A320 Normal OPS Flashcards

1
Q

Controls and switches that must be confirmed by the PF before being operated by the PM

A
  • Thrust Lever
  • Engine Master Switch
  • Fire Switch
  • IR/ADR
  • Cockpit Circuit Breaker
  • Hydraulic Switches, Pumps or PTU
  • Guarded Switches or Pushbuttons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Noise abatement procedure

A

• Procedures:

  • NADP 1/ ICAO A: Maintain SRS climb to 3 000 ft AAL followed by acceleration and flap retraction
  • NADP 2/ ICAO B: SRS climb to acceleration altitude followed by acceleration and flap retraction, Green Dot is flown until 3 000 ft AAL
  • Standard noise abatement procedure on Port Page shall be flown in accordance with NADP 1
  • Noise abatement procedures should not be conducted in conditions of significant turbulence or windshear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Policy for tuning Navaids

A
  • VOR/ADF, manually tuned for departure and approach
  • ILS, auto-tuned; for departures only manually tuned when backtracking the LLZ or ILS DME is required
  • Auto-tuning of navaids is recommended for climb, cruise and descent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum speed on departure

A

250 kt until above the highest applicable sector MSA, at least 3 000 ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum speed on arrival

A

PF shall reduce speed to less than 250 kt:
• Below highest applicable sector MSA
• In accordance with state requirements
• At speed limit point, if one is defined
• Before descending below 3 000 ft AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Reference for safe altitude on departures/arrivals that do not follow published procedures

A
  • MRA (Part A 8.1.8.2 Operational Flight Plan)
  • Grid MORA if not on the CFP track
  • 25 nm MSA where valid
  • Minimum vectoring altitudes under radar control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When do you have to select Terrain on the ND

A

• TERR may be selected at any time
to enhance situational awareness
• Normally TERR is selected on ND:
‐ Before takeoff until above relevant sector MSA
‐ During descent when cleared below highest sector MSA
• These requirements may be modified with significant weather or if terrain is not a factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Excessive rate of descent close to the ground

A

Rate of descent greater than:
• 2 500 ft/min below 2 500 ft RA
• 1 500 ft/min below 1 000 ft RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stabilised approach

A

• 1 500 ft AAL, Landing configuration Stable on Final Approach Path
• 1 000 ft AAL, Missed approach mandatory if any of these criteria is not achieved:
‐ Landing configuration
‐ Stable on Final Approach Path
‐ Speed VAPP (-5/+10)
‐ Landing Checklist complete
• For visual, circling or approaches that require level flight at or below 1 500 ft AAL:
- Landing configuration at 1 000 ft AAL
- Wings level on extended runway centreline by 300 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At 1000 ft PM calls “Unstable Flaps”

A

PF answers “Standby” and prepare for a go-around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Conditions required to change a manual landing to an autoland

A
  • Port Page/NOTAM checked for autoland capability and ILS suitability mentioned in the arrival briefing
  • Decision announced and briefed above 1 000 ft RA
  • Captain PF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Restrictions when the approach is built manually on the FM using stored database or pilot-created waypoints

A

• Below highest sector MSA:
- Don’t insert any altitude constraint
- Don’t use Managed vertical mode
• Use Raw data as the primary navigation reference
• Lateral and vertical guidance derived from manually inserted waypoints must be treated with care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Situations where a missed approach is mandatory

A
  • Aircraft not stabilised
  • RVR/visibility not achieved
  • Visual references subsequently lost
  • Successful outcome of the manoeuvre in doubt
  • Loss of situational awareness below the MSA
  • Captain announces “Go-Around”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Landing beyond the planned touchdown point

A

Commander assesses whether a safe landing is achievable within remaining distance:

• If landing is to be discontinued:

  • Captain announce “Go-around”
  • PF performs a normal go-around procedure or a go-around after touchdown, as required

