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Year 3 Conditions > Laz book > Flashcards

Laz book Flashcards

1
Q

What is an austin flint murmur

A

Seen in severe aortic regurg- mid diastolic

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2
Q

What is a graham stell murmur heard in

A

Pulmonary regurg

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3
Q

What is a gibson murmur heard in

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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4
Q

What is a carey coomb murmur associated with

A

Rheumatic fever

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5
Q

What are barlows murmurs

A

Mid systolic click and end systolic murmur assocaited with mitral valve prolapse

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6
Q

What is name of murmur heard in mitral valve prolapse

A

Barlow

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7
Q

How dogetses minimal change disease appear on light microscopy

A

No change to glomerulus

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8
Q

How does minimal change disease appear on electron microscopy

A

Loss of podocytes

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9
Q

What artery is involved in posterior MIs

A

Posterior descending

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10
Q

Extra articular manifestations of RA

A

Subcut nodules
Episcleritis
ILD

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11
Q

What is trigger finger seen in

A

RA

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12
Q

What is radial deviation of wrist seen in

A

RA

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13
Q

What is Z deformity of thumb seen in

A

RA

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14
Q

Iron studies of haemochromatosis

A 
High serum Fe
High ferrititin
Low trasnferrin
High transferrin saturation
Low TIBC
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15
Q

Where is mutation in hereditary haemochromatosis

A

Hepcidin defiency leading to unregulated iron absorption in duodenum

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16
Q

Secondary causes of osteoporosis

A

Cushings
Hyperthyroidism
Hypogonadism

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17
Q

What is arons sign

A

Press on McBurneys and get epigastric pain

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18
Q

What is most common type of skin cancer

A

BCC

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19
Q

Where do skin SCCs appear

A

In sun exposed areas

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20
Q

What is a raised, everted edges with ulcerative centre and keratotic core

A

SCC

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21
Q

What is keratocanthoma

A

Variat of SSC that doesnt metastasise

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22
Q

What is skin lesion with raised edges and a fine telengiectasia on the surface

A

BCC

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23
Q

How thick should AAs be

A

2cm

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24
Q

How often should aortic aneurysms 3-4.5cm be checked

A

Every year

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25
Q

How often should aortic aneurysms 4.6-5.4cm be checked

A

Every 3 months

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26
Q

What organs can be involved in kaposi sarcomas

A

GI

Lungs

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27
Q

AIDS defining conditions

A 
Kaposi sarcoma
Candidiasis
PCP
Toxoplasmosis
Burkitts lymphoma
Cervical cancer
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28
Q

Drug for a benzo OD

A

Flumezanil

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29
Q

When is n acetyl cysteine administered

A

Paracetamol levels measured 4hrs post OD and if above a certain level give

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30
Q

Which atypical pneumonia causes red cell agglutination

A

Mycoplasma

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31
Q

What are grades of haemorrhoids

A

1- no prolapse
2- prolapse on defaecation but reduces spontaneously
3- prolapse that can be reduced manually
4- remains persitently prolapsed and cant be reduced

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32
Q

What are the types of rectal prolpse

A

Type 1- only the mucosa protrudes through

Type 2- all rectum layers protrude

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33
Q

How do type 2 prolapses feel

A

Concentric muscular rings

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34
Q

Symptoms of rectal prolapse

A

Faecal incontinence but can be constipation

Mucus discharge

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35
Q

What causes rectal prolapses

A

Lax anal tones- damage to pudendal nerve

Prolonged straining

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36
Q

What to think about when has pericarditis in PMH

A

Recent MI
If has been a few days then post MI pericarditis
If more than 2 weeks then is dressler syndrome

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37
Q

Primary HSV 1 infection

A

Pharyngitis
Gingivostomatitis
Herpetic whitlow

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38
Q

How does reactivated HSV 1 present

A

Lies dormant in trigeminal ganglia then when stress like cold, immunocompromised you get herpes labialis

