passmed Flashcards

1
Q

A patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart rate of 60/min. Her end-diastolic left ventricular volume is 200ml.

What is her left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)?

A

50%

First, calculate the stroke volume:
Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume.
Stroke volume = cardiac output / heart rate.
= 6000/60 = 100ml.

Then calculate LVEF:
LVEF = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume) x 100.
= (100/200) x 100.
= 50%.

EF equally stroke volume divided LDV

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2
Q

ejection faction equals what

A

stroke volume divided by LDV

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3
Q

different types of heart failure

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is correct. It is usually caused by ventricular stiffness secondary to long-standing hypertension or ventricular hypertrophy. This would lead to abnormal filling of the ventricles during diastole and a normal ejection fraction on the echocardiogram (>50%).

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is incorrect as this patient has an ejection fraction of 60%, and a normal ejection fraction is >50%.

High output heart failure is incorrect. High output heart failure is usually caused by obesity, hepatic disease and lung disease. It may present concurrently with HFpEF. However, in the absence of such risk factors, this is not the most appropriate answer.

Left ventricular failure is incorrect. This patient presents with signs of pulmonary and peripheral oedema which suggests that both left and right ventricles are affected. This should be termed as ‘congestive cardiac failure’ rather than left ventricular failure.

Right ventricular failure is incorrect. This patient presents with signs of pulmonary and peripheral oedema which suggests that both left and right ventricles are affected. This should be termed as ‘congestive cardiac failure’ rather than right ventricular failure.

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4
Q

what is high output heart failure

A

High-output heart failure refers to a situation where a ‘normal’ heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body.

Causes
anaemia
arteriovenous malformation
Paget's disease
Pregnancy
thyrotoxicosis
thiamine deficiency (wet Beri-Beri)
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5
Q

how does amiodarone affect warfarin

A

decreases its metabolism

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6
Q

what are the two main reasons fro using digoxin

A

Digoxin can be either used in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, as it inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase and improves contractility, or as a secondary option in atrial fibrillation because it can also inhibit the AV node.

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7
Q

does hypertension normally cause symptoms

A

no

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8
Q

‘egg-on-side’.

A

Transposition of the great arteries has an ‘egg-on-side’ appearance on x-rays

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9
Q

transposition of great arteries due to failure of what

A

e failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral during septation.

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10
Q

Global ST and PR segment changes:

A

pericarditis

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11
Q

greatest proportion of musculi pectinati found

A

right atrium

for stress and dilation

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12
Q

facial artery branch of

A

external carotid

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13
Q

nkle brachial pressure index (ABPI)

A

1 Normal
0.6-0.9 Claudication
0.3-0.6 Rest pain
<0.3 Impending

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14
Q

what is intermittent claudication

A

intermittent claudication: aching or burning in the leg muscles following walking
patients can typically walk for a predictable distance before the symptoms start
usually relieved within minutes of stopping
not present at rest

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15
Q

management of critical limb ischaemia

A

Risk factor modification e.g. smoking cessation, treat hypertension and high cholesterol, prescribe clopidogrel
Supervised exercise programs to increase blood flow
Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
Surgical reconstruction i.e. bypass graft using the saphenous vein
Amputation

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16
Q

myocardial necrosis marker

A

troponin I

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17
Q

is the posterior cerebral artery closely related to the 3rd cranial nerve

A

yes

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18
Q

if you are treating angina with beta blockers but person has asthma do you need to replace them

A

yes

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19
Q

An unusually tall 43-year-old lady presents to the surgical clinic with bilateral inguinal hernias. She develops chest pain and collapses. As part of her investigations a chest x-ray shows evidence of mediastinal widening. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

aortic dissection

Marfans syndrome may present with a variety of connective tissue disorders such as bilateral inguinal hernia. They are at high risk of aortic dissection, as in this case.

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20
Q

A 21-year-old woman was admitted earlier in the day with a fractured tibia following a footballing injury. She was managed with surgical repair but has suddenly developed a tachycardia on the recovery ward. Her observations show a heart rate of 169 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 75/52 mmHg. Her ECG shows ventricular tachycardia. The doctor opts for synchronised DC cardioversion.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate management?

A

DC cardioversion shock synchronised to the ECG R wave

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21
Q

An electrocardiogram (ECG) was done and showed rapid, irregular QRS complexes, which appear to be ‘twisting’ around the baseline.

