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YR3: MM FC Ed. > Past Paper Pop Quiz > Flashcards

Past Paper Pop Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What would be the cause of meningitis where the LP showed lymphocytosis, high protein, low glucose and negative India ink staining?

A

Tuberculosis meningitis

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2
Q

Name a drug that can reduce proteinuria?

A

ACEi

reduce BP

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3
Q

List 4 drugs that can cause hyperkalaemia

A

ACEi
B Blockers
K+ sparing diuretics
NSAIDs

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4
Q

List 5 conditions that can cause hyperkalaemia

A 
Hyperglycaemia
Burns
Rhabdomyolysis 
Acute Renal failure
Chronic renal failure
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5
Q

Describe the hepatitis serology of someone who has been vaccinated

A

HBsAb

vaccine contains HBsAg

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6
Q

Describe the hepatitis serology seen in acute infection

A 
HBsAg
HBcAg
HBeAg (active + infectious)
HBcAb IgM
HBcAb IgG
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7
Q

Describe the hepatitis serology seen in chronic infection

A

HBsAg
HBcAg
HBeAg (active + infectious)
HBcAb IgG

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8
Q

Describe the hepatitis serology seen in someone who has been previously infected

A

HBsAb

HBcAb IgG

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9
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Muffled heart sounds
Distension of jugular veins
Hypotension

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10
Q

What does Becks triad indicate?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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11
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing? What does this indicate? Give 2 causes

A

Deep sighing breaths (blowing off CO2)
Metabolic acidosis
DKA
Renal failure

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12
Q

What is Kussmauls sign? What does this indicate? Give 3 causes

A 
Rise in JVP on inspiration
Limitation of right ventricular filling
Constrictive pericarditis
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Cardiac tamponade
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13
Q

How does Conn’s syndrome cause high blood pressure?

A

Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption

This causes increased water reabsorption leading to high BP

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14
Q

Which organism can cause a bilateral pneumonia in middle to old aged patients?

A

Legionella spp

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15
Q

What occurs in ACTH dependent Cushing’s syndrome? Give 2 causes

A

Excess ACTH causes the excess cortisol production
Cushings disease: ACTH producing pituitary adenoma
Ectopic ACTH secretion

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16
Q

What occurs in a dexamethasone suppression test? What does this indicate?

A

Healthy: Presence of Dexamethasone provides negative feedback + suppresses ACTH release
Cushings: ACTH levels remain high

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17
Q

What occurs in ACTH independent Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Hyperactive adrenals/ adrenal tumour making excess cortisol

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18
Q

How can ACTH independent and dependent tumours be differentiated?

A

Dependent: HIGH plasma ACTH, HIGH CORTISOL
Independent: LOW plasma ACTH, HIGH CORTISOL

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19
Q

Describe the levels of cortisol seen in low and high dose dexamethasone suppression tests in Cushings syndrome caused by adrenal tumours, ectopic secretion and pituitary tumours

A 
Adrenal tumor
Low dose: no change
High dose: no change
Ectopic ACTH-producing tumor
Low dose: no change
High dose: no change
Pituitary tumor (Cushing's Disease)
Low dose: no change
High dose: normal suppression
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20
Q

Which skin condition causes formation of papule and pustules on the background of erythetamous skin?

A

Rosacea

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21
Q

What is the firstline anticonvulsant medication for a patient presenting with a seizure?

A

IV Lorazepam

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22
Q

What medication can be used for a patient in SVT?

A

Adenosine

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23
Q

What 2 vasovagal manoeuvres can be used for a patient in SVT?

A

Carotid sinus massage

Valsalva manœuvre

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24
Q

In which disease may you use penicillamine? What is an important possible side effect?

A

Wilson’s disease

Agranulocytosis + immunosuppression

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25
In which MSK disorder do you see punched out periarticular erosions?
Gout
26
What is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?
Escherichia coli
27
How does bilateral lower limb pitting oedema differ from generalised pitting oedema?
Bilateral lower limb pitting edema suggests cardiac failure | Generalized peripheral pitting edema + swelling of eyelids indicates hypoalbuminemia
28
How do quinolones, macrolides and metronidazole interact with warfarin?
Cyp450 inhibitors | Increase action of Warfarin
29
How does Rifampicin interact with Warfarin?
Cyp450 inducer | Decreases action of Warfarin
30
Name a class of antibiotics safe to use in patients taking Warfarin
Aminoglycosides e.g. Gentamicin
31
List 7 side effects of sedative use
``` Loss of coordination Slurred speech Decreased attention + memory Disinhibition Aggression Hypotension Respiratory depression. ```
32
List 5 side effects of sedative withdrawal
``` N+V Autonomic hyperactivity Insomnia Delirium Seizures ```
33
What is the classic presentation of polymyalgia rheumatic?
Muscle stiffness + pain symmetrically affecting proximal muscles
34
What constitutional symptoms may arise in polymyalgia rheumatica?
Weight loss Fatigue Night sweats
35
How does IV adrenaline improve coronary perfusion pressure in cardiac arrest`?
Interacts with alpha + beta adrenergic receptors to cause peripheral + splanchnic vasoconstriction This diverts blood away from the skin + GIT to the heart + brain
36
What biochemistry causes alkalosis?
LOW CO2 = Respiratory alkalosis | High HCO3- = Metabolic alkalosis
37
What biochemistry causes acidosis?
HIGH CO2 = Respiratory acidosis | LOW HCO3- = Metabolic acidosis
38
What test is diagnostic of Sjorgens syndrome? What other features may be present?
Schirmer's test: <10mm filter paper moist after placing under eyelid Anti-Ro + Anti-La antibodies
39
What non-metastatic extrapulmonary manifestations may arise in small cell carcinoma?
Inappropriate secretion of ADH: hyponatraemia | Ectopic secretion of ACTH: Hypercortisolism- Hypokalaemia or Cushings syndrome
40
In which form of lung cancer may you see hypercalcaemia due to ectopic secretion?
Squamous cell carcinoma due to PTHrP
41
Which cranial nerves are affected by a pathology in the cavernous sinus?
``` III IV VI Ophthalmic division of V Maxillary division of V ```
42
What is the most common AIDS defining illness? List 4 symptoms
``` Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia Dry cough Dyspnoea Weight loss Fatigue ```
43
What feature on dermoscopy would suggest a malignant melanoma rather than a benign naaevus or pigmented seborrhoeic keratosis?
Irregular pigment netword
44
List 3 gastric primary causes of hypokalaemia
Vomiting Diarrhea Villous adenoma of the colon
45
List 3 renal primary causes of hypokalaemia
Type 1 + 2 renal tubular acidosis Cushings Conn's
46
List 5 drugs that can cause hypokalaemia
``` Thiazides Loop diuretics Osmotic diuretics Beta 2-agonists Insulin ```
47
What A-E mneumonic can be used to remember drugs that can cause long QT syndrome?
A: AntiArrhythmics (Amiodarone, Flecainide) B: AntiBiotics (Macrolides, Aminoglycosides) C: AntiCychotics (Haloperidol, Quetiapine, Risperidone) D: AntiDepressants (SSRIs, TCAs) D: Diuretics E: AntiEmetics (Ondansetron)
48
In which condition should use of B-blockers be avoided if possible?
Asthma | B blockers can precipitate bronchospasm
49
What is the triad seen in nephrotic syndrome?
Proteinuria >3.5g in 24hrs Hypoalbuminaemia <30g/L Oedema
50
What mnemonic can be used for CYP inducers?
``` CRAPS out drugs Carbamezapine Rifampicin barbiturates Phenytoin St Johns Wort ```
51
What mnemonic can be used for CYP inhibitors?
``` Some Certain Silly Compounds Annoyingly Inhibit Enzymes Grrrr Sodium valproate Ciprofloxacin Suphonamide Cimetidine/ Omeprazole Antifungals, Amiodarone Isoniazid Erythromycin Grapefruit juice ```
52
Which drugs interact with enzyme inducers/ inhibitors?
``` Warfarin cOCP Theophylline Corticosteroids Tricyclics Pethidine Statins ```
53
What is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis?
IgA nephropathy
54
Name a cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and kids?
Kids: Minimal change glomerulonephritis Adults: Membranous glomerulonephritis
55
What ECG change is seen in a posterior MI?
Posterior descending artery | ST depression in V1-4
56
Which joints are usually spared in RA?
DIP joints
57
What measurement is often used to identify chronic pancreatitis?
Faecal elastase (LOW) due to exocrine insufficiency
58
Describe the typical results of iron studies in hereditary haemochromatosis
High Serum Iron: deficiency of hepcidin leads to increased iron transport into the blood via ferroportin High Ferritin: increased serum iron leads to an increase in ferritin in a compensatory attempt to increase intracellular iron storage Low Transferrin: increased serum iron leads to decreased transferrin levels to prevent more iron from becoming plasma protein bound in the blood High Transferrin Saturation: due to high serum iron + low transferrin Low Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC): a measure of the blood’s capacity to bind iron to transferrin. As transferrin is low, it is more difficult for iron to bind to transferrin.
59
What are the 3 stages of diabetic retinopathy?
Background: Hard exudates, microaneurysms + blot haemorrhages Pre-proliferative: Soft exudates (retinal ischaemia) Proliferative: New vessel formation in response to ischaemia. Prone to bleeding
60
What parameter should be closely monitored in patients with GBS?
FVC | GBS can cause respiratory muscle weakness, respiratory failure + death
61
What is the most common cause of CKD?
Diabetes mellitus
62
Give 2 signs of appendicitis
Rovsing's sign: Palpation of LIF illicits pain in RIF | Psoas sign: LHS, straight right leg + passively extending right hip
63
In which cases are abdominal aortic aneurysms surgically intervened with?
If diameter >5.5cm | If rapidly expanding >1cm per year
64
How frequently are smaller asymptomatic AAAs checked?
3-4.5cm: every year | 4.5-5.5cm: every 3 months
65
What does HUS commonly follow?
E. coli O157 infection in children
66
What is the triad in HUS?
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia Acute renal failure (Uraemia) Thrombocytopenia
67
What is the pentad in TTP?
``` Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia Acute renal failure (Uraemia) Thrombocytopenia Fever Neuro problems: headaches, confusion, seizures ```
68
What distinguishes Legionella pneumophila from the other atypical pneumonias?
Found in bodies of water kept <60°C e.g. as air conditioning units Causes confusion. Urinary antigens
69
What is the GRACE scoring system used for?
Risk stratifying patients who have suffered an NSTE-ACS
70
Name 2 firstline antibiotics used in uncomplicated UTIs
Nitrofurantoin | Trimethoprim
71
How do grade 3 haemorrhoids and type 2 rectal prolapse differ?
Rectal prolase: circular, muscular folds (intussusception of whole circumference of the rectal wall) Hemorrhoids: radial folds (submucosal, fibrovascular, arterio-venous sinusoids)
72
What is Dressler's syndrome?
Pericarditis arising 2-10 weeks post MI

YR3: MM FC Ed. (46 decks)

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