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39
Q

How does costochondritis present

A

Pleuritic pain worse on exercise

Tender on palpation eother side of palpation

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40
Q

What causes molluscum contagiosum

A

Pox virus

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41
Q

Who does molluscum contagiosum normallu present in

A

Children

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42
Q

How is molluscum contagiosum transmitted

A

Skin to skin so adults normally sex

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43
Q

How does molluscum contagiosum present in adults

A

Dome shaped, firm and smooth will umbilicated centre on lower abdomen and genitals which lasts for 8 months

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44
Q

What organism causes syphillis

A

Treponema pallidum

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45
Q

How does syphilis present

A

Single painless genital ulcer followed by lymphadenopathy and widespread skin lesions

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46
Q

Dome shaped, firm and smooth will umbilicated centre on lower abdomen and genitals which lasts for 8 months

A

molluscum contagiosum

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47
Q

Single painless genital ulcer followed by lymphadenopathy and widespread skin lesions

A

syphilis

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48
Q

Earliest sign of HBV acute infection in blood

A

HBsAg

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49
Q

How is chronic HBV diagnosed

A

HBsAg in blood 6 months after infection

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50
Q

What antigens can be present in acute HBV infection

A

HBsAg
HBeAG
HBcAg

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51
Q

What is HBeAg

A

Associated with nucleocaspid

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52
Q

How does ank spond present

A

Lower back pain
Stiffness worse in morning
Improves with activity

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53
Q

What is done in schobers test

A

Line drawn on L5 and 10cm above. When patient bends over should extend beyond 15cm. If less than 15cm indicates ank spond or any condition affection flexion of spine

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54
Q

What is best diagnostic test for prostate cancer

A

Transurethral biopsy of prostate

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55
Q

After high dose dexamethasone what is best way to differentaite between ectopic ACTH and adrenal adenoma

A

Give metyrapone

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56
Q

What is red reflex

A

When shine light in eye in fundoscopy can see a red reflection of this light

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57
Q

What causes loss of red reflex physiologically

A

Something blocking retina

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58
Q

What causes loss of red reflex adults

A

Cataracts

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59
Q

What causes loss of red reflex children

A

Retinoblastoma

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60
Q

What is seen in eye anterior uveitis

A

Red ring around eye

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61
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome

A

Stenosis of subclavian proximal to vertebral artery means blood leaks out of vertebral artery into the subclavian often when arm is being used extensively

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62
Q

Causes of subclavian steal syndrome

A

Cervical rib
Takayasus
Atherosclerosis

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63
Q

What drug is blurred vision often associated with

A

Anti-muscarinics like atropine

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64
Q

What drug is a tremor often associated with

A

Beta agonists

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65
Q

How is synovial fluid described in septic arthritis

A

Turbid

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66
Q

What causes vitiligo

A

Autoimmune attack of melanocytes

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67
Q

Why do you get vitiligo in addisons

A

Autoimmune conditions often go hand in hand

If cause TB then wouldnt see vitiligo

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68
Q

Gastric cancer presentation

A 
Dyspepsia
Early satiety
Vomiting
Bloating
Malaena
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69
Q

Difference in presentation between right and left colon cancer

A

Right- pain and anaemia signs, Will be later

Left- change in habits, PR bleeding. Will be earlier

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70
Q

What is supplied by PCA

A

inferior portions of temporal lobe

Occipital lobes

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71
Q

Presentation of PCA stroke

A

Prosopagnosia
Visual agnosia
Sensory deficits
Visual defects

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72
Q

What does MCA supply

A

Subcortical structures
Internal capsule
Lateral parietal and temporal lobes

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73
Q

Cause of secondary HTN in young person

A

Coarctation of aorta

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74
Q

What area of leg goes meralgia parasthetica affect

A

Outside of thigh

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75
Q

What causes meralgia parasthetica

A

Weightgain leading to tight clothes compressing lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