• If landing is to be continued:
- Captain ensures the PF uses appropriate braking and reverse thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Touchdown Zone

A
  • Zone A, bounded by the 2nd and 3rd pair of markers (3rd one is larger: Aiming point marker)
  • Zone B, bounded by the 1st and last pair of markers (6 pairs for Runways longer than 2400m)
  • Distance between each pair of markers: 150 m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Conditions when Full reverse must be used for landing

A
  • Contaminated runway
  • Runway assessed short at actual conditions
  • Tailwind ≥ 10 kt or unexpected tailwind
  • Touchdown beyond Zone B
  • Aircraft failure impacting landing performance
  • If required due to an emergency
  • LVP approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List of aircraft documentation to be carried on board

A
  • Certificate of Airworthiness
  • Certificate of Maintenance Review
  • Certificate of Registration
  • Aircraft Radio Station Licence
  • Noise Certificate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum acceptable Fuel discrepancy after refuelling

A
  • 400 kg / + 500 kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

After refuelling, Fuel discrepancy is outside the limit

A

The flight may depart provided the Captain is satisfied that:
• Sufficient fuel is on board
• Aircraft limitations are not exceeded
• Takeoff performance requirements are satisfied

Note: Small discrepancies or degraded fuel quantity indication are unlikely to be resolved through a stick check due to the level of accuracy of the MMI system; Stick checks are only necessary in the event of the fuel quantity indicating system being inoperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Crew enters the cockpit, all electrical power is OFF

A
  • PM performs the Aircraft Power Up and APU Fire Test/Start procedures using FCOM PRO/NOR/SOP
  • This ensures that all required safety checks are performed before the application of electrical power to avoid inadvertent operation of systems and danger to the aircraft or personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Indications for the Alternate Brake check

A
  • Pressure builds up without delay
  • Symmetrical indications
  • Pressure between 2 000 and 2 700 PSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aircraft systems that require an additional exterior check after maintenance

A

Engines or landing gear maintenance during or after the walk-around, following items shall be checked by a pilot prior to doors closed:
FAN COWL DOORS……………………………CLOSED/LATCHED
GEAR SAFETY PINS…………………………………………REMOVED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Flight Recorder Check

A

RCDR GND CTL…………………………….ON
Ensure that the PARK BRK is ON
LOUDSPEAKER VOLUME …………..OFF (BOTH SIDES)
ACP INT/RAD sw ………………………….SET to INT
Turn the interphone volume to maximum
CVR TEST………………………………………PRESS AND MAINTAIN
Check that the following is heard through loudspeakers:
• Audio test signal, and 1 beep every 4s
• Voice when talking in the handmike
• Release the CVR test push button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conditions for Complete/Fast ADIRS alignment

A

• Complete IRS alignment must be performed in the following cases:
- Before the first flight of the day
- When there is a crew change
- When GPS is not available and:
. NAVAIDS coverage is poor on route
. Expected flight time is more than 3 h
• Fast IRS alignment must be performed when deviation of IRS position from FMGC position is at or above 5 NM

• To perform an alignment:

  • Aircraft must be stopped on ground, any aircraft movement will automatically restart the IRS alignment.
  • engines must be OFF, do not align IRS during engine start or while the engines are running
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you perform a Fast Align of ADIRS

A

Turn the switch OFF then back to NAV within 5 s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

With less than xx passengers select Pack flow low or Econ flow

A
  • 120 for A320

* 140 for A321

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Battery test

A
  • BAT OFF then ON

* 10s after all BAT ON, check battery charge below 60 A decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Battery check is not successful, What should you do

A

Wait until the end of the batteries charging cycle and perform the check again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pre departure Fuel system configuration

A

• A320:
- If center tank is less than 200 kg for the flight:
FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw………………………………..MAN CTR TK PUMP 1&2 pb-sw……………………………………………OFF
- If center tank is more than 200 kg for the flight:
FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw……………………………….CHECK AUTO

