Part A Chapter 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum altitude requirements

A

• Vertical Separation:

  • 1,000 ft for terrain/obstacle up to 5,000 ft AMSL
  • 2,000 ft if terrain/obstacle is higher than 5,000 ft AMSL

• Lateral Separation:
- Track defined by 2 separate navaids, separation within
. 10nm either side of track
. 10nm beyond checkpoints
- Tracks not meeting previous criteria, separation within:
. 20nm either side of track
. 20nm beyond checkpoints

• En Route chart MOCA (Magenta color) provides:

  • 1,500 ft separation for terrain up to 5,000 ft AMSL
  • 2,000 ft separation if terrain higher than 5,000 ft AMSL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cold weather altitude corrections

A

• Corrections to MSA, aerodrome temperature :

  • ISA-15 or above, No correction
  • Less than ISA -15°C add 10% to MSA
  • Less than ISA -30°C add 20% to MSA
  • Less than ISA -50°C add 25% to MSA

• Corrections for altitudes at or below MSA:

  • Aerodrome temperature above 0°C, no corrrection
  • Aerodrome at or below 0°C, use table in Part A or QRH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

RNAV (GNSS) / GPS approaches, meaning of temperature limitation

A

• Actual temperature above chart temperature limit:
- Fly either
. FINAL APP mode to LNAV/VNAV DA
. NAV-FPA to LNAV MDA
- Temperature corrections are not required

• Actual temperature below chart temperature limit:

  • Fly vertically selected NAV-FPA to LNAV MDA
  • Cold weather corrections required, table in Part A/QRH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Precautions to avoid mountain waves and associated turbulence

A
  • Do not fly through or close to rotor clouds adjacent to mountain ranges
  • Overfly mountains by at least
  • 5,000 ft for mountains up to 5,000 ft
  • The height of the mountain if higher than 5,000 ft

• If mountain wave conditions are suspected, be prepared for turbulence even in clear air

• On routes within 20nm of terrain having a maximum elevation exceeding 2,000ft, increase safe altitude by: Elevation of Terrain Windspeed in knots
0-30 31-50 51-70 over 70
2,000-8000 ft 500ft 1,000ft 1,500ft 2,000ft Above 8000 ft 1,000ft 1,500ft 2,000ft 2,500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lowest circling minima for Dragonair aircraft

A

Highest of:

  • MDA 1,000 ft AAL / Visibility 4,600m
  • Chart published minima
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Precision Approach Light system guidance principle

A

Precision Approach Light System provides guidance from 300m before the runway threshold to 900m into the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Category X airport

A

• Airports that may not be nominated as a destination or alternate on the ATS Flight Plan but considered suitable for a non-scheduled landing

• Crew members may operate to Category X airports on the basis of self-briefing from appropriate charts
Example Subic Bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Colors of airport taxiway lights

A
  • Runway exits lights, alternate green and yellow until clear of ILS sensitive area
  • Centerline lights, Green
  • Edge lights, Blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Planning stage, weather and fuel requirements for an isolated destination airport (no alternate within 1 hour 45 minutes flight time of the destination)

A

• Weather forecast from 30’ before to 2 hours after ETA:

  • Visibility and ceiling above Company Minima for Filing as an Alternate
  • Crosswind at or below aircraft and crew operating limit

• Fuel,
Alternate and Reserve Fuel is substituted by 2h holding fuel overhead destination at cruise consumption

• CFP, additional information provided:

  • Critical Point (both 1 engine inop and depressurised)
  • Point of No Return (1 engine inop)

NOTE: Use of this policy requires authorisation from Duty Operations Manager or Line Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum distance from landing threshold where the ILS beam is protected (LOC/GS)

A

• Localiser:

  • 25NM within 10° of LLZ course
  • 17NM within 35° of LLZ course

• Glidepath:
- 10NM within 8° of RWY centreline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alternate fuel

A

• Alternate fuel accounts for:

  • 1 missed approach from minima at destination
  • Fly to an alternate airport plus 5% contingency at CI 0
  • 1 approach and landing at alternate airport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Minimum acceptable Rescue and Fire Fighting (RFF) level for the A320/321

A

• Minimum RFF category for A320 / 321
- Departure and destination 6(4) / 7(5)
- Alternate except ETOPS 4/5
(Takeoff, Destination, Critical Point Alternate)
- ETOPS Alternate 4

• Figures in brackets may be used for temporary downgrades not exceeding 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Planning stage, weather minima for En route alternates others than the ones nominated on the CFP for depressurization, Engine Out and ETOPS

A

1h before to 1h after Alternate ETA:

  • Weather forecast at or above published landing minima
  • Crosswind forecast at or below aircraft and crew limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Planning stage, destination weather forecast indicates Low Visibility Operations in use

A

• Destination alternate must permit Cat 1 operations to protect against aircraft or airport systems downgrades

It means, airport with Non Precision Approach only is not acceptable!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Effect on operations of lightning warnings

A

• AMBER warning: Ramp activities continue as normal

• RED warning:
- Passenger Terminal Building:
. Passenger boarding/disembarkation is normal
. Cargo and baggage, loading/unloading is suspended
. Refueling operations are suspended
. Security staff operations are suspended

  • Remote stands
    . Crew transportation is suspended, if already at the stand crew stay in the bus until red warning is cancelled
    . Passenger boarding/disembarkation is stopped
    . Cargo and baggage loading/unloading is suspended
    . Refueling operations are suspended
    . Security staff operations are suspended
  • Pushback:
    . Groundcrew disconnect their headsets and the ensuing engine start will be without ground support
    . Pushback is suspended, however if the pushback has already commenced it continues until completed
  • Parking:
    . Preferential Stand Allocation System suspended, aircraft are assigned in order of priority frontal then remote stands
    . When all stands are occupied, aircraft hold on taxiway
    . Marshalling:
    Continues at the PTB
    Suspended at remote stands
    . Chocks not inserted, a crew member must remain on board to monitor brake pressure until ground crew contact is established
    . If APU is inoperative:
    Leave right-hand engine running
    At a frontal stand contact Apron Control on 121.775 to advise park brake set, left engine shutdown and aircraft ready for passenger disembarkation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Planning stage, weather minima for destination alternate airport

A

• 1h before to 1h after Alternate ETA:

  • Forecast visibility and cloud ceiling at or above Company specified Minima for Filing as an Alternate
  • Crosswind forecast at or below aircraft and crew limits

• Provided they are at or above the applicable landing minima, the following forecast weather conditions may be ignored:

  • PROB of any value
  • TEMPO (changes for periods less than 60 minutes)
  • INTER (changes for periods less than 30 minutes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Planning stage, weather minima for a Take off alternate airport

A

At time of intended use:

  • Weather conditions at take-off alternate must be at or above CAT 1 landing minima or the minima for the approach in use if no ILS available (visibility and ceiling required for a NPA)
  • Crosswind forecast at or below aircraft and crew limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Planning stage, weather requirements for En-Route Alternate airports nominated on the CFP for mandatory fuel and ETOPS Alternate airports

A

1h before to 1h after Alternate ETA:

  • Forecast visibility and cloud ceiling at or above Company specified Minima for Filing as an Alternate
  • Crosswind forecast at or below aircraft and crew limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Planning stage, destination weather below landing minima or no forecast is available

A

• 2 destination alternate airports meeting the following requirements must be selected:

  • Weather criteria for destination alternate
  • Fuel planned to the most distant alternate
  • Both destination alternates specified on ATS flight plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Planning stage, weather minima for destination airport

A

• At time of intended use:

  • Weather forecast at or above published landing minima
  • Crosswind forecast at or below aircraft and crew limits

• Visibility:
- Forecast visibility can be converted to an equivalent RVR using Part A
- LVO minima may be used if the aircraft is appropriately equipped, crew qualified, and LVO approach available
- Following weather conditions may be ignored:
. PROB Visibility of any value
. TEMPO Visibility of any value
. INTER Visibility of any value

• Cloud ceiling:

  • Evaluated for a precision approach
  • Above appropriate MDH for a NPA

• Freezing Rain or Freezing Drizzle:

  • Arrival can be planned during a forecast of Light Freezing Rain/Drizzle (-FZRA/-FZDZ)
  • If destination forecast indicates Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain/Drizzle nominated alternate shall not forecast any sort of Freezing Rain/Drizzle from 1 h before to 1 h after time of intended use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reserve fuel

A
  • Reserve Fuel is equal to 30 minutes holding at 1,500 ft based on aircraft planned landing weight at the alternate
  • In the absence of available data the A320/321 will use 1,200/1,500kg
  • Reserve Fuel is the company defined minimum fuel with which the aircraft must land
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Depressurization fuel

A

• Sufficient fuel must be carried at any point on route to permit in case of loss of pressurization, failure of an engine or both:

  • Continued flight to the nearest suitable ERA
  • Hold at 1,500ft over that ERA for 30’
  • Carry out 1 approach and landing

• If route analysis shows that above requirement is limiting a Route Brief will be published to indicate required minimum Diversion Fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Total Fuel

A

Total fuel is the sum of:

  • Fuel Required
  • Recommended Extra Fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Operational halt procedure

A

• IOC initiates the Operational Halt Procedure if:

  • Flight is on the ground preparing for takeoff
  • Loading variance exceeds Maximum ZFW, breaks a structural limitation or any other limit

• IOC shall immediately:
- Send ACARS message to the aircraft
“DO NOT TAKEOFF – LOADSHEET DATA ERROR”
- Call Station or ATC to stop the aircraft until data is verified and confirmed by a new Loadsheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Maximum distance from an alternate airport on a non ETOPS flight

A
  • Twin engine aircraft must remain within 60 minutes flying time of an adequate airport unless operating in accordance with Dragonair ETOPS Policy
  • A320 424nm, A321 404nm, A330 434nm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Standard weight for checked in baggage

A

There is no standard weight, the actual baggage weight is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Taxi Fuel

A

• Taxi Fuel accounts for:

  • APU usage
  • Engine start
  • Taxi for departure

• A320/321 use 200 kg as standard but at airports where taxi time is above average a higher fuel may be planned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Standard weights used for crew on the loadsheet

A

Flight Crew and Cabin Crew

81kg (including 6kg Cabin bagage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Recommended Extra Fuel

A

• Recommended Extra Fuel is fuel additional to Fuel Required to cover:

  • Known or suspected weather avoidance requirements
  • En-route air traffic constraints
  • Destination holding delays
  • Impact from NOTAMs
  • Other conditions that cause increased consumption
  • When STA plus diversion time falls close to opening time of a preferred Destination Alternate, Recommended Extra Fuel may be planned to avoid the use of a more distant alternate
  • Sum of:
  • Contingency, Mandatory and Recommended Extra is not less than 600/800kg on A320/321
  • Alternate, Mandatory and Recommended Extra Fuel is not less than Reserve Fuel, ensuring 1h fuel at destination
  • When ATC restrictions or delays are anticipated, the reason to carry extra fuel will be stated in CFP special navigation notes
  • If a Commander is very familiar with a route he may reduce the amount of Recommended Extra Fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Minimum Diversion Fuel

A
  • Minimum diversion fuel is the sum of Alternate and Reserve Fuel
  • When a quantity of fuel is determined to be unusable, the Minimum Diversion Fuel entered in the FM shall be increased by the amount of unusable fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Weather and fuel requirements for Re-clearance Operations In-flight

A

Following criteria must be met until revised destination is communicated to ATC:
- Weather:
Destination and Alternate above planning minima
- Fuel:
FOB> Trip + Contingency (5% from over/abeam last ERA) + Diversion Fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mandatory fuel

A

• On certain routes additional fuel must be carried to support the following requirements:

  • Sufficient fuel must be available at all times to allow the flight to be continued to the nearest suitable airport, hold for 30 minutes at 1,500ft, carry out an approach and land
  • Loss of pressurisation and failure of 1 engine must be considered

• Depressurisation with all engines operating is normally the most fuel critical scenario

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Contingency fuel

A
  • Contingency Fuel allows for errors in forecast winds or temperatures, restrictions on altitude, minor route changes and extended taxi times
  • On most flights Contingency Fuel is planned as 5% of Trip Fuel from departure to destination with a minimum of 130 kg for the A320/321
  • Minimum Contingency fuel is 5% of Trip Fuel from over/abeam last suitable en-route airport to destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Documents that must be carried on board for each flight to meet the requirements of the AN(HK)O:

A
  • Radio Station Licence
  • Certificate of Airworthiness
  • Certificate of Maintenance Review
  • Certificate of Registration
  • Maintenance Log
  • Copy of the Load Sheet
  • Flight Crew Licences (by individual Crew members)
  • Operations Manual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Centralized Load Control (CLC) time frame

A
  • ETD - 6 h, Estimated ZFW issued to Dispatch for CFP
  • ETD - 60’, Traffic staff gives an updated ZFW
  • ETD - 30’, CLC sends Final ZFW to Flight Crew
  • ETD - 25’, Flight Crew sends Final Fuel Figures to CLC
  • ETD - 15’, CLC sends Loadsheet to Flight Crew
  • ETD, Aircraft off-blocks (Loadsheet acknowledged)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum fuel temperature for JET A and JET A1 fuel

A

55 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ice contamination acceptable for take off without de-icing

A

• Take-off is permissible with:

  • Light coatings of frost (white color) less than 3mm thick on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel
  • Thin hoar frost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear (white deposit of fine crystalline texture)

• Lower wing surface ice ridges of any size are not acceptable, all leading edge devices, control surfaces and upper wing surfaces must be free of ice and snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Unusable fuel during cockpit preparation

A

• After refuelling:

  • Note usable fuel quantity in each tank and send it to CLC using ACARS Fuel Distribution page
  • Send location and quantity of unusable fuel to OPS (Attention CLC) via ACARS free text or the Traffic Officer

If ACARS is not available, a “Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet”, in the Flight Deck Document wallet must be sent to CLC via the Traffic Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Non standard fuel distribution after refueling

A
  • After refuelling, note usable fuel quantity in each tank and send it to CLC using ACARS Fuel Distribution page
  • If ACARS is not available, a “Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet”, in the Flight Deck Document wallet must be sent to CLC via the Traffic Officer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Livestock

A

On A320/A321 aircraft, Livestock other than live fish (AVP/PES) and cold-blooded animals (AVC) and shall not be carried as cargo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hot cabin procedure

A
  • Passenger boarding should not commence until a cabin temperature of 28°C or below is achieved
  • HAECO is responsible for the Hot Cabin procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum correction of Trip Fuel on the CFP that you can accept before you have to amend the Trip Fuel

A

200 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Holdover Time values given in Part A

A
  • Lower HOT value in a cell which contains a range of times presents information for moderate precipitation
  • Higher HOT value is representative of fluid performance for light precipitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Definition of an isolated destination

A

Airport where no alternate airport is available within 1h45 flight time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Door opening policy

A
  • Aircraft doors shall only be opened by persons who are trained and competent to do so
  • In NORMAL circumstances aircraft doors shall be opened from the outside of the aircraft
  • Doors are allowed to be opened from inside the aircraft under ABNORMAL or EMERGENCY conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

RVSM airspace, situations that must be reported on an ASR

A

• ASR must be filled in if:

  • Flight deviates by 300ft or more from cleared flight level
  • Wake Turbulence is encountered

• ASR is sent to Dragonair Corporate Safety & Quality department and Line Ops must be notified via CAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Type of Deicing fluid approved by Dragonair

A
  • Type I,II and IV fluids

* Type III are not approved on Dragonair aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

After a diversion, Ground staff not available to prepare a loadsheet

A

Contact CLC and fill in a “No Change to Traffic Load” form stored in the Spare Document Wallet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Documents that must be left on ground for each departure

A
  • Load Sheet signed by Commander
  • Trim Sheet, if not using computer Loadsheet
  • Dangerous Good documents including copy of NOTOC
  • Maintenance Log Station page signed by Commander
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Colors of the De/anti-icing fluids

A
  • Type I: Orange
  • Type II: Colourless, or pale straw
  • Type III: Light yellow
  • Type IV: Emerald green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Door closing policy

A
  • Aircraft doors may be closed only by suitably trained personnel
  • Doors shall be closed from inside the aircraft by the cabin crew, the Airport staff may assist by pushing on the physical structure of the door but under no circumstances should they interfere or participate in the locking process
  • Once closed, doors shall not be re-opened without the Captain’s approval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Error in the Navigation Data Base

A

All errors and omissions in the Navigation Data Base must be reported to Operations by entering the details on the CAR for the attention of Line Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Color of fuel acceptable for uplift

A
  • Fuel shall be bright, clear and within a range of White Water to Light Amber or Straw color
  • Fuels colored Blue, Red or Green are not to be uplifted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Restrictions on defueled fuel uplift

A

• Defuelled fuel may be uplifted if:

  • Defuelled from a CX / AHK / KA aircraft
  • Not been held in a tanker for longer than 24 hours
  • Water contamination check is performed
  • Wide-cut fuel contains an anti-static additive

• Once fuel is returned to the fuel farm it is considered contaminated and must not be reloaded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Intermittent precipitations and holdover time (HOT)

A
  • HOT credit cannot be given due to the fact that the precipitation has temporarily stopped
  • As precipitation falls on the aircraft, the anti-icing fluid is diluted and flows off the aircraft. There is no practical way to determine how much residual anti-icing fluid is on the wing under these circumstances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CORR LNDG and CORR RAMP figures on CFP

A

• Allows to adjust TRIP Fuel for changes in Take-off weight whatever the reason for that change is:

  • CORR LNDG, used if TOTAL Fuel is adjusted as it contains a fuel allowance required to carry that extra fuel
  • CORR RAMP, used if TOTAL Fuel remains the same and the crew decides to use fuel that is already on board, as REC EXTRA or CONT Fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Freezing point of a de/anti-icing fluid

A

• The freezing point of a fluid is function of the glycol concentration and is assessed in the field.
A temperature buffer is applied to cater for:
- Absorption of precipitation
- Errors in application
- Variations in weather conditions

• The Lowest Operational Use Temperature for a given fluid is the higher of:

  • The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type
  • The freezing point of the fluid plus its buffer (10°C for a Type I fluid, 7°C for a Type II, III, or IV fluid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Highest CI that can be used

A
  • CI 150
  • Due to the significant fuel penalty, a greater CI should only be used to guarantee an arrival before a published Airport Curfew or when Crew duty hours are critical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Spillage of fuel during refueling

A
• Stop refuelling
• Inform:
- Ground Engineer
- Airport authorities and fire services
• Passenger boarding:
- Delay
- Disembark, assess if it is required
- Continue, in that case passengers must be kept as far as possible from the fuel spillage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What part of the aircraft should the de/anti-icing procedure start with

A
  • Aircraft wings must be sprayed first, therefore the wings become the most critical surface and if they are clean when a Pre Take off Inspection is required, it can be assumed that the rest of the aircraft is clean.
  • De/anti-icing fluids must be applied close to the skin of the aircraft to minimise heat loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Holdover time expired

A

If an aircraft has to be re-protected prior to a flight:

External surfaces must be de-iced with hot mixed fluid before a further application of anti-ice fluid is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tech log entry for de/anti-icing procedure

A

• When the aircraft is de/anti-iced, Engineering should complete the relevant de/anti-icing field in the Aircraft Maintenance Logbook

• Along with refueling and oil quantity columns, the de/anti-icing field is not part of the Certificate of Release.
Therefeore the Commander is approved to fill-in the tech log in the absence of a qualified engineer on the flight deck saving the need to re-open aircraft doors after the de/anti-icing procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Delays due to technical reasons and passengers boarding

A

• Engine run-up at higher than idle power required, or maintenance taking place in the Flight Deck preventing crews from pre-flight preparation, delay boarding

• For other cases:
- Check estimated rectification time with Maintenance Control or the engineer in charge
- Maintenance takes:
. Less than 30’, Board passengers
. More than 30’, Board passengers when it is estimated to be within 30 minutes of completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Restrictions for carrying out an engine ground run with passengers on board

A
  • If the engineer carries out the engine run-up, the Captain must be in a control seat
  • Captain is responsible for the safety of passengers on board and for ordering an emergency evacuation if required. He must monitor the run-up until completion and all other duties such as flight deck preparation should be deferred
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Microburst alert

A

Dragonair aircraft receiving a Microburst alert are to delay take off or go around as appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Visual inspection required before take off if aircraft has been anti-iced

A
  • Lower (more limiting) time in the HOT cell is not exceeded, no inspection required
  • Time within the range of time given in the HOT cell for the conditions present, Flight Crew must do a Pre-take-off Contamination Inspection
  • Higher (less limiting) time in the HOT cell is exceeded, the Ground Crew must perform a Pre Take-off Contamination Check and take-off within 5 minutes of conducting the check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ATC has reported that the aircraft position was inaccurate during the flight, what should the cew do after landing

A

Whenever ATC notifies that the aircraft position is in error, the Captain shall report the notification with all relevant details by Air Safety Report (ASR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Restrictions on flights in Schedule 8 navigation area