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76
Q

Why is there raised cholesterol in liver disease

A

Liver role to break down cholesterol

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77
Q

Examination finding of PBC

A 
Raised cholesterol signs
RUQ tenderness
Excoriation marks
Jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly
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78
Q

What conditions is PBC associated with

A

Sjogrens
RA
Coeliac

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79
Q

What is ramsay hunt syndrome

A

Reactivation of zaricella zoster in the facial nerve causing a type of shingles

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80
Q

How does ramsay hunt sydrome present

A

Facial nerve palsy
Altered taste
Dry eyes and mouth
Vesicular rash in the ear

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81
Q

Histological appearance on duodenal biopsy of coeliac

A

Subvillous atropy

Crypt hyperplasia

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82
Q

What are rouleaux formations seen in

A

Myeloma

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83
Q

What are rouleaux formations

A

Stacks of red cells that in myelomas form due to high numbers of Igs

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84
Q

What are granulocytes with absent granulation and hyposegmentation seen in

A

Myelodysplastic disorders

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85
Q

In pancreatitis what is first line investigation in terms of imaging

A

US

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86
Q

What can be seen on US pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic inflammation
Calcification
Free fluid

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87
Q

If patient has renal insufficiency what investigation is done second line for pancreatitis

A

MRCP as cant tolerate contrast

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88
Q

Why cant you exclude pancreatitis on basis of normal or slightly elevated pancreatitis

A

Has half life of 12 hours

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89
Q

What can kussmal sign be seen in

A

Constrictive pericarditis

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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90
Q

Why are venturi masks used in COPD

A

Most accurate at delivering O2

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91
Q

Management of PEA and asystole

A 
CPR while getting paddles ready
Defibrillate
CPR 2 mins
Defibrillate second time
IV adrenaline
Repeat every every 3-5mins
IV amiodarone after 3rd defibrillation
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92
Q

When is IV amiodarone given in PEA management

A

After 3rd defibrillation

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93
Q

What happens to varicoceles when lie down

A

Reduce only visible or palpable when standing or in valsava movements

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94
Q

If patient has arcuate fasiculus lesion what will speech disorder be

A

Cant repeat speech told to them

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95
Q

B sx of lymphoma

A

Fever
Night sweats
Weight loss

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96
Q

What are 4 tests for h.pylori

A

Urease breath test
Blood antibody
Stool antigen
CLO test

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97
Q

How is CLO test done

A

Done on biopsy

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98
Q

What is uptake of iodine in de quervains

A

No uptake as cells damaged

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99
Q

Pathophysiology of de quervains

A

Thyroid cells get damaged causing release of T4 in short run but then after a few days become hypo when stores run out

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100
Q

First line management of TIA

A

Aspirin 300mg

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101
Q

Management of GORD

A

Lifestyle- avoid spicy food, lose weight, small regular meals before bed,
Medical- daily PPI-> twice if not improved

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102
Q

What drugs shouldnt be used in dysphagia

A

TCA
Nitrates
Anti-cholinergics

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103
Q

How should bladder cancer be investigated

A

Cystoscopy

Biopsy

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104
Q

What is ruddy red complexion a feature of

A

Polycythaemia vera

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105
Q

What ABs present in AI hepatitis

A

ANA
ASMA
ALKM

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106
Q

What are ALKM Abs

A

Anti liver kidney microscopic

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107
Q

Murmurs on examination of cor pulmonale

A

Pan-systolic- tricuspid regurg

Graham steell

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108
Q

What are 5 presentations of psoriatic arthritis

A 
DIP disease
Spondyloarthropathy- axial skeleton affected
Symmetrical polyarthritis
Arthritis mutilans
Asymmetrical oligoarthritis
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109
Q

What is see before a partial seizure

A

Aura

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110
Q

What is seen during a generalised seizure

A

Tongue biting
Limb jerking
Incontinence

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111
Q

How does time of syncope differentiate seizure from other cause

A

Seizure lasts minutes

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112
Q

How are you after a seizure

A

Takes a while to recover

Very confused

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113
Q

How are you before a vasovagal syncope

A

Sweating
Pallor
Nausea

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114
Q

How are you after a vasovagal episode

A

Rapid recovery on sitting or lying

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115
Q

What are symptoms of PCOS

A

Amenorrhoea
Hirsutism
Acne
Male pattern hair loss

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116
Q

What is most common cause of infertility in women

A

PCOS

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117
Q

What is PCOS assocaited with

A

Hyperlipidaemia
Obesity
Insulin resistance

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118
Q

Genetic inheritance of PCOS

A

Autosomal dominant

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119
Q

How to differentiate bacterial conjunctivitis from viral

A

Yellow crust

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120
Q

3 types of cardiomyopathy

A

Restrictive
Hypertrophic
Dilated

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121
Q

What is restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Ventricles are stiff so dont contract in response to filling

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122
Q

Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Amyloidosis
Sarcoid
Haemochromatosis

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123
Q

What are general Sx of cardiomyopathy

A

Angina
Syncope
HF sx

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124
Q

Examination findings of HOCM

A

Jerky carotid pulse
Ejection systolic murmur
Double apex beat

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125
Q

What is most commonly used drug in alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepereoxide

126
Q

What are auer rods seen in

A

AML

127
Q

Who does ALL occur in

A

Children

128
Q

What are smear and smudge cells seen in often

A

CLL

129
Q

What blood cancer are warm agglutins seen in

A

CLL

130
Q

What causes painful lymph nodes after drinking alcohol

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

131
Q

What are painless enlarging lymph nodes seen in

A

Non hodgkins lymphoma

132
Q

What are ringed sideroblasts seen in

A

Myelodysplasia

133
Q

What blood cancer is no splenomegaly seen in

A

Myelodysplasia

134
Q

Symptoms of gastritis

A

Epigastric pain
Haematemesis
Bloating
Belching

135
Q

Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Gait disturbance
Confusion/dementia
Urinary incontinence

136
Q

What is Tinels sign often associated with

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

137
Q

What is L’hermittes sign

A

If flex neck causes shooting pain down neck

138
Q

What is also known as barber seat sign

A

L’hermitte

139
Q

Where does pancreatic cancer often metastasise to

A

Liver

Local lymph nodes

140
Q

Options for PRN AF

A

Flecainide

Sotalol

141
Q

Which blood cancer is pruritus often associated with

A

hodgkins

142
Q

Blood findings of ALL

A

Pancytopenia

143
Q

Examination findings of ALL

A

Hepatosplenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
Easy bruising
Testicular swelling

144
Q

What blood cancer is associated with testicular swelling

A

ALL

145
Q

Investigation findings for ALL

A

FBC- pancytopenia
Blood film- elevated lymphoblasts
BM aspirate- Hypercellular bone marrow of over 20% of cells being lymphoblasts

146
Q

What else can be measured in urine for phaeochromocytomas

A

VMA- vanillylmendelic acid

147
Q

What does facial flushing often suggest in SBAs

A

Carcinoid syndrome

148
Q

Causes of horners syndrome

A

Pancoast
Stroke
MS
Carotid dissection

149
Q

Causes of high SAAG

A 
Constrictive pericarditis
CHF
Cirrhosis
Budd chiari
hepatic venous obstruction
150
Q

Causes of low SAAG

A 
Nephrotic syndrome
Infection
Cancer
Pancreatitis
BO
151
Q

What time does haemophilia prolong

A

APTT

152
Q

What are storage Sx also known as

A

Irritative

153
Q

How can haemophilia present

A

Painful bleeding into muscles
Painful bleeding into joints
Excessive bleeding following trauma
Random bleeding

