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Compsly D > Parts 5 and 6 > Flashcards

Parts 5 and 6 Flashcards

0
Q

Which procedures involve aversive control?

A

positive punishment and negative reinforcement

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1
Q

What are Type I and Type II punishment?

A

positive and negative punishment, respectively

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2
Q

Punishment is what type of relation?

A

behavior-consequence

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3
Q

What is an SDP?

A

discriminative stimulus for punishment

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4
Q

What is recovery from punishment?

A

resurgence of response when punishment procedures are discontinued

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5
Q

What is an example of a generalized conditioned punisher?

A

“No!”

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6
Q

What is the 3-term contingency for punishment?

A

stimulus-response-punishing consequence (decrease in future response rate)

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7
Q

What factors influence punishment effectiveness?

A

immediacy, intensity/magnitude, schedule, reinforcement for target and alternative behaviors

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8
Q

What are outcomes of continuous punishment schedules?

A

greatest rate reduction but likely to recover most quickly in absence of punishment

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9
Q

What are side effects and problems with punishment?

A

emotional and aggressive reactions, escape/avoidance, behavioral contrast, undesirable modeling, negative reinforcement of punishing agent’s behavior

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10
Q

What is respondent aggression?

A

pain-elicited aggression

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11
Q

What is operant aggression?

A

behaviors that enabled escape from aversive stimuli previously

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12
Q

What is behavioral contrast?

A

change in one component of a multiple schedule that increases/decreases rate of responding on that component is accompanied by a response rate change in the opposite direction on the other, unaltered component of the schedule

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13
Q

What are some positive punishment interventions?

A

reprimands, response blocking, contingent exercise, overcorrection, and contingent electrical stimulation

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14
Q

What is restitutional overcorrection?

A

fix environment then make it better than before

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15
Q

What is positive practice overcorrection?

A

repeatedly perform behavior correctly (or incompatible behavior)

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16
Q

When should punishment be used?

A

problem behavior needs quick suppression due to it producing serious physical harm; reinforcement-based treatments have not reduced problem behavior to socially-acceptable levels; reinforcer maintaining problem behavior cannot be identified or withheld

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17
Q

What are guidelines for using punishment?

A

select effective/appropriate punishers; deliver punishment at the beginning of the behavioral sequence; punish each instance of behavior initially; gradually shift to an intermittent schedule; use mediation with a response-to-punishment delay; supplement punishment with complementary interventions; be prepared for negative side effects; record, graph, and evaluate data daily

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18
Q

What are some ethical considerations with punishment?

A

client’s right to safe and humane treatment; professional’s responsibility to use least restrictive procedures; client’s right to effective treatment
(doctrine of the least restrictive alternative)

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19
Q

What is acceptable in punishment?

A

no delivery of physical pain; no production of effects requiring medical attention; subjectively judged to be within norm of how people in society typically treat each other

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20
Q

What is the overall restrictiveness level (punishment)?

A

time required to produce clinically-acceptable outcome; absolute level of restrictiveness; consequences associated with delayed intervention

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21
Q

How can ABA be improved regarding punishment?

A

punishment’s natural role and contributions to survival and learning are recognized/appreciated; more basic/applied research on punishment should be conducted; treatments with positive punishment are viewed as a default technology only when all other methods have failed

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22
Q

What is time-out from positive reinforcement?

A

withdrawal of the opportunity for reinforcement for a specified duration (time-in environment must be very reinforcing)

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23
Q

What is nonexclusionary time-out?

A

participant not fully physically removed from environment; planned ignoring, peer-mediated time-out, contingent observation, time-out ribbon

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24
Q

What is planned ignoring?

A

social reinforcement removed for a brief period

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25
Q

What is peer-mediated time-out?

A

peers participate in procedure

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26
Q

What is contingent observation?

A

individual is repositioned in setting with reinforcement not available

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27
Q

What is the time-out ribbon?

A

colored band as an SD for reinforcement is removed contingent on behavior

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28
Q

What is exclusionary time-out?

A

person removed from environment for a period after behavior; time-out room, partition time-out, hallway time-out

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29
Q

What is a time-out room?

A

confined space outside the time-in environment without access to reinforcement

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30
Q

What is a partition time-out?

A

person remains in time-in environment with view restricted

31
Q

What is hallway time-out?

A

student directed to leave room and sit in hallway

32
Q

What are desirable aspects of time-out?

A

ease of application, acceptability, rapid suppression of behavior, combined applications

33
Q

How can time-out be made most effective?

A

reinforcing/enriching time-in environment; defining behaviors leading to time-out; defining duration procedures for time-out; defining exit criteria; deciding on non/exclusionary time-out; explain the rules; obtain permission; apply consistently; evaluate effectiveness; consider other options; legal/ethical issues

34
Q

What is response cost?

A

specific amount of reinforcer is lost contingent on behavior

35
Q

What are desirable aspects of response cost?

A

moderate-to-rapid behavior decrease; convenience; can be combined with other approaches

36
Q

What are some response cost methods?

A

fines, bonus response cost, combining with positive reinforcement, combining with group consequences

37
Q

How is response cost used effectively?

A

behavior and fine amount must be defined; determine fine immediacy; response cost or bonus response cost; ensure reinforcer reserve; recognize potential for unplanned/unexpected outcomes; avoid overuse of response cost; keep records

38
Q

What are some response cost considerations (issues)?

A

increased aggression; avoidance; collateral reductions of desired behavior; calling attention to punished behavior; unpredictability

39
Q

What does “wanting” mean?

A

occurrence of what is wanted would function as reinforcer at that moment; the current frequency of any behavior that has previously been so reinforced will increase

40
Q

What is an EO?

A

any environmental variable that alters the effectiveness of some stimulus/object/event as a reinforcer and alters the current frequency of all behaviors that have been reinforced by that stimulus/object/event

41
Q

What are the 2 effects of MOs?

A

value-altering (inc./dec. in reinforcing effectiveness of stimulus) and behavior-altering effects (inc./dec. in frequency of behaviors associated with a history of the specified stimulus); there are direct and indirect behavior-altering effects

42
Q

What dimensions of behavior can MO changes affect?

A

response magnitude/latency/relative frequency/etc.

43
Q

What are repertoire-altering effects?

A

changes in future frequency of response due to consequences

44
Q

What are behavior-altering effects?

A

changes in current frequency of response due to MOs and SDs

45
Q

What are UMOs?

A

food deprivation, painful stimulation

46
Q

What is an example of a CMO?

A

a key is an effective reinforcer when faced with a locked door

47
Q

What are the 9 main human UMOs?

A

deprivation/satiation of food/water/oxygen/activity/sleep, relevant to sexual reinforcement, too hot/cold of temperatures, painful stimulation

48
Q

What are CMOs?

A

motivating variables that alter the reinforcing effectiveness of other stimuli/objects/events as a result of the organism’s learning history

49
Q

What are multiple effects of UMOs?

A

environmental events that function as UMOs will typically have behavior-altering effects on the current frequency of a type of behavior, and (as a consequence) function-altering effects with respect to the future frequency of whatever behavior immediately preceded the onset of the event

50
Q

What is S-delta?

A

condition of absence of SD; if behaviors occur more often in SD presence than S-delta presence, stimulus control is in effect

51
Q

What is stimulus control?

A

rate/latency/duration/amplitude of response altered by SD

52
Q

What is the difference between SDs and MOs?

A

SDs signal the availability of reinforcement; MOs alter what functions as a reinforcer

53
Q

What is a stimulus generalization gradient?

A

graphic depiction of degree of stimulus generalization and discrimination by showing extent to which responses reinforced in one stimulus condition are emitted in the presence of untrained stimuli

54
Q

What is concept formation?

A

complex example of stimulus control that requires both stimulus generalization within a class of stimuli and discrimination between classes of stimuli

55
Q

What is an antecedent stimulus class?

A

set of stimuli sharing a common relationship

56
Q

What is a feature stimulus class?

A

stimuli share common physical forms or common relations

57
Q

What is an arbitrary stimulus class?

A

stimuli evoke same response but do not share common physical features

58
Q

What is stimulus equivalence?

A

found by testing for reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity among stimulus-stimulus relations

59
Q

What is reflexivity?

A

in the absence of training and reinforcement, a response will select a stimulus that is matched to itself; generalized identity matching, A=A

60
Q

What is symmetry?

A

occurs with the reversibility of the sample stimulus and comparison stimulus (if A=B, then B=A)

61
Q

What is transitivity?

A

derived (untrained) stimulus-stimulus relation (A=C, C=A) that emerges as a product of training 2 other stimulus-stimulus relations (A=B and B=C)

62
Q

What are factors affecting development of stimulus control?

A

preattending skills, stimulus salience, masking and overshadowing

63
Q

What are 3 major forms of response prompts?

A

instructions, modeling, physical guidance

64
Q

Do verbal instructions have to be vocal?

A

no, could be written or signed

65
Q

What does modeling require?

A

imitation prerequisites, attending skills

66
Q

Which type of response prompt is most intrusive?

A

physical guidance

67
Q

What is errorless learning?

A

techniques for gradually transferring stimulus control

68
Q

What are procedures for transferring stimulus control?

A

MTL prompts, LTM prompts, graduated guidance, time delay

69
Q

What is graduated guidance?

A

instructor shadows then slowly moves physical prompts away

70
Q

What is time delay?

A

constant or progressive delay from SD to prompt

71
Q

What are examples of transfer of stimulus control with stimulus control shaping?

A

stimulus fading, stimulus shape transformations

72
Q

What are shared features of SDs and MOs?

A

both occur before behavior and have evocative functions

73
Q

What is the stimulus control gradient from stimulus generalization to stimulus discrimination?

A

loose (gen.) to tight (discrim.) stimulus control

74
Q

What does concept formation require?

A

stimulus generalization within a class of stimuli and discrimination between stimulus classes

75
Q

What is equivalence, and how is it defined?

A

emergence of accurate responding to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following reinforcement of responses of some other stimulus-stimulus relations; stimulus equivalence is defined by testing for reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity among stimulus-stimulus relations (all three must be demonstrated); match-to-sample can be used to test for equivalence

Compsly D (13 decks)

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