relieved by defacation in IBS

659
Q

What is R in CURB 65

A

30

660
Q

What are absent a waves seen in

A

A fib

661
Q

What is preferred as method of cardioversion in early AF treatment

A

Electrical

662
Q

What can PSM heard best at left sternal edge be

A

VSD

Tricuspid regurg

663
Q

In acute COPD what comes first ABG or peak flow

A

ABG

664
Q

When is only time permitted to DC cardiovert earlier than 3 weeks AF

A

TTE

665
Q

What is fleischner sign seen in

A

PE on CXR

Will show enlarged pulmonary arteries

666
Q

What is atelectasis to percussion

A

Dull

667
Q

In DVT what is normally the most major risk factor

A

Smoking

668
Q

If a young person is in dilated cardiomyopathy HF what think of as cause

A

Myocarditis

669
Q

What type of heparin is given in acute limb ischaemia

A

UFH

670
Q

What is most common site for ablation in atrial flutter

A

Tricuspid valve isthmus

671
Q

What is main difference in treatment of atrial flutter vs AF

A

Atrial flutter responds much better to DC cardioversion, is quite poor to chemical

672
Q

What are 2 types of V tach

A

Monomorphic

Polymorphic

673
Q

What is only type of polymorphic v tach need to know

A

Torsades des pointes

674
Q

What ACS gives you permenant ST elevation that isnt STEMI

A

Prinzmetal angina

675
Q

What is screening method for abdominal aorta

A

One off surveillance for all men over 65

Then depending on size plan from there is determined

676
Q

What does susceptible mean with regards to serology

A

Never any exposure

677
Q

What gives granulocytes with absent granulation and hyposegmented nuclei

A

Myelodysplasia

678
Q

What are 2 tpyes of bladder cancer

A

Transitional

Squamous

679
Q

What to think of as differentials for lower abdo pain

A
Diverticular pain
Cancer
Constipation
UC
Pseudomembranous
680
Q

What are causes of viral meningitis

A

HSV
Polio
Cocksackie

681
Q

What type of pericarditis are steroids containdicated in

A

Viral

682
Q

What does rheumatic fever cause in heart

A

Endocarditis

683
Q

Which drugs shouldnt be given in HF with reduced EF

A

CCBs

684
Q

Common arrythmia causing acute HF

A

Palpitations

685
Q

Acute HF causes

A

MI

Atrial flutter or any arrythmia

686
Q

What typically is type of gangrene in gut

A

Wet

687
Q

What causes dry vs wet gangrene

A

Dry typically arterial

Wet typically venous insufficiency

688
Q

If cardiac arrest is witnessed by someone how many shocks are given

A

3

689
Q

Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Myocarditis
Alcohol
Haemochromatosis
Sarcoid

690
Q

Why would sarcoid cause chest pain

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

691
Q

What WELLS score suggests DVT likely or not

A

2 or more

692
Q

What do if WELLS score 2 or more

A

US of leg within 4 hours

If not available do D-dimer and anticoagulate with US within 24 hours

693
Q

What do if WELLS score 1

A

Do dimer with result in 1 hour

694
Q

If WELLS score 1 and d dimer positive what do

A

Same as if WELLS was 2

695
Q

What counts as high grace score risk

A

3% or above

696
Q

What does GRACE score do

A

Work out 6 month mortality

697
Q

What is difference between primary and secondary dose statin

A

Primary is 20mg

Secondary is 80mg

698
Q

What is done if 80mg statin not tolerated

A

Lower dose or switch to different drug

699
Q

Before doing CTPA what is one investigation must do

A

CXR

700
Q

What is difference in kussmals sign between cardiac tamponade and constrictive pericarditis

A

Kussmals positive in constrictive pericarditis

Negative in tamponade

701
Q

Which lung cancer is assocaited with gynaecomastia

A

Adenocarcinoma

702
Q

Leg pain on walking differentials

A

Ischaemia
Buergers disease
Spinal canal stenosis

703
Q

Vertigo lasting around an hour

A

Vestibular migraine
TIA
MS
Vestibular neuronitis

704
Q

Vertigo lasting a few seconds

A

Menieres
BPPV
Vestibular neuronitis