154
Q

What can be used to visualise an abdo aorta

A

US

Contrast CT needed tho to determine if leaking

155
Q

What is hamptons hump

A

Wedge opacity

156
Q

What is westermark sign

A

Regional oligoaemia

157
Q

What is fleischner sign

A

Enlarged pulmonary artery

158
Q

What determines if do primary anastamosis or hartmanns

A

If bowel is inflamed must do Hartmanns

159
Q

What is CA 15-3 a marker for

A

Breast

160
Q

What is CA 125 a marker for

A

Ovarian

Can be gastric

161
Q

What is S100 a marker for

A

melanoma

162
Q

What is calcitonin a marker for

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

163
Q

What is thyroglobulin a marker for

A

Thyroid cancer

164
Q

What is aFP a marker for

A

Liver cancer

Non seminoma testicular cancer

165
Q

What is bHCG a marker for

A

Germ cell tumours

Choriocarcinoma

166
Q

Where does spinal canal stenosis most commonly occur

A

Lumbar spine

167
Q

What can cause spinal canal stenosis

A

Osteophytes from osteoarthritis or pagets
Disk herniation
Intrinsic cord tumours
Trauma

168
Q

What does stooped posture suggest

A

Spinal canal stenosis

169
Q

How will a spinal canal stenosis patient be sat

A

Stooped over

170
Q

What walking makes spinal canal stenosis worse

A

Walking downhill

171
Q

Difference in signs between acute CES and chronic spinal canal stenosis

A

UMN in spinal canal stneosis

LMN in acute chord compression

172
Q

What is UMN problem of bladder function

A

Detrusor hyperreflexia and sphincter dyssnergia

173
Q

What is LMN problem of bladder involvement

A

Overflow incontinence

174
Q

What is sphincter dyssnergia

A

Poor coordination between detrusor muscle and sphincter where detrusor contracts but instead of relaxing, the spincter contracts

175
Q

What is the criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Jones

176
Q

How does the jones criteria work

A

Need evidence of recent strep infection plus either 2 major criteria or 1 major and 2 minor

177
Q

Major criteria in jones criteria

A 
Arthritis
Carditis
Subcut nodules
Erythema marginatum
Sydenhams chorea
178
Q

Minor jones criteria

A 
Arthralgia
Fever
Raised CRP/ESR
Prolonged PR
Previous rheumatic fever
179
Q

What is kussmals breathing

A

Deep sighing breaths

180
Q

What is cheynes stokes breathing seen in

A

Brainstem damage or herniation

181
Q

How can para aortic node testicular cancer mets present

A

Back pain

182
Q

Which type of RF can fibrosis cause

A

T2 RF

183
Q

Important distinction when have rectal bleeding

A

Work out if on paper, streaked on stool or within the stool

184
Q

Where is blood in anal fissure

A

Blood streaked onto paper or

185
Q

Who are anal fissures often seen in

A

Crohns patients

186
Q

Where is blood in colorectal cancer

A

Mixed with the stool

187
Q

What bleeding is UC

A

Painless

188
Q

What happens to BNP in HF

A

Up

189
Q

What is Giemsa stain used in

A

Malaria

190
Q

Most common cause of travellers diarrorhoea

A

E coli

191
Q

How does giardia present

A

Not with dysentery!
Abdo cramps
Foul smelling flatulence
Belching

192
Q

What happens if give ACEi to patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis

A

AKI

193
Q

What tends to cause acute tubular necrosis

A

Hypovolaemia

Nephrotoxic drugs

194
Q

What does acute interstitial nephritis present with

A

Nausea and vomiting
Fever
Rash
AKI

195
Q

What are other names given to tonic clonic seizures and absence seizures

A

tonic clonic- grand mal

absence- petit mal

196
Q

What normally happens in absence seizures

A

Look blankly into distance
Can be chewing or blinking rhymically
Lasts a few seconds

197
Q

When do mycoclonic seizures often occur

A

When wake up

Can be in clusters

198
Q

What happens in a tonic clonic seizure

A

Go stiff and drop to floor
Then start shaking, bladder incontinence, difficulty breathing
Wake up confused and exhausted

199
Q

What is platypnoea

A

SOB improved by lying flat

200
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

When in liver disease there is reduced clearance of vasodilators leading to microscopic vasodilation in lungs. This causes hyperperfusion and hypoxaemia

201
Q

What does platypnoea often present in

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

Right to left shunts like patent foramen ovale

202
Q

Triad for behcets

A

Mouth ulcers
Penile ulcers
Uveitis

203
Q

What are triphasic parts of churg strauss syndrome

A

Allergic
Eosinophilic
Vasculitic

204
Q

What happens in allergic phase of churg strauss

A

Asthma

Allergic rhinitis

205
Q

What happens in eosinophilic phase of churg strauss

A

Very high eosinophils

206
Q

What happens in vasculitic phase of churg strauss

A

Myocardial inflammation

Reduced blood flow to heart leading to potential death

207
Q

What are 3 types of gangrene

A

Wet
Dry
Gas

208
Q

What is gas gangrene

A

When infection produces gas within gangrenous tissues

209
Q

What is difference between dry and wet gangrene

A

Wet is infection

210
Q

Most common cause of gas gangrene

A

S perfringens

211
Q

What happens in gas gangrene

A

Large black sores which can have necrotic bullae

212
Q

Gangrene with crepitus

A

Gas

213
Q

What often causes necrotising fasciitis

A

S pyogenes

S aureus

214
Q

Most common causes of cellulitis

A

S pyogenes

S aureus

215
Q

Most common cause of orbital cellulitis

A

H influenzae

216
Q

Bacteria causing biofilms on catheters and surgical implants

A

S epidermis that is normally commensal on skin

217
Q

What scar is done in swim wear models in appendicectomy

A

Lanz as along bikini line

218
Q

Which patients may have regular US to look for stones

A

Primary hyperaparathyroidism

219
Q

What gives prurulent mucous

A

Lung abscesses

Bronchiectasis

220
Q

How do lung abscess present

A

Swingnig fever

Prurulent cough

221
Q

Why isnt tensilon test used that much

A

Risk of bradycardia

222
Q

Pnemonic for microcytic anemia

A 
TAILS
Thalassaemia
ACD
IDA
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anemia
223
Q

Pnemonic for normocytic anaemia

A 
MR I CALM
Marrow failure
Renal failure
IDA early
Anaemia of Chronic disease
Aplastic anaemia
Leukaemia
Myelofibrosis
224
Q

What causes acanthosis nigricans

A

T2DM
Cushings
PCOS
Paraneoplastic syndrome from gastro cancers

225
Q

Why is acanthosis nigricans relevant to gastro exam

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome from gastro cancers

226
Q

How does daibetic dermopathy appear

A

Slightly depressed reddish-brown patches which occur on the shins

227
Q

Rash on shins with areas of reddened hardened skin with yellow centre

A

Necrobiosis lpoidica diabeticorum

228
Q

Causes of gynaecomastia drugs

A

Cimetidine
Oestrogens
Digoxin
Spironolactone

229
Q

What causes intermittent claudication of the buttocks

A

Leriche syndrome- compression of the iliac arteries around area they branch off of aorta

230
Q

What is presentation of leriche syndrome

A

Erectile dysfunction

Claudication of buttocks

231
Q

Examination finding of leriche syndrome

A

Absent distal pulses

232
Q

What relieves critical limb ischaemia pain

A

Dangling legs off end of bed

233
Q

What causes pain in legs on walking or standing for too long

A

Spinal canal stenosis

234
Q

Parkinsons gait

A

Narrow feet
Shuffling feet
Reduced arm swinging

235
Q

Complications of UC

A

Toxic megacolon

Adenocarcinoma

236
Q

Complications of crohns

A 
Abscesses
Fistula
Adhesions
Strictures
Obstruction
Perforation
237
Q

Barium follow through of crohns

A

Rose-thorn ulcers

Cobblestone mucosa

238
Q

How does aspirin OD present in SBAs

A 
Hyperventilation
Tinnitus
Deafness
Fever
Sweating
239
Q

What is it called when fever of hodgkins lymphoma is cyclical

A

Pel ebstein

240
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome

A

Occurs when chemo treatment leads to lysis of lots of tumour cells releasing their electrolytes

241
Q

What does TLS most commonly occur in

A

Lymphoma and leukaemia

242
Q

What are metabolic findings of tumour lysis syndrome

A

High K+
High PO4
High uric acid
Low Ca

243
Q

Where in oesophagus do varices occur

A

Lower 1/3

244
Q

What is duct ectasia

A

When a duct benignly grows outwards blocking other ducts

245
Q

What produces cheesy yellow discharge from nipple

A

Duct ectasia

246
Q

Cavitating lesions in lung causes

A

Infections- staph aureus, TB, mycetoma, klebsiella
Inflammatory- wegners
Cancer- SqCC

247
Q

4 components of general AKI management

A

Protecting from hyperkalaemia
Optimising fluid balance
Assessing need for dialysis
Stopping any nephrotoxic drugs

248
Q

Most common preceding infection of GBS

A

Campylobacter

249
Q

Most common causes of SBP

A

Ecoli

Klebsiella

250
Q

Presentation of staph aureus pneumonia

A

Normally proceeds a flu like illness that weakens the lungs

251
Q

Where do melanomas normally develop from

A

A naevus- described as mole like

252
Q

What test is diagnostic for UTI

A

MSU as UTI defined as pure growth of over 10 ^5 colonies of units per ml of MSU

253
Q

What is difference between NF1 and 2

A

NF1 is more peripheral and affects skin

NF2 affects centrally causing gliomas, meningiomas and vestibular schwannomas

254
Q

Tumours associated with NF2

A

gliomas, meningiomas and bilateral vestibular schwannomas

255
Q

How do vestibular schwannomas present

A

Tinnitus

Hearing loss

256
Q

What does NF1 present with

A

Cafe au lait spots
Axillary freckles
Neurocutaneous fibromas

257
Q

5 As of ankylosing spondylitis

A 
Aortic regurg
Achilles tendonitis
Anterior uveitis
Apical lung fibrosis
Amyloidosis
258
Q

Pnemonic for erythema nodosum causes

A

LOST BUSH

259
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum

A 
Lymphoma (non-hodgkins), leukaemia
Oral pill
Sarcoidosis, sulphonamides
TB, toxoplasmosis
Behcets
UC (crohns too)
Salmonella, strep infections
Histoplasmosis
260
Q

2 reasons UTIs more common in women

A

Short urethra

Closer to anus where bacteria can migrate

261
Q

What is best test to visualise extent of small bowel involvement in crohns

A

Barium follow through

262
Q

Skin findings in TB

A

Erythema nodosum

Lupus vulgaris

263
Q

What is lupus vulgaris

A

Cutaneous TB finding with crusted lesions all over face

264
Q

What is lupus vulgaris seen in

A

TB

265
Q

Cardiac causes of clubbing

A

Congenital cyanotc heart disease
Atrial myxoma
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Tetralogy of fallot

266
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis

A

Occurs when multiple benign tumours develop all over the body

267
Q

What causes a haemopericardium

A

MI
Trauma
Aneurysm rupture

268
Q

What is most common cause of septic arthritis in children

A

H influenzae

269
Q

What commonly causes septic arthrits in the elderly

A

E coli

270
Q

What commonly causes septic arthritis in IV drug users

A

E coli

271
Q

When do CKD symptoms tend to present

A

When GFR is less than 30

272
Q

Common CKD symptoms

A 
Anorexia
N&V
Fatigue
Pruritus
Muscle cramps
Pulmonary oedema
273
Q

What test is used to diagnose SVC syndrome

A

Pembertons

274
Q

Why do you get pulsus alternans in left ventricular failure

A

When failing left ventricle there is small ejection fraction so large end diastolic volume that causes increased stretching of heart muscle and so strong next contraction