A

• It is prohibited to operate a flight of over 500nm through any part of a Schedule 8 Navigation Area unless article 18(4) of the AN(HK)O is complied with

• Procedure FCOM/PRO-SPO-52:
- Applicable route: HKG – XIY – HKG
- Following equipments serviceable:
. 2 FMS
. 2 GPS or 2 MMR (as installed)
. 2 DME
. 2 VOR
. 1 ADF (2 ADF for any route with NDB only segments)
. 1 Weather radar
- If navigation equipment becomes unserviceable to the extent that it affects navigation accuracy, the aircraft is to be navigated to an area where normal navigation can be resumed as expeditiously as possible.
In practice this may include continuing on the flight planned route provided ATC can confirm appropriate navigation by radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

VFR / Uncontrolled airspace Flights

A
  • All commercial flights are to be conducted under an IFR Flight Plan
  • Flights into and out of uncontrolled airspace and airports are generally prohibited but may be required on a charter flight after:
  • Appraisal showing that the flight can be safely operated
  • Approval of the General Manager Operations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Take-off Alternate airport and GPS approach procedure

A

Where a takeoff alternate is required at least one non-GPS approach must be available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Fuel requirements in flight

A

• Continuous assessment of fuel on board must ensure that there is sufficient fuel available to:

  • Proceed from present position to destination
  • Make an approach
  • Divert to an alternate airport, with 5% Contingency Fuel
  • Hold 30’ at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and land
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

ILS approach, below 1000 ft RVR reduces below minima

A

Continue the approach and land if visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Inoperative TCAS

A
  • Operating with an inoperative TCAS is permitted (including RVSM) in accordance with the MEL
  • TCAS must be serviceable ex-HKG; At Outports it may be inoperative subject to Time and Sector constraints detailed in the MEL
  • TCAS is required in Chinese RVSM airspace
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Criteria for In Flight reduction of normal fuel

A

• En-route and Prior to descent for destination airport:

  • Airport has 2 independent runways suitable for landing, i.e. not crossing or reciprocal
  • Actual and forecast visibility and cloud ceiling for destination airport at ETA at or above Non-Precision Alternate Planning minima and crosswind within limits
  • No known or probable ATC delays
  • Fuel remaining sufficient to continue to destination, plus 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, plus 30 minutes holding at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing

• After Commencing Descent, if a delay or unforeseen situation develops and landing is anticipated with less than Minimum Diversion Fuel, the flight may continue to destination provided that fuel on landing will be at least equal to Reserve Fuel.
The Commander must consider all relevant factors with particular reference to the reason for the delay, weather deterioration, and runway availability at the destination and alternate before electing to continue rather than diverting to the alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Standard aircraft separation used in HKG for arrivals

A

Hong Kong ATC normally provides a separation of:

  • 4NM for a “HEAVY” aircraft following another “HEAVY” - 5NM for a “MEDIUM” aircraft following a “HEAVY”
  • Separation increases to 6NM/7NM following an A380
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ATC calls for minimum fuel condition

A
  • “MINIMUM FUEL”, when after having committed to land at a specific aerodrome the Commander calculates that any change to existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final Reserve Fuel
  • “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”, when usable fuel on nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is predicted to be less than final Reserve Fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Sterile flight deck procedure

A
  • From engine start to Cruise Altitude (or approximately 30min after take off), and from the “30min to landing” call until the aircraft is parked
  • Flight Crew shall only be disturbed for urgent operational issues and access to the Flight Deck is not permitted unless initiated by the Flight Crew
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Duty Operations Manager (DOM)

A
  • The Duty Operations Manager (DOM) is available at any time for advice on operational and technical matters
  • All communications between the Commander and the DOM will be coordinated through IOC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

RVR pilot assessment for take off

A
  • When RVR is not reported, the Commander may assess the RVR by noting the number of visible runway lights
  • ICAO standard spacing for runway edge lighting is 60m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Mandatory RVR for take off

A
  • The Commander may not commence a take-off when the RVR or cloud ceiling where required is below the minima specified for take-off
  • If multiple RVRs are reported, all of them must be at or above the minima.
81
Q

Minimum visual reference for a non precision approach

A
  • With lighting, at least 7 consecutive lights which may be approach, runway lights, or a combination of both
  • Without lighting Runway threshold and touchdown zone
82
Q

LVO take off minima shown in parentheses on the port page

A
  • If lower state or Dragonair LVO take-off minima have been approved, these figures will be shown in parenthèses
  • If take-off is predicated on these lower minima, all RVR readings (touchdown, mid point and stop end) must be available and at or above this minima
83
Q

Minimum altitude to initiate a turn after take off

A

Unless stated on the Port Page, the minimum altitude for initating a turn after take-off is 400ft AAL

84
Q

Weather conditions required for a visual approach

A

Following conditions must be maintained throughout the approach:

  • Visual contact with landing runway environment (runway threshold, approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway
  • Visibility along intended flight path not less than 5km
  • RVR greater than the highest of 800m or RVR required for a NPA to the runway of intended use if a thin layer of ground fog or mist is present at an airport in otherwise good visibility conditions
85
Q

Rule for outbound timing in a hold

A
  • 1 minute at or below 14,000ft AMSL

- 1.5 minutes above 14,000ft AMSL

86
Q

ILS approach passing 4000 ft the RVR reduces below minima

A

Continue to 1000 ft and go around at 1000 ft if RVR has not increased above minima

87
Q

Minimum value of Midpoint RVR for a CAT 1 approach

A
  • For CAT 1 approach Midpoint RVR is generally not reported

* When Midpoint RVR is reported minimum Midpoint RVR value is 200m (150m for autoland)

88
Q

Minimum visual reference for a precision approach

A
  • With lighting, sufficient lights of approach and/or runway lighting system and 1 row of crossbar (barrette) to ensure that flight path can be maintained visually
  • Without lighting, Runway threshold and touchdown zone
89
Q

Minimum visual reference for a Circle to Land approach

A

Continuous sight of ground features to ensure that aircraft position is maintained within the manoeuvring (circling) area and that the aircraft can be positioned on the approach for the runway in use

90
Q

Definition of dispatch for weather assessment

A

Dispatch is defined as the time parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi

91
Q

Policy for headset use

A

Headsets must be used during periods of high workload and at all times below 15,000ft or where higher the transition level

92
Q

Below 1000 ft, an aircraft or aerodrome failure necessitates a reversion to a degraded approach capability

A

Approach may not commence (descend below 1,000ft AAL) or continue if already below 1,000ft AAL unless reported RVRs are at or above the minima for the degraded approach category

93
Q

Weather conditions where an autoland is recommended if the airport is approved

A
  • Visibility less than 1,500m

- Cloudbase below 300ft

94
Q

PA message in case of moderate to severe turbulence

A

“Please note that the seatbelt signs are switched on, Cabin Crew please be seated”

95
Q

Correction on landing minima for aerodrome equipment failures

A

OPS PART A Chapter 8 Flight Procedures

96
Q

Minimum and maximum Glide path angles for autoland

A
  • Minimum Glide Path angle: 2.5°

- Maximum Glide Path angle: 3.15°

97
Q

ATC Emergency call

A

• 2 states of Emergency classified as:

  • Distress “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY”, condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance
  • Urgency “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”, condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of some person on board or within sight but which does not require immediate assistance

• Emergency message format:

  • Name of station addressed
  • Callsign
  • Type of Aircraft
  • Nature of the Emergency
  • Intentions
  • Present or last known position, FL/altitude and heading
  • Any useful information (endurance, POB, …)

• Once communication has been established, the flight callsign should be prefixed with a single “MAYDAY” or “PAN” as appropriate, e.g. “MAYDAY Dragon 810”

98
Q

Precautionary landing

A

Abnormal or emergency situation where the commander does not anticipate an emergency evacuation

99
Q

Low Visibility Procedures

A

• Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) are ICAO requirements imposed on airport authorities for the conduct of AWO

• Procedures applied at an airport for the purpose of ensuring safe operation during approaches below ILS Category 1 and during LVTO
ICAO requires LVP to be in force for all take-off below 550m RVR, not only LVTO (400m)

100
Q

Pan call not recognized by ATC

A
  • Some countries may not recognise the term “Pan Pan” as an urgency message
  • In situations where a “Mayday”call is considered inappropriate and “Pan” call does not achieve the desired response from ATC then the phrase “We are declaring an emergency” should be used
101
Q

Aircraft dispatch with an inoperative PA

A

• Cabin Interphone is used to convey all commands to the cabin; The crew member who answers the call will pass the information to the other Cabin Crew.
It cover all events including “Evacuate”, “Attention! Cabin Crew at Stations”and “Cabin Crew Resume Duty”

  • Seatbelt sign is cycled once as a turbulence alert
  • Switch the seatbelts sign Off and On 6 or more times to order “brace” position
102
Q

Reset of a circuit breaker in flight

A
  • A tripped circuit breaker must not be reset unless the procedure is defined in the QRH or the commander assesses that the CB trip has an adverse effect on flight safety (only 1 reset)
  • Crew members are not permitted to reset or cycle a CB without specific authorisation from the Duty Operations Manager; The DOM will conduct a risk assessment prior to granting such authority
103
Q

Policy for mobile phone use on the flight deck

A
  • Mobile phones must not be used by Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers whilst the aircraft is taxiing for departure or after landing until parked at the arrival gate
  • The Commander shall ensure all Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers mobile phones are turned OFF and properly stowed before leaving the parking gate to minimize distraction during critical phases of flight
104
Q

Ground Engineer needed after headset disconnection

A

Flash the runway turn off lights twice

105
Q

Rule for airport to report RVR values

A
  • Touchdown, Mid-point and Roll-out (Stop End) RVR readings shall be passed to aircraft when they are at or below 800m (depend on regulatory authority)
  • RVR values are reported in:
  • 50m increment at a delay of less than 30s below 800m
  • 25m increment at a delay of less than 15 s below 400m
106
Q

“ATTENTION! CABIN CREW AT STATIONS!”

A
  • Passing 2000ft AAL prior to an Emergency Landing
  • During a Rejected Take-Off
  • On ground If Cabin Crew are not seated and an emergency or abnormal situation requires the crew to return immediately to their seats

• This alert level should be cancelled, when appropriate, using the phrase“CABIN CREW RESUME DUTY”

107
Q

Company callsigns on 131.75

A
  • “Cathay Ops”, IOC for overall monitoring of operations
  • “Dragon Dispatch”, Flight dispatch for related document
  • “Cathay Engineering”, Engineering for technical support
  • “Dragon Hong Kong”, HKIA Hub Station Control for gate allocation and crew bus
108
Q

ACARS free text addresses

A
  • OPS For operational issues
  • ENG For engineering messages
  • HUB For gate allocation, crew bus requests, etc
  • MED For medical advice (MEDLINK)
109
Q

Reset of a circuit breaker on ground

A
  • A tripped CB must not be reset unless it is co-ordinated with maintenance personnel and the cause of the trip is identified
  • Cycling a CB must be co-ordinated with maintenance personnel or CX engineering
110
Q

Low Visibility Operations

A
  • Low Visibility Operations (LVO) are ICAO requirements imposed on Operators to conduct AWO
  • They are defined as:
  • Take-off with a RVR of less than 400m
  • Landing with a RVR of less than 550m
111
Q

Definition of cloud ceiling

A
  • Cloud ceiling is defined as more than half of the sky covered by cloud
  • BKN and OVC, both constitute cloud ceiling
112
Q

Suspicious object found on board

A
  • Guidance given by the Operations Manual when a suspicious object(s) has been found during flight is to “Use all airport facilities to disembark without delay”
  • QRH Bomb On Board can be referred to if time allows
113
Q

Cat 2 and Cat 3 approaches, controlling RVR

A

• CAT 2 and 3A approaches:
- Touchdown(TDZ) and Midpoint(MID) RVR are controlling and shall be at or above published minima
- Rollout(RO) RVR is advisory and shall be considered by the Commander if relevant
- If MID RVR is unserviceable, RO RVR is controlling
• CAT 3B (No DH) approaches:
- Touchdown(TDZ), Midpoint(MID) and Rollout(RO) RVR are controlling and shall be at or above published minima
- If 1 transmissometer is inoperative operations may continue using the 2 remaining transmissiometers

114
Q

ETOPS

A

Operations of a twin engined aircraft conducted over a route that contains a point further than 60 minutes flying time in still air, at the specified one engine inoperative cruising speed, from an adequate airport

115
Q

Color of permanent circuit breaker collars

A

White

116
Q

ADD listed in the documents given by HK dispatch

A

• Flights departing Hong Kong, crew are given a list of PADDs from the Performance Acceptable Deferred Defect Report; SADD are not included

• The Performance Acceptable Deferred Defect Report
reflects the PADD status in Ultramain.
Because there is a delay between engineers raising/clearing a PADD and updating Ultramain, there might be differences with aircraft actual status

117
Q

Defect after doors are closed

A

It is within the authority of the Commander to accept a defect without consulting a ground engineer after the doors are closed, provided the defect does not require a maintenance procedure (m) and is covered in the MEL

118
Q

Failure during taxi phase before the start of the takeoff roll

A

• Decision to continue the flight is subject to pilot judgement and good airmanship:

  • ECAM/FCOM procedures performed first
  • MEL consulted
  • Decision to continue or come back to the gate
119
Q

Maintenance performed on an aircraft at a line station where no appropriately licensed engineer available to sign the CRS

A

The commander may exercise his discretion to fly to a station where the CRS can be issued; It constitute an aircraft dispatch under Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O

120
Q

Aircraft dispatched under temporary autorisation (temporarily authorise an engineer to issue a CRS when there is no appropriately qualified engineer available)

A

AML shall be completed as follows (Refer to Part A 8.6.1):
• Departure station:
- The Commander writes details of the defect
- The Engineer complete the “action taken‟ section including references to relevant technical documentation e.g. AMM reference and complete the CRS with the CX Temporary Autorisation

• Arrival at Hong Kong or a Manned station:
The Commander writes in the defect column, “Aircraft dispatched under Temporary Authorisation Refer to LP xx ITEM x (description of defect and previous action taken)”, (Where xx is the AML Log Page number and x is Item number)

121
Q

Color of temporary circuit breaker collars

A

Red

122
Q

Certificate of Release to Service

A
  • Following any maintenance operation it is necessary to have a Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) in force before the aircraft is allowed to fly
  • A CRS can only be issued by an appropriately licensed engineer
  • Aircraft defects are listed in the left hand column of the AML and the maintenance action taken is detailed in the adjacent column; The far right column is completed with an authorised signature that constitutes a CRS
123
Q

Aircraft defect or un-serviceability allowable under the MEL that does not require maintenance action

A
  • They must be entered in the AML and transferred as a (P)(S)ADD as applicable from the MEL
  • At unmanned stations pilots are authorised to make these AML entries. The CRS shall remain unsigned until the aircraft reaches a place where an appropriately authorised licensed engineer can issue the CRS.
124
Q

ARTICLE 11(1) DISPATCH

A
  • Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O permits an aircraft to be dispatched following maintenance action without a CRS
  • Dispatch under the provisions of Article 11(1) can only be applied after:
  • Consulting Cathay Engineering
  • Informing the Duty Operations Manager (DOM)

• Following a dispatch under Article 11(1):

  • Report the dispatch under Article 11(1) in the CAR
  • Submit the Article 11(1) Dispatch form in the Spare Documents Wallet within 5 days to CX QA (Engineering) copied to Technical Manager (Airbus)
125
Q

Decision of a dispatch under article 11(1)

A
  • Cathay Engineering cannot authorise dispatch under Article 11(1); They may, however, be able to advise whether an Article 11(1) dispatch is possible
  • The decision to dispatch after taking into consideration the airworthiness of the aircraft, rests solely with the Commander
126
Q

Reporting maintenance messages in the AML

A

Class 2 messages under “Maintenance‟ on the STATUS page must be written on the AML when the flight is terminating at a manned station

127
Q

Where can you fly after a dispatch under article 11(1)

A

• The aircraft must be flown to the “nearest place‟ at which a CRS can be signed
Notwithstanding airports in mainland China and elsewhere where appropriately licensed engineers are available, the “nearest place‟ in the context of an Article 11(1) dispatch may be considered to be Hong Kong
• In the event of an en-route diversion or diversion from the intended destination it is permissible to fly more than 1 sector to reach the place where the CRS can be signed

128
Q

Pre Flight Check (PFC)

A

Authority is automatically given for pilots to carry out PFC and refuelling procedures on completion of the ground training course

129
Q

AML for a dispatch under article 11(1)

A

AML shall be completed as follow (Refer to Part A 8.6.1):
• Departure station,
Commander writes details of defect and maintenance work carried out along with “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1).”

• At the station where CRS is to be issued, Commander writes in the defect column: “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1). No CRS issued. Please refer LP xx.” (Where xx is the AML page number).

130
Q

CRS after a check

A
  • All checks except PFC or OCT require a CRS, The “Check Completed‟ block in the AML has a bold border denoting that the signature in the block is a CRS
  • Pilots are not permitted to sign CRS, nor sign “Check Completed‟ block nor carry out “Transit Checks‟
131
Q

On Call Transit Procedure (OCT)

A
  • On Call Transit procedures are applicable at all manned stations (except Hong Kong) and unmanned stations when a Riding Engineer is carried; The Commander is responsible for ensuring the OCT check has been carried out and the AML completed correctly
  • Qualified aircraft mechanics will;
  • Conduct a walk-around and carry out refuelling
  • Review AML for defects, info entries, PADD/SADD/ADD
  • Notify an engineer to cover maintenance and/or certification action

• Licensed Aircraft Engineers (LAE) will;

  • Respond when required
  • Do a walk around and sign the CRS following maintenance or overnight

• Riding engineer performs the functions of mechanic and/or LAE as required

132
Q

AML, Correction of error

A

Where corrections are to be made to an AML entry, the error will be crossed out with a single line so as to ensure the error remains legible

133
Q

AML, Failure that requires an ASR/MOR

A

If an entry requires submission of an ASR/MOR,

“ASR/MOR Raised” must be written in the AML entry box

134
Q

AML, ECAM warning that self clears

A
  • Write a “For Info (TI)‟ entry in the defect column in HKG or at a manned station: These entries don’t require a CRS but need a comment in the action taken column.
  • This allows the Engineering Department to track potential problems
135
Q

Duplicate inspection

A

• Commanders are permitted to carry out duplicate inspections following maintenance action at outstations, provided:

  • A second qualified engineer is not available
  • Only a minor adjustment is involved
  • The crew member is qualified on the aircraft type

• Close liaison with the Ground Engineer is necessary to ascertain the details of the specific checks required.
In general, duplicate inspection involve checking the affected control system for freedom/direction of movement and the security and safety locking of the disturbed component. A duplicate inspection may be required for dispatch under Temporary Authorisation or Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O.

136
Q

AML, Entry following a Pre flight check PFC

A
  • Before the PFC, “Pre flight check required” must be entered in the defect block
  • After the PFC, “Pre flight check carried out SATIS” must be entered in the Action Taken block with a signature including ERN
137
Q

Procedure following a hard or overweight landing

A

• The following procedure must be followed regardless of whether the station is Manned or Unmanned:

  • Write an entry in the AML immediately after the event
  • Advise CX Engineering through IOC
  • Load 15 report must be analysed by CX ENG
  • Submit an ASR if CX confrms limit is exceeded

Notes:

  • If DMU is unserviceable the aircraft may be AOG until the DFDR is read: Aircraft can’t dispatch without approval of CX Engineering
  • At an Unmanned station If a load 15 confirms the suspected Hard Landing does not exceed limits, dispatch may be considered under Article 11(1)
138
Q

Spillage in aircraft

A

Cargo packages showing signs of leakage, fuming, stains or evidence of damage shall be reported to the Duty Ground Engineer and the Commander immediately:

  • If the spillage is a flammable liquid, don’t continue to use or operate any electrical system
  • Station management must notify appropriate authority depending on the nature and gravity of the incident
  • Engineering personnel must inspect the aircraft in accordance with their procedures
  • A SADD must be raised to facilitate the necessary clean-up work on return to Hong Kong
139
Q

Dispatch using CFDS procedure

A

• CAR:
- Write as a comment CFDS procedure used for dispatch
- Address to Technical Manager Airbus
• AML Action taken column:
CFDS procedure carried out IAW FCOM PRO SUP 45 item x, Aircraft dispatched IAW MELxxxx

140
Q

Dispatch with expired MEL rectification interval

A

• 1 time extension of rectification Interval B, C or D is permitted for the same duration provided:

  • Description of duties and responsibilities for control of extension is established by operator and accepted by authority
  • The Authority is notified of any extension authorised
141
Q

Based Deferred Defect (BDD)

A

Any defect that:

  • Does not change the procedures for flight, (not visible to the Flight Crew or Ground Engineer)
  • Doesn’t affect safety, nor airworthiness
142
Q

Maintenance Concession

A
  • Authorization for an engineer to accept a limited number of systems or components that don’t wholly comply with relevant requirements of approved technical publication but meet an acceptable level of airworthiness
  • They are issued by CX Engineering
143
Q

Design Deviation Order (DDO)

A

• Control procedure issued by Technical Services Design Organisation for authorization of work on an aircraft or on its components that is:

  • Urgent
  • Deviates from existing approved drawings, limits, specifications, procedures for the aircraft type

• DDOs are Engineering normal method of:

  • Short/Long term authorisation of work per item or
  • Short term specialist authorisation beyond the definition of a Maintenance Concession

• If a DDO results in a SADD entry, a copy of the DDO should be in the miscellaneous section of the AML

144
Q

Engineering Organisation and Maintenance Procedures Manual

A

Detailed description of Engineering procedures used to comply with CATHAY PACIFIC AIRWAYS Engineering Exposition and any other regulatory documents

145
Q

Maintenance ADD (MADD)

A

• Electronic work request system used when:

  • CX Engineering require work to be carried out for a repetitive defect,
  • Perform a fleet inspection
  • Investigate a MOR

• MADD gives guidance to engineers in HKG and at all line stations to reduce duplication of effort when investigating repetitive defect

146
Q

Non Routine Card (NRC)

A

• Record and certify routine, non routine or special nature work and can include any duplicate inspections required; They are used in HKG and XMN and cover aircraft check, inspection findings and rectifications which may not appear in the AML

• NRC are raised for definitive tasks.
Where full itemised details of the task or sub tasks is required, a Continuation Work Sheet (CWS) is used

147
Q

Continuation Work Sheet (CWS)

A

• Used only in HKG and XMN to record and certify work with full itemised details that can be routine, non routine or of special nature and could include any duplicate inspections required

148
Q

Aircraft checks required before dispatch

A
  • A Lesser Check (A, WY, 48H) must be valid from pushback to a destination where the check can be performed
  • If a Lesser check expires, it can only be extended with prior approval from HK CAD.
  • Maintenance checks validity:
  • 48H Check 48 hours
  • WY Check 8 days
  • A Check 500 hours
149
Q

Dispatch with oxygen below 1100 PSI

A

MEL says:

  • Dispatch is allowed when Crew Oxygen is below 1,100psi provided a check is made before each flight to ensure that pressure is sufficient for the intended flight
  • The threshold for Engineering to take maintenance action (including raising of a SADD) is 1,100psi; There is no requirement to log indications above this limit
150
Q

Passenger Oxygen requirements

A

Passenger oxygen requirements are met using:

  • Cabin fixed oxygen system
  • Portable oxygen bottles
151
Q

Cabin Crew Oxygen requirement

A

Cabin staff oxygen requirements are met using:

  • Cabin fixed oxygen system
  • 15 minutes supply from PBE
  • Portable oxygen bottles
152
Q

Oxygen rule

A

Sufficient oxygen must be available prior to departure for planned or actual level above FL250 in case of depressurisation.

• Passenger oxygen requirements:

  • All passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 15,000ft, minimum 10 minutes
  • 30% of passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 12,000ft but does not exceed 15,000ft
  • 10% of passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft but does not exceed 12,000ft
  • First Aid oxygen for independent and simultaneous use of the greater of 2% of passengers or 2 passengers for the entire period that cabin altitude exceeds 8,000ft

• Crew oxygen requirements:

  • Flight Deck Crew, duration of cabin exceeding 10,000ft, Minimum 2h
  • Cabin Crew, duration of cabin exceeding 10,000ft + 15 minutes of individual portable supply.
153
Q

Handling of delays on ground at Dragonair ports

A
  • The Ramp Coordinator has overall responsibility for the local handling of delays. He will be the focal point for communications with IOC, the Commander, the FA1 and the Ground Engineer
  • Commanders must communicate all relevant information to the Ramp Coordinator in a timely manner
154
Q

Handling of delays on ground at ports where Dragonair has representation

A

At ports where Dragonair does not normally operate but employs a handling agent, the traffic staff or handling agent will be responsible for passenger welfare:

  • Refreshments, meals or accommodation will be provided in accordance with the published scale in the Customer Services Manual
  • Close liaison will be maintained between the agent and the Commander on departure time and disembarking or embarking passengers
  • The agent will be responsible for all payments incurred in these situations
155
Q

Handling of delays on ground at ports where Dragonair has no representation

A

Where Dragonair have neither a handling agent nor resident traffic staff, the Commander is responsible for passenger welfare or liaison:

  • Refreshments, meals or accommodation will be provided in accordance with the scale published
  • If credit facilities do not exist, the Commander is to contact IOC to make suitable arrangements
156
Q

Pre-Flight planning minima for destination if the airport is currently in LVP

A
  • Cat II approach can be planned at destination to allow a legal dispatch provided the aircraft is LVO equipped and crew are LVO qualified
  • Destination alternate must permit Cat 1 operations
157
Q

Delay periods over which snacks, sandwiches or hot meals should be provided

A

The scale for provision of refreshments, meals or accommodation in addition to the normally provided Inflight catering is:

  • Delay period up to 20’, Snacks / Cookies and Drinks
  • Delay period up to 60’, Sandwiches
  • Delay period up to 105’, Hot Meal
158
Q

Divertion to an outport with Duty free items

A
  • Bars will be sealed in accordance with Cabin crew instructions and whenever possible Duty Free Items should be deposited in a bonded store
  • If no bonded store facility exist, security guarding of the aircraft will have to be arranged and consideration should be given to sealing aircraft doors
159
Q

Passenger found smoking in the toilets

A

• SP must:

  • Establish where the passenger has disposed of the cigarette and confirm that it has been extinguished
  • Report to the Captain the passenger name and seat number
  • Fill in a CSR

• A passenger who admits or is caught smoking on board has committed a violation of the Aviation Security Ordinance and is considered “unruly”.
If the passenger does not comply with an instruction to stop, Cabin Crew shall apply the procedure for handling unruly passengers (Level 1, Failure to comply with instructions given by crew members) and escalate their actions as appropriate

160
Q

Surface covered with volcanic ash, weather condition equivalence

A
  • Dry Ash = Wet Runway

- Wet Ash = Slush Runway

161
Q

Delays on ground

A
  • It is preferable to disembark the passengers into the transit lounge; This may not always be easily arranged in PRC but in the interest of the cabin staff should be done whenever possible
  • Commander should make a PA advising passengers that they will be met by Dragonair staff who will assist them in any way possible
162
Q

Considerations with visibility regarding icing conditions and freezing fog

A
  • Icing conditions: OAT on ground at or below 10 °C with Fog (visibility of less than 1 mile (1.6km))
  • Freezing fog: OAT on ground at or below 0 °C and visibility of 1km or less
163
Q

Maximum distance to a suitable airport for aircraft not operating in accordance with Dragonair ETOPS policy

A
  • A320 424nm
  • A321 404nm
  • A330 434nm
164
Q

Clean Aircraft Concept

A

Dragonair aircraft shall not take off when ice, snow, slush or frost is present on, or adhering to, the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets or other critical surfaces

165
Q

Factorisation of visibility to obtain a RVR

A

Use table in part A, can only be done for:

  • Flight planning stage
  • Destination airport
166
Q

Discrepancy between CFP and FMS data

A

CFP is the definitive reference for navigation

167
Q

Maximum Cabin temperature before boarding is started

A

28 °C

168
Q

Adult definition for Loadsheet

A

Over 12 years old

169
Q

De-fuelling limitations with passengers

A

Defueling can never take place with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking

170
Q

Suitable runway

A

Runway where a safe landing may be made taking into account the forecast weather conditions

171
Q

Flight to an aerodrome without an instrument approach

A

Must be:

  • Approved by AGMF
  • Operating minima, procedures and weather specified
172
Q

Validity of Category C airport competency

A

12 Months

173
Q

Hydrant refuelling, fuel quality check

A

Water check must be done after 1000 l of fuel have been delivered

174
Q

Conflict between published operations information and KA produced operational information

A

KA documentation is controlling

175
Q

Standard weight for Adult Male

A

75 kgs

176
Q

Fuelling with passengers on board

A
  • 1 Flight deck crew member on his seat
  • At least 1 door open with bridge or steps connected
  • Other Doors disarmed
  • 4 Cabin crew onboard
  • Smoke signs ON, Seat Belt Sign OFF
177
Q

Dispatch Message not available ?

A
  • Dispatch normally

* Annotate the CAR for the attention of MLO

178
Q

Fuel spill during refuelling with APU running

A

Complete a normal shutdown of the APU

179
Q

Validity of Category B airport competency

A

13 Months

180
Q

SMS RTOW, take-off data record

A

Record the information on:
• Take Off Data Form in the stationary wallet
• Page 2 of the CFP

181
Q

Confidential Human Factors Reports

A
  • Used to pass a confidential comment or suggestion
  • Located in the stationary wallet
  • Adressed to the Appropriate Manager
182
Q

Adequate airport

A
  • Runway length and taxiways compatible with aircraft
  • ATC, lighting, weather reporting available
  • 1 instrument approach avaiable (NAVAID or RNAV)
  • Airport above required RFF
183
Q

MRA on the CFP

A
• CFP MRA is the chart Grid MORA increased by 1,000ft to satisfy CAD requirements
• CFP MRA must be corrected for wind:
- Up to 30kt, no correction.
- From 31 to 50kt, add  500ft
- From 51 to 70kt add  1,000ft
- Above 71 kt, add 1,500ft
184
Q

Standard weight for Adult Female

A

65 kg

185
Q

Standard weight for Children

A

39 kg

186
Q

Depressurised fuel calculation

A

• Assumes descent to FL100, then long range cruise to TOD
• When depressurisation is a critical factor on any sector the CFP will show Critical Point (CP) information between selected en-route airport (ERA) pairs:
- Mandatory Fuel is required if fuel remaining at the CP is less than the Diversion Fuel Required as listed in the Route Brief
- Diversion Fuel Required includes 5% contingency fuel from the CP to the ERA

  • Emergency descent must adhere to the descent profile shown on the Enroute Diversion Guide to ensure oxygen capacity and performance considérations
  • NOTAM information must be checked to ensure suitability of ERAs; Airports may be used outside of normal operating hours if it is known that they can be activated on an emergency basis
187
Q

Passengers bags on seats

A

Only diplomatic bags, musical instruments and religious articles can be stored on empty seats provided passengers bought a ticket for that seat

188
Q

Weight of Jumpseat passenger on loadsheet

A

• The weight of jumpseat passengers is normally included in the Traffic Load
• In some cases, the weight of jumpseat passengers will be included in the DOW.
A note will be added in the SI column of the loadsheet in the following format: 02 PAX OCCUPIED J/S, TOTAL PAX 174, WEIGHT AND INDEX INCLUDED IN DOW

189
Q

Rules for runway lights

A

• Runway Centreline Lights (RCL):

  • White from threshold to a point 900m (3000 ft) from the stop end
  • Alternate red and white from 900 to 300m (1000 ft) from the stop end
  • Red on the last 300 m before the stop end

• Runway Edge lights (30/60m spacing depending on Runways):

  • White from threshold to a point 600m (2000 ft) from the stop end
  • Yellow on the last 600m before the stop end
190
Q

Conditions that require mandatory fuel build up

A

• Following situations might require mandatory fuel:

  • Long over water segment
  • Long final route segment between the last en-route airport and the destination airport
  • Short distance to the nominated alternate airport

• When mandatory fuel build-up is required:

  • ERAs with associated Critical Points (CP) and fuel requirements will be shown on the CFP
  • Where there are numerous ERAs on the latter part and it is impossible to generate mandatory fuel no ERAs or CP will be shown
  • Mandatory Fuel becomes extra fuel after passing the last en-route CP; This should be considered before loading extra fuel for destination contingencies.
191
Q

Centralised Load Control (CLC)

A
  • Centralised Load Control (CLC) has offices located in Hong Kong and Taipei
  • They produce all ACARS loadsheets, a backup system permits Computer Loadsheets to be delivered to an Airport Gate printer at most online stations
192
Q

Standard weight for cabin baggage

A

6 kg for Children and adults to be added to their standard weights

193
Q

Standard weight for infants

A

8 kg including food and carry basket

194
Q

Criteria for an airport to be elected as suitable Take off alternate before dispatch

A
  • Within 340nm of departure airport
  • At least 1 non-GPS approach available
  • Enroute terrain acceptable for OEI operations
  • Weather at or above Cat I (or NPA MDA if no ILS AVBL)
  • Filed on ATS plan
195
Q

Take-off minima not published on airport chart or by the state authority

A

HIRL and CL, 0’ / 200m RVR
HIRL or CL or RCLM, 0’ / 400m RVR
Other cases, 0’ / 800m RVR

196
Q

Definition of approach ban

A

• The Captain shall not commence an approach (descend below 1,000ft AAL or published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher) unless:

  • Reported RVR is at or above published minima
  • If RVR is not measured, reported visibility is at or above 800m or published minima, whichever is higher
  • Reported cloud ceiling (if required by State minima) is at or above published minima

• A missed approach shall be initiated prior to passing 1,000ft AAL or published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher if the applicable criteria above are not met

197
Q

Validity periods of Maintenance Check

A
  • 48HR Check, 48 hours
  • Weekly Check, 8 days
  • A Check, 500 hours
  • 2A Check, 1,000 hours
  • 4A check, 2,000 hours
  • C check, 15 months
198
Q

Planning minima for Alternate

A

• Calculated by Navigation Service Unit
• Higher of Company calculated or where published State operating minima
• Shown on CFP, otherwise use PART A/
. 1 approach to a suitable runway,
add 400ft to DA/MDA and 1500m to RVR
. 2 approaches to separate suitable runways,
add 200ft to DA/MDA and 800m to RVR

199
Q

Autoland, maximum aerodrome elevation

A

A320/321: 2,500 ft