A

tosardes de pointes

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22
Q

A 72-year-old man attends the emergency department following a syncopal episode. He has an ECG which shows a prolonged PR interval, with every second QRS complex dropped. The width of the QRS complexes are normal.

In which part of the heart is the conduction delay likely to be coming from?

A

AVN

The PR interval represents the time between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation
2nd degree heart block

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23
Q

pale ulcer which has a ‘punched out’ appearance

A

arterial ulcer - painful at night and sitting in chair

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24
Q

During surgery on his neck, a man suffers a vagus nerve injury where the nerve is cut near the exit from the skull. He wakes up with a high heart rate and high blood pressure due to loss of parasympathetic tone.

Which of the following other features would be expected with a vagus nerve injury?

A

Hoarse voice

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25
Q

A fourth-year medical student is asked to examine the abdomen of a 59-year-old man who presented to hospital with generalised abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The student reported generalised abdominal tenderness but with no peritonism, masses or organomegaly. The student described the liver as ‘bouncing up and down periodically’ on the tips of her fingers.

What is the likely cause for this?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation presents with pulsatile hepatomegaly due to backflow of blood into the liver during the cardiac cycle

The student is describing pulsatile hepatomegaly, where the liver pulsates with the cardiac cycle. This results from retrograde flow of blood from the heart to the peripheral circulation due to an incompetent valve - hence tricuspid regurgitation.

Hepatitis, mitral stenosis or mitral regurgitation do not cause pulsatile hepatomegaly.

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26
Q

what should all patients with angina be given ob hospital admission

A

Medication
all patients should receive aspirin and a statin in the absence of any contraindication
sublingual glyceryl trinitrate to abort angina attacks

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27
Q

what does warfarin do to PT and INR

A

increases both

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28
Q

In mitral stenosis, left atrial pressure is increased which equates to increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)

A

true

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29
Q

what is orthopnea

A

Orthopnea means you find it harder to breathe when you lie down because of fluid in your lungs

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30
Q

what can differentiate heart failure from COPD

A

Orthopnoea can differentiate heart failure from COPD

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31
Q

patients with recurrent DVT and PE what should you offer r

A

inferior vena cava (IVC) filters

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32
Q

first line for PE

A

Thrombolysis
thrombolysis is now recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE where there is circulatory failure (e.g. hypotension)

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33
Q

The bladder’s detrusor tone is maintained by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for relaxing the detrusor, while the parasympathetic nervous system mediates the contraction of the muscle, via M3 muscarinic receptors. As such, antimuscarinics, such as oxybutynin, are typically prescribed to patients with urinary incontinence.

A

Mirabegron is also used to treat urinary incontinence. However, it is a β3 adrenergic receptor agonist.

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34
Q

Meropenem

A

antibiotic that is used for organisms that are resistant to most beta-lactams. However, it is usually used as last-line therapy due to its adverse effects.

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35
Q

what is Alfuzosin

A

alpha blocker treatment for BPH

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36
Q

what is valsalva manoeuvre

A

The Valsalva maneuver is a breathing method that may slow your heart when it’s beating too fast. To do it, you breathe out strongly through your mouth while holding your nose tightly closed. This creates a forceful strain that can trigger your heart to react and go back into normal rhythm

aortic stenosis

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37
Q

In some individuals a persistent left sided SVC drains into the right atrium via an enlarged orifice of the

A

coronary sinus

38
Q

cor pulmonate what is it

A

abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs or the pulmonary blood vessels.

39
Q

Pistol shot femoral pulses

A

aortic regurgitation

40
Q

Malar flush

A

mitral stenosis

41
Q

Quincke’s sign refers to nail bed pulsation

A

aortic regurgitation

42
Q

Hepatomegaly

A

aortic stenosis

43
Q

This is suggested by the ejection systolic murmur, the slow-rising pulse, and the history of progressive heart failure symptoms. S4 (fourth heart sound) occurs when the left atrium contracts with greater force to overcome resistance from a less compliant ventricle.

A

aortic stenosis

44
Q

Dressler syndrome is an autoimmune-mediated pericarditis occurring 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction

A

true

45
Q

do thiazides cause gout

A

yes

46
Q

eggs on strings

A

Transposition of great vessels is due to the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

47
Q

The T wave in an ECG corresponds to repolarisation, which is also phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.

A

Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

48
Q

do NSAIDs reduce anti-hypertensive effect of ACEi

A

This patient has osteoarthritis and is most likely to be taking NSAIDs. NSAID’s reduce the anti-hypertensive effects of ACE-inhibitors. They can also compound the hyperkalaemic effects of ACE-inhibitors. This is why his blood pressure is not adequately controlled.

49
Q

do loop diuretic cause low or high potassium

A

low

50
Q

A 42-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of progressive dyspnoea on exertion and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.

On examination, the lungs are clear to auscultation; a loud P2 heart sound is noted. A chest X-ray demonstrates enlarged pulmonary artery shadows.

What is implicated in causing the disease process?

A

endothelin

Endothelin causes pulmonary vasoconstriction (hence why antagonists are used in primary pulmonary hypertension)

51
Q

site where the vertebral arteries fuse together to form the basilar artery

A

base of pons

52
Q

The……. ………. is the embryological structure that gives rise to the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk

A

trunks arteriousus - aortic dissection

53
Q

ng QT syndrome most commonly leads to

A

tosardes de pointes

54
Q

ng QT syndrome most commonly leads to

A

tosardes de pointes

Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is an inherited condition associated with delayed repolarization of the ventricles. It is important to recognise as it may lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes and can therefore cause collapse/sudden death. The most common variants of LQTS (LQT1 & LQT2) are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

55
Q

normal pr interval

A

under 0.2sec

56
Q

A 63-year-old woman was successfully cardioverted for an unstable broad complex tachycardia. The cardiologist decides to commence oral amiodarone at 200mg three times a day, and wean at weekly intervals until a maintenance dose of 200mg once daily.

What is the reason for this dosing strategy?

A

has a long Half life

Amiodarone has a very long half-life of 20-100 days - loading doses are therefore often needed

57
Q

embryological development of coronary sinus

A

The sinus venosus has both left and right horns:
The coronary sinus is a derivative of the left horn.
The smooth part of the right atrium is a derivative of the right horn

58
Q

why does the DA normally close

A

The ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow which enhances prostaglandins clearance

59
Q

A 52-year-old male presents with central chest pain. On examination, he has an mitral regurgitation murmur. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1 to V6. There is no ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. What is the diagnosis?

A

anterior MI

60
Q

furosemide acts on what limb of the loop of henle

A

ascending thick limb

Baroreceptors are stimulated by arterial stretch

61
Q

ECG features of hypokalaemia

A
ECG features of hypokalaemia
U waves
small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
prolong PR interval
ST depression
long QT

J waves are seen in hypothermia

62
Q

vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1) is a protein expressed on the endothelial cells of the internal surface of blood vessels in response to pro-atherosclerotic conditions. It is not expressed under baseline conditions. VCAM-1 binds to a molecule on lymphocytes, monocytes and eosinophils to cause adhesion of these cells to the endothelium. The expression of VCAM-1 is upregulated in response to various cytokines. Studies have shown that VCAM-1 is critical in the development of atherosclerosis.
\
Endothelium changes include pro-inflammatory, pro-oxidant, proliferative and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability

troponins

A

Subunits of troponin
troponin C: binds to calcium ions
troponin T: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin I: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place

63
Q

A 56-year-old male is seen by his cardiologist in clinic some months after having had a coronary artery bypass procedure. Which vessel is most commonly used in this procedure?

A

intermal mammary artery

saphnosu

64
Q

therosclerosis is a complex process which develops over a number of years. A number of changes can be seen:
initial endothelial dysfunction is triggered by a number of factors such as smoking, hypertension and hyperglycaemia
this results in a number of changes to the endothelium including pro-inflammatory, pro-oxidant, proliferative and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability
fatty infiltration of the subendothelial space by low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles
monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. As these macrophages die the result can further propagate the inflammatory process.
smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima results in formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

A

Taking the coronary arteries as an example, once a plaque has formed a number of complications can develop:
the plaque forms a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery. This may cause reduced blood flow and hence oxygen to the myocardium, particularly at times of increased demand, resulting clinically in angina
the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery. This may result in a myocardial infarction

65
Q

most common cause of heart failure

A

In the western world, the most common cause of heart failure is ischaemic heart disease. This is then followed by high blood pressure, various cardiomyopathies, arrhythmias and heart valve problems.

COPD can be associated with cor pulmonale (just right heart failure) however, this is still less common than ischaemic heart disease as a cause.

66
Q

contents from medial to lateral of popliteal fossa

A
The contents of the popliteal fossa are (from medial to lateral):
Popliteal artery
Popliteal vein
Tibial nerve
Common peroneal nerve
67
Q

The common iliac veins fuse with the IVC at

A

L5

68
Q

highest resistance vessel and contributes most to blood pressure

A

The arterioles are the site of highest resistance in the cardiovascular system. They therefore contribute most to the total peripheral resistance

69
Q

patient is diagnosed with first-degree heart block which is shown on his ECG by an elongated PR interval. The PR interval relates to a particular period in the electrical conductance of the heart.

Which of the following could cause the PR interval to decrease?

A

Sympathetic activation increases heart rate by increasing conduction velocity of the AV node

70
Q

The PR interval represents the time between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation

what problem affects this

A

WPW

71
Q

rheumatic fever management

A

Outline of management
antibiotics: oral penicillin V
anti-inflammatories: NSAIDs are first-line
treatment of any complications that develop e.g. heart failure

72
Q

Rheumatic fever develops through molecular mimicry of the bacterial M protein

A

pathology of rheumatic fever

73
Q

preload stretch and afterlaod pressure

treadmill test

A

Increased venous return from the muscles, increases preload and increases stroke volume

Increased stroke volume increases pulse pressure

Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase. This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

Decreased blood volume would decrease preload due to reduced venous return.

Impaired ventricular relaxation would reduce diastolic filling and therefore preload.

work it out harry

74
Q

what between layers of artery

A

Often, the internal elastic lamina separates the tunica intima from the tunica media. The tunica media is composed chiefly of circumferentially arranged smooth muscle cells. Again, the external elastic lamina often separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia.

The wall of a blood vessel is divided into a tunica intima, tunica media and tunica adventitia. The tunica intima forms the innermost layer and this contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions. The middle layer is the tunica media, this contains the smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer is the tunica adventitia and this contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.

75
Q

One question is what segment of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A

t wave

76
Q

decreases preload and after load

A

BNP

77
Q

plataeu phase

A

Plateau in the myocardial action potential is caused by slow influx of calcium

78
Q

apple green birefringence with polarised light

A

amyloidosis

79
Q

does ventricular rate change with ventilation

A

yes
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal physiological phenomenon which is commonly seen in young, healthy patients. The heart rate varies with ventilation, inspiration increases heart rate and expiration decreases (only very slightly but detectable on ECG). This is because of vagal tone which is decreased in the inspiratory phase and vice versa. The P-R interval remains constant as there is no heart block, and the varying P-P intervals illustrate changes in the ventricular heart rate.

80
Q

Patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF should be given

A

beta blocker and ACEi

81
Q

what nerve lies between the superior cerebellar and posterior cerebral arteries

A

The oculomotor nerve

82
Q

Where is the site of action of bendroflumethiazide?

A

Proximal part of the distal convoluted tubules

Thiazides/thiazide-like drugs (e.g. indapamide) - inhibits sodium reabsorption by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule

83
Q

what drug cause low sodium used in blood pressure

also causes gout

A

thiazides

84
Q

hebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart drain into

A

atrium

85
Q

chest pain to pericarditis relieved when

A

Chest pain due to pericarditis is often relieved by sitting/leaning forward

86
Q

A 23-year-old man has a routine ECG performed. Which part of the tracing obtained represents atrial repolarisation?

A

The process of atrial repolarisation is generally not visible on the ECG strip. It occurs during the QRS complex.

87
Q

Which vessel connects the aorta and pulmonary artery in foetal life?

A

DA

88
Q

what is amyloidosis

A

Amyloidosis (am-uh-loi-DO-sis) is a rare disease that occurs when an abnormal protein, called amyloid, builds up in your organs and interferes with their normal function

The build-up of amyloid proteins (deposits) can make it difficult for the organs and tissues

89
Q

types of amylodisosi

A

AL amyloidosis in patients with symptomatic multiple myeloma or other B-cell - most common

This page focuses on AL amyloidosis, which is the most common type, and on ATTR amyloidosis, which often runs in families.

Systemic AA amyloidosis is a long-term complication of several chronic inflammatory disorders - e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease, malignancies and conditions predisposing to recurrent infections.

90
Q

St segment

A

Represents period which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential

91
Q

atherosclerosis causes Postural hypotension - due to reduced stretch so barorecpros can detect

A

true