275
Q

What is buffalo hump another word for

A

Interscapula fat pad

276
Q

Why are NSAIDS contraindicated in chronic HF

A

Can cause sodium and water reabsorption

Also can be nephrotoxic leading to even more damage to hypperfused kidneys

277
Q

Example of ling term nitrate used in afrocarribeans with HF

A

Isoborbide nitrate

278
Q

Does digoxin improve mortality in HF

A

no

279
Q

What are 4 antibodies seen in AIH

A

ANA
ASMA
ASLA- type 1
ALKM 1- type 2

280
Q

What is ASLA

A

Anti soluble liver antigen

281
Q

What is ALKM1

A

Anti liver kidney microsome 1

282
Q

How does pagets disease of the breast present

A

Eczema like hardening of the skin over the nipple

283
Q

What causes eczema like hardening over the breast

A

Pagets disease of the breast normally secondary to underlying breast cancer

284
Q

What causes pagets disease of the breast

A

Underlying cancer

285
Q

What normally causes TIAs

A

Atrial fibrillation
Carotid athersoclerosis
Valve vedgetations from artificial valves or infective endocarditis
DVT with atrial septal defect

286
Q

What is a paradoxical embolism

A

When DVT goes through atrial septal defect leading to TIA/stroke

287
Q

What are you looking for in echo of TIA

A

Vedgetations on heart valves

Atrial septal defect

288
Q

Drugs causing pancreatitis

A

Thiazides
Azathioprine
Sodium valproate

289
Q

How is PCP diagnosed

A

Sputum microscopy

BAL

290
Q

How does PCP present

A

Fever
Dry cough
SOBOE especially noted when walking using pulse oximeter

291
Q

What are spherocytes seen in

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Haemolysis

292
Q

What is waterlow scoring system used for

A

Pressure sores

293
Q

What can be used on top of abx for meningitis treatment

A

Dexamethasone to reduce swelling

294
Q

Other than cancer what else is tenesmus felt in

A

UC in exacerbations

295
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum seen in

A

Wegners
Myeloma
IBD
RA

296
Q

Associated features around venous ulcers

A

Stasis excema
Haemosediren deposition
Liodermatosclerosis

297
Q

What ulcers are calloused edges seen in

A

Neuropathic

298
Q

What gene is sarcoidosis linked to

A

HLA B27

299
Q

What is cervical spondylosis

A

Degenerative process in intervertebral discs and cervical vertebra

300
Q

Presentation of cervical spondylosis

A

Weakness in arms

Neck and arm pain

301
Q

What is a jacksonian march

A

When an area of electrical stimulation in cerebral cortex marches across the brain and consequently is felt as a marching across your body

302
Q

What can severe B12 deficiency result in

A

Psyciatric effects like depression and psychosis

303
Q

What is lupus anticoagulant

A

Antibody produced against phospholipids in platelets

304
Q

What 2 antibodies are tested for in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Lupus anticoagulant

Anti cardiolipin

305
Q

What clotting time does lupus anticoagulant affect

A

APTT

306
Q

What clotting time does APL syndrome affect

A

APTT

307
Q

What is sign called when nodding head

A

De mussets

308
Q

In triple therapy for H pylori how often must medication be taken

A

Twice daily

309
Q

If triple therapy doesnt work for peptic ulces what is second line tx

A

Different variation of Abx or bismuth compound

310
Q

Most common lung cancer in smokers

A

Small cell carcinoma

311
Q

2 best tests for cystic fibrosis

A

Sweat test showing high chloride

Faecal elastase showing loss of pancreatice exocrine function

Year 3 Conditions (33 decks)

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