• A321:
FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw……………………………….CHECK AUTO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ground operation in heavy rain

A

• After landing: EXTRACT…………………………………OVRD
Close avionics ventilation and prevent rainwater from entering
PACKS 1 and 2…………………………………………………..CHECK ON
Add air from the air conditioning system to ventilation air
If bleed air is not available, follow the time limits:
- OAT ≤ 39 °C, no limit
- 39 °C ≤ OAT ≤ 45 °C, 3 h
- OAT ≥ 45 °C, 30 min
• After takeoff: EXTRACT……………………………………AUTO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IRS Position Check during Cockpit preparation

A

• MCDU POSITION MONITOR page:
- IRS in NAV mode
- Distance between each IRS and FMS position < 5 NM
• ND ROSE-NAV or ARC, aircraft position consistent with:
- Runway
- SID
- Surrounding NAVAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MCDU Flight Plan Check

A

MCDU F-PLN page against CFP, check:
• CO RTE loaded and not modified, WPTs
• Otherwise, track&distance at each WPT against CFP
• DIST TO DEST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maximum difference on Ground between altitude Indications

A
  • PFD 1 or PFD 2: 25 ft / airport elevation
  • ADR1 / ADR2 / ADR3 on PFD: 20 ft
  • ISIS / ADRs: 100 ft
  • STBY ALTI: 300 ft / airport elevation

On ground, vibrator is off, that is why the standby altimeter tolerance value is high. In flight, the vibrator is on and the value is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maximum difference on Ground between Heading indications on ND

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maximum difference on Ground between Speed indications

A

6 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ND mode for take off

A
  • ARC, If takeoff is approximately departure direction

* ROSE NAV, if change of more than 70° after takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum Ground Speed on ND for instrument check

A

5 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Minimum Oxygen pressure on the Door SD Page

A

1 100 PSI

If lower, verify that pressure is sufficient for the scheduled flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Before departure, when should the APU be started

A

20 min before departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ACARS PDC Procedure

A

• PF enters data and ensures flight number agrees with CFP
• PM selects:
- SEND, after data has been checked
- ACCEPT, upon PDC receipt
Any discrepancy shall be resolved by voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Restrictions on starting or shutting down the APU during Refueling

A

‐ APU start is not permitted during refuel/defuel if it has previously failed to start or an automatic shutdown has occurred
‐ Following a fuel spill with ground external power available, consider to shutdown the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Revised Loadsheet Procedure

A

• If revised TOW is outisde of RTOW bracket, get new data using same flap configuration
• Prior to Engine Start update INIT B and PERF TO pages
• After Engine Start:
‐ Enter new MAC TOW and TOW into FUEL PRED page
‐ Adjust the THS to correspond with revised GWCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

NW STRG DISC MEMO not displayed before pushback, Ground Crew confirms steering bypass in towing position

A
  • Pushback must not be performed, this is to avoid nose landing gear damage at yellow hydraulic pressurization
  • To dispatch the aircraft refer to MEL-32-51 Nose Wheel Steering Control System
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Engine start with park brake ON, the aircraft starts to move

A
  • Release PARK BRK handle

* Use brake pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

During engine start, Ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast

A

• Run engine at idle for 5 min:

  • If leak disappears aircraft can dispatch
  • Otherwise Maintenance action required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

During engine start, electrical power supply is interrupted (loss of DUs)

A

Abort start:
• Switch OFF ENG MASTER
• Perform a 30 s dry crank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ENG parameters after start

A
EPR  1.01
N1   20 %
EGT  400 °C
FF     400 kg/h
N2   60 %, no Grey background
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

At what stage Pack valves reopen during the start sequence

A

Both pack valves reopen 30 s after second engine N2 is above 50 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Engines must be operated at idle before Take off for at least

A
  • 2 min to ensure that takeoff is not initiated before center tank pumps test is finished
  • 5 min after a shutdown period greater than 2h to avoid thermal shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Definition of Icing conditions

A

OAT (on ground and for takeoff), TAT (in flight) is:
• 10 °C or below with
- Visible moisture (clouds, fog, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) or
- Standing water, slush, ice or snow on taxiways or runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

After start, ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON and the valve does not open (FAULT light ON)

A
  • Increase N2 on engine by about 5 %

* When the valve opens, retard thrust lever to IDLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When do you perform the Ice shedding procedure

A
  • OAT 3 °C or less with icing conditions

* Significant engine vibration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe Ice shedding procedure

A

• Taxi out, apply 50 % of N1 at intervals not greater than 15 min
• Before takeoff:
- Advise ATC of runup requirement when reporting Ready
- Apply 50 % of N1 and check engine parameters (vibrations)
- Advance thrust levers to FLEX/TOGA when clear for takeoff

54
Q

When performing the static run-up, what N1 range should be avoided

A

61-74% N1

55
Q

After reset what RUD TRIM position indication is acceptable if not at zero

A

Up to 0.3° (L or R)

56
Q

Taxiing in icing conditions with rain, slush or snow

A
  • Keep flaps retracted until the holding point

* It prevents contamination of the slats/flaps mechanism

57
Q

Taxi, which light must be turned ON entering or crossing a runway

A

STROBE lights

58
Q

Taxi, RWY TURN OFF lights utilisation

A

Switch ON as required

59
Q

Maximum Thrust on ground for Taxi

A

40 % N1

60
Q

Taxi out, Brakes fan utilisation

A

Brake fans ON when an arc is displayed above 1 brake temperature

61
Q

Use of IGN/START mode for Take off or Landing

A
  • Runway covered with standing water
  • Heavy rain
  • Severe turbulence expected after takeoff on approach or in the go-around area
62
Q

Minimum runway with for a 180 degree turn

A
  • A320: 30 m (22.9m)

* A321: 32 m (27.6m)

63
Q

Procedure for a 180° turn on runway

A

• Taxi on right side of runway
• Turn left with a 25° angle from runway axis
• When physically over the runway edge:
- Turn the nosewheel fully right
- Set ENG 2 idle and ENG 1 EPR between 1.02 and 1.03
- Ground Speed 5 to 8 kts during the turn

64
Q

Crosswind Take off Technique

A

Crosswind greater than 20kt or any Tailwind:
• PF maintain stick full forward up to 80 kt and release gradually to reach neutral at 100 kt
• Captain sets 50% N1 (1.05 EPR) on both engines and increase progressively to reach takeoff thrust at 40 kt

65
Q

Normal Take off technique

A

• PF maintain stick half forward up to 80 kt and release gradually to reach neutral at 100 kt
• Captain adjusts engine thrust in two steps:
- Idle to 50 % N1 (1.05 EPR)
- FLX / TOGA detent

66
Q

At what speed is the connection between nosewheel steering and the rudder pedals removed

A

130 kt, in strong crosswinds more rudder input will be required at this point to prevent the aircraft from turning into the wind

67
Q

Minimum altitude to engage AP on Take off

A

100 ft AGL

68
Q

Packs OFF take off

A

• Switch Pack OFF during the before Take off Check list
• Switch Pack ON:
- PACK 1 after CLB thrust reduction
- PACK 2, 10 s later

69
Q

Climb, if the rate of climb is insufficient to achieve operational constraints

A

Reduce speed 275 kt / M0.76 and evaluate

70
Q

When do you retract the LAND Lights

A

At 10000 ft or earlier if above 250kt and excessive airframe vibration

71
Q

When is a Navigation accuracy check required

A
• Navigation accuracy check required when:
‐ IRS only navigation
‐ GPS PRIMARY LOST on ND
‐ LOW accuracy on PROG page
‐ NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on ND and MCDU 

• GPS PRIMARY, Navigation accuracy check is not required

72
Q

Navigation Accuracy Check, Tolerance and consequences

A

• Check positive (error ≤ 3NM):
- FM position is reliable
- Use ND (ARC or NAV) and managed lateral guidance
• Check negative (error > 3NM):
- FM position is not reliable
- Use raw data for navigation and monitor

73
Q

Checks before descent

A

LDG ELEV……………….CHECK “LDG ELEV AUTO” displayed
WEATHER ……………..OBTAIN
FUEL……………………….CHECK
LANDING PERF………CONFIRM

74
Q

Minimum speed that arms the autobrake system and Ground spoilers on a rejected Take Off

A

72 kts
• Below 72 kts, brake manually
• Above 72 kts, autobrake applies maximum braking pressure as soon as Thrust levers are set to idle

75
Q

Recommended flying references for NPA approach

A

• AUTOPILOT ON:
‐ Vertical managed mode, HDG V/S associated with FD
‐ Vertical selected mode, TRK FPA associated with FPD
• AUTOPILOT OFF: HDG V/S or TRK FPA as preferred

76
Q

Circumstances when a stabilized approach should be preferred to a decelerated approach

A
  • Selected guidance
  • High glide path angle
  • Low altitude intermediate approach
77
Q

Procedure to discontinue the approach

A
• Aircraft below FCU altitude:
- "Go Around Flaps"
- Flight plan is sequenced
• Aircraft above FCU altitude:
- "Cancel the approach"
- Disarm the approach
- Confirm lateral/vertical mode
- Select speed and adjust
- Rebuild the Flight Plan
78
Q

After Landing Gear extension, residual pressure displayed on the brake pressure indicator

A

Apply FCOM ABN RESIDUAL BRAKING PROC:

Press the brake pedals several times to zero a residual pressure on the alternate system

79
Q

ILS, Requirements before arming the approach

A
  • Cleared for the approach
  • ILS tuned and IDENTIFIED
  • Raw data confirms correct sensing
  • Aircraft is on an acceptable intercept heading
80
Q

LOC and G/S capture, Restrictions

A

• LOC or G/S will not capture during the first 3s after being armed
• Envelope where G/S signal ensures a normal capture:
- Within 10 NM
- ±8 ° of the Localiser
- Between 0.3 and 1.75 θ (θ = nominal glide path angle)

81
Q

GS Intercept from above

A
• Check  G/S*
• Call "intercept from above"
- Gear Down
- FCU from left to right:
  . Speed pushed
  . Set altitude above A/C
  . V/S 2000 ft/min
- Speed Brake
82
Q

Standard Call to the engineer to stop Pushback

A

“Hold position” or”stop pushback hold position”

83
Q

Restrictions for approach with Flight Director or Autothrust selected OFF (not both together)

A
  • Reduced level of automation briefed prior to TOD
  • Below 10 000 AMSL
  • Daytime VMC only
  • ILS Approach only
84
Q

Restrictions for approach with Flight Director and Autothrust selected OFF (both together)

A
  • Reduced level of automation briefed prior to TOD
  • Established on ILS (prior to selecting FD OFF)
  • 5 km Visibility and 1 000 ft Cloud base
  • Surface crosswind 15 kts or less (10 kts or less for SO’s)
85
Q

Maximum brake temperature for using the Parking Brake

A
  • 500°C brake fans OFF

* 350°C brake fans ON

86
Q

Brake Fan Policy

A

Brake fan switched ON:
• Taxi out: Arc displayed on ECAM WHEEL page
• Taxi in:
- Short turnaround
- Brake temperature anticipated above 500°C
- 5 mins after landing or at the gate (whichever occurs first) to allow thermal stabilisation

87
Q

Brake indications after landing that require maintenance action

A
  • Temp difference > 150°C between 2 brakes on same gear with 1 brake at more than 600°C or less than 60°C
  • Average temp of left bogie differs from right bogