Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Compsly D > Parts 5 and 6 > Flashcards

Parts 5 and 6 Flashcards

0
Q

Which procedures involve aversive control?

A

positive punishment and negative reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are Type I and Type II punishment?

A

positive and negative punishment, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Punishment is what type of relation?

A

behavior-consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an SDP?

A

discriminative stimulus for punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is recovery from punishment?

A

resurgence of response when punishment procedures are discontinued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an example of a generalized conditioned punisher?

A

“No!”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the 3-term contingency for punishment?

A

stimulus-response-punishing consequence (decrease in future response rate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors influence punishment effectiveness?

A

immediacy, intensity/magnitude, schedule, reinforcement for target and alternative behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are outcomes of continuous punishment schedules?

A

greatest rate reduction but likely to recover most quickly in absence of punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are side effects and problems with punishment?

A

emotional and aggressive reactions, escape/avoidance, behavioral contrast, undesirable modeling, negative reinforcement of punishing agent’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is respondent aggression?

A

pain-elicited aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is operant aggression?

A

behaviors that enabled escape from aversive stimuli previously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is behavioral contrast?

A

change in one component of a multiple schedule that increases/decreases rate of responding on that component is accompanied by a response rate change in the opposite direction on the other, unaltered component of the schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some positive punishment interventions?

A

reprimands, response blocking, contingent exercise, overcorrection, and contingent electrical stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is restitutional overcorrection?

A

fix environment then make it better than before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is positive practice overcorrection?

A

repeatedly perform behavior correctly (or incompatible behavior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should punishment be used?

A

problem behavior needs quick suppression due to it producing serious physical harm; reinforcement-based treatments have not reduced problem behavior to socially-acceptable levels; reinforcer maintaining problem behavior cannot be identified or withheld

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are guidelines for using punishment?

A

select effective/appropriate punishers; deliver punishment at the beginning of the behavioral sequence; punish each instance of behavior initially; gradually shift to an intermittent schedule; use mediation with a response-to-punishment delay; supplement punishment with complementary interventions; be prepared for negative side effects; record, graph, and evaluate data daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some ethical considerations with punishment?

A

client’s right to safe and humane treatment; professional’s responsibility to use least restrictive procedures; client’s right to effective treatment
(doctrine of the least restrictive alternative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is acceptable in punishment?

A

no delivery of physical pain; no production of effects requiring medical attention; subjectively judged to be within norm of how people in society typically treat each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the overall restrictiveness level (punishment)?

A

time required to produce clinically-acceptable outcome; absolute level of restrictiveness; consequences associated with delayed intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can ABA be improved regarding punishment?

A

punishment’s natural role and contributions to survival and learning are recognized/appreciated; more basic/applied research on punishment should be conducted; treatments with positive punishment are viewed as a default technology only when all other methods have failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is time-out from positive reinforcement?

A

withdrawal of the opportunity for reinforcement for a specified duration (time-in environment must be very reinforcing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is nonexclusionary time-out?

A

participant not fully physically removed from environment; planned ignoring, peer-mediated time-out, contingent observation, time-out ribbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What is planned ignoring?
social reinforcement removed for a brief period
25
What is peer-mediated time-out?
peers participate in procedure
26
What is contingent observation?
individual is repositioned in setting with reinforcement not available
27
What is the time-out ribbon?
colored band as an SD for reinforcement is removed contingent on behavior
28
What is exclusionary time-out?
person removed from environment for a period after behavior; time-out room, partition time-out, hallway time-out
29
What is a time-out room?
confined space outside the time-in environment without access to reinforcement
30
What is a partition time-out?
person remains in time-in environment with view restricted
31
What is hallway time-out?
student directed to leave room and sit in hallway
32
What are desirable aspects of time-out?
ease of application, acceptability, rapid suppression of behavior, combined applications
33
How can time-out be made most effective?
reinforcing/enriching time-in environment; defining behaviors leading to time-out; defining duration procedures for time-out; defining exit criteria; deciding on non/exclusionary time-out; explain the rules; obtain permission; apply consistently; evaluate effectiveness; consider other options; legal/ethical issues
34
What is response cost?
specific amount of reinforcer is lost contingent on behavior
35
What are desirable aspects of response cost?
moderate-to-rapid behavior decrease; convenience; can be combined with other approaches
36
What are some response cost methods?
fines, bonus response cost, combining with positive reinforcement, combining with group consequences
37
How is response cost used effectively?
behavior and fine amount must be defined; determine fine immediacy; response cost or bonus response cost; ensure reinforcer reserve; recognize potential for unplanned/unexpected outcomes; avoid overuse of response cost; keep records
38
What are some response cost considerations (issues)?
increased aggression; avoidance; collateral reductions of desired behavior; calling attention to punished behavior; unpredictability
39
What does "wanting" mean?
occurrence of what is wanted would function as reinforcer at that moment; the current frequency of any behavior that has previously been so reinforced will increase
40
What is an EO?
any environmental variable that alters the effectiveness of some stimulus/object/event as a reinforcer and alters the current frequency of all behaviors that have been reinforced by that stimulus/object/event
41
What are the 2 effects of MOs?
value-altering (inc./dec. in reinforcing effectiveness of stimulus) and behavior-altering effects (inc./dec. in frequency of behaviors associated with a history of the specified stimulus); there are direct and indirect behavior-altering effects
42
What dimensions of behavior can MO changes affect?
response magnitude/latency/relative frequency/etc.
43
What are repertoire-altering effects?
changes in future frequency of response due to consequences
44
What are behavior-altering effects?
changes in current frequency of response due to MOs and SDs
45
What are UMOs?
food deprivation, painful stimulation
46
What is an example of a CMO?
a key is an effective reinforcer when faced with a locked door
47
What are the 9 main human UMOs?
deprivation/satiation of food/water/oxygen/activity/sleep, relevant to sexual reinforcement, too hot/cold of temperatures, painful stimulation
48
What are CMOs?
motivating variables that alter the reinforcing effectiveness of other stimuli/objects/events as a result of the organism's learning history
49
What are multiple effects of UMOs?
environmental events that function as UMOs will typically have behavior-altering effects on the current frequency of a type of behavior, and (as a consequence) function-altering effects with respect to the future frequency of whatever behavior immediately preceded the onset of the event
50
What is S-delta?
condition of absence of SD; if behaviors occur more often in SD presence than S-delta presence, stimulus control is in effect
51
What is stimulus control?
rate/latency/duration/amplitude of response altered by SD
52
What is the difference between SDs and MOs?
SDs signal the availability of reinforcement; MOs alter what functions as a reinforcer
53
What is a stimulus generalization gradient?
graphic depiction of degree of stimulus generalization and discrimination by showing extent to which responses reinforced in one stimulus condition are emitted in the presence of untrained stimuli
54
What is concept formation?
complex example of stimulus control that requires both stimulus generalization within a class of stimuli and discrimination between classes of stimuli
55
What is an antecedent stimulus class?
set of stimuli sharing a common relationship
56
What is a feature stimulus class?
stimuli share common physical forms or common relations
57
What is an arbitrary stimulus class?
stimuli evoke same response but do not share common physical features
58
What is stimulus equivalence?
found by testing for reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity among stimulus-stimulus relations
59
What is reflexivity?
in the absence of training and reinforcement, a response will select a stimulus that is matched to itself; generalized identity matching, A=A
60
What is symmetry?
occurs with the reversibility of the sample stimulus and comparison stimulus (if A=B, then B=A)
61
What is transitivity?
derived (untrained) stimulus-stimulus relation (A=C, C=A) that emerges as a product of training 2 other stimulus-stimulus relations (A=B and B=C)
62
What are factors affecting development of stimulus control?
preattending skills, stimulus salience, masking and overshadowing
63
What are 3 major forms of response prompts?
instructions, modeling, physical guidance
64
Do verbal instructions have to be vocal?
no, could be written or signed
65
What does modeling require?
imitation prerequisites, attending skills
66
Which type of response prompt is most intrusive?
physical guidance
67
What is errorless learning?
techniques for gradually transferring stimulus control
68
What are procedures for transferring stimulus control?
MTL prompts, LTM prompts, graduated guidance, time delay
69
What is graduated guidance?
instructor shadows then slowly moves physical prompts away
70
What is time delay?
constant or progressive delay from SD to prompt
71
What are examples of transfer of stimulus control with stimulus control shaping?
stimulus fading, stimulus shape transformations
72
What are shared features of SDs and MOs?
both occur before behavior and have evocative functions
73
What is the stimulus control gradient from stimulus generalization to stimulus discrimination?
loose (gen.) to tight (discrim.) stimulus control
74
What does concept formation require?
stimulus generalization within a class of stimuli and discrimination between stimulus classes
75
What is equivalence, and how is it defined?
emergence of accurate responding to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following reinforcement of responses of some other stimulus-stimulus relations; stimulus equivalence is defined by testing for reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity among stimulus-stimulus relations (all three must be demonstrated); match-to-sample can be used to test for equivalence

Compsly D (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions