Pass Med Q's Flashcards

1
Q

what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

rare but dangerous condition seen in patients taking antipsycotic medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

presentation of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
pyrexia
muscle rigidity 
HTN, tachycardia, tachypnoea
delirium / agitation / confusion
- symptoms begin within hours to days of starting the medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is raised in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

CK + leucocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can occur as a consequence of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

AKI secondary to rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

acute management of cluster headache

A

SC Sumatriptan + oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prophylaxis for cluster headache

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which anti-epileptics can cause Steven Johnston syndrome

A

lamotrigine

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how long do you have to be seizure free to consider stopping anti-epileptic drugs?

A

seizure free for 2 years

- stop drugs over 2-3 month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can a tentorial / uncle herniated cause

A

CN III palsy

- fixed dilated pupil, eye is down + out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how long must you stop driving for following a TIA

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how long must you stop driving for after 1st unprovoked seizure

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bitemporal hemianopia with predominantly lower quadrants affected is caused by what?

A

craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

nerve roots for knee reflex

A

L3 - L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nerve roots for ankle reflex

A

S1 - S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

nerve roots for biceps reflex

A

C5 - C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

nerve roots for triceps reflex

A

C7 - C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5 headache red flags that warrant imaging

A
  1. vomiting more than once with no other cause
  2. new motor or sensory defecit
  3. decreased conscious level
  4. headache assoc. with caughing/ sneezing
  5. progressive headache + fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is Wernicke’s aphasia

A

receptive aphasia

  • patients can produce fluent speech but sentences don’t make sense
  • comprehension impaired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is the lesion in Wernickes aphasia

A

superior temporal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is Brocas aphasia

A

expressive aphasia

  • speech is non-fluent, laboured, halted
  • comprehension normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where is the lesion in Brocas aphasia

A

inferior frontal gyrus

22
Q

gold standard test for venous sinus thrombosis

A

MR venogram

23
Q

what condition is suggested by a positive Hoffmans sign

A

degenerative cervical myelopathy

24
Q

most common complication following meningitis

A

sensorineural hearing loss

25
Q

what blood test can be used to differentiate between a seizure and pseudo seizure

A

prolactin

- prolactin with be raised following a seizure

26
Q

what diagnosis should be suspected in patient with unilateral hearing loss, balance problems and reduced facial sensation

A

acoustic neuroma (vestibular shwannoma)

27
Q

what reflex can be lost in an acoustic neuroma

A

corneal reflex

28
Q

Investigation of acoustic neuroma

A

MRI + audiogram

29
Q

medications post ishcaemic stroke

A

aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily long term

30
Q

first line treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

31
Q

triad of symptoms wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

confusion, ataxia, opthalmoplegia

32
Q

treatment of wernicke’s ecephalopathy

A

Pabrinex

33
Q

hallucinations, lip smacking, plucking at clothes, deja vu are symptoms of a seizure in what part of the brain?

A

temporal lobe seizure

34
Q

what are seizures in the parietal lobe associated with?

A

sensory abnormalities

35
Q

dermatome corresponding to

  • thumb
  • middle finger
  • little finger
A

thumb = C6
middle finger = C7
little finer = C8

36
Q

what is a Arnold-Chiari malformation

A

downward displacement / herniation of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum

37
Q

what condition can an Arnold-Chiari malformation cause?

how does this present?

A

syringomyelia

- cape like loss of pain + temperature sensation (spinothalamic tract)

38
Q

tx of tremor in drug induced parkinsons

A

procyclidine

39
Q

patient with left inferior homonymous hemianopia

where is the lesion?

A

right parietal lobe

40
Q

isolated rise of protein in CSF on LP indicates what

A

Guillian Barre

41
Q

what veins are damaged in a sub-dural haemorrhage

A

bridging veins between cortex and venous sinuses

42
Q

most common psychiatric problem in parkinsons disease

A

depression

43
Q

which nerve is affected in a RAPD

A

optic nerve

  • affected eye will not constrict when light is shone directly in that eye
  • affected eye will constrict when light is shown in the other eye (consensual response)
44
Q

who typically gets idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

young, overweight females

45
Q

features of idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

headaches
blurred vision
papillodema
high opening pressure on LP

46
Q

what shoulder movement is most affected in adhesive capsulitis

A

external rotation

47
Q

what is Kernig’s sign

A

painful knee extension from position of hip + knee flexion

- suggests meningeal irritation e.g. meningitis, SAH

48
Q

occlusion of which artery causes complete aphasia

A

middle cerebral in the DOMINANT hemisphere

e.g left middle cerebral as most people are right side dominant

49
Q

what condition needs to be excluded in a painful third nerve palsy

A

posterior communicating artery aneurysm

50
Q

what can trigger cluster headaches

A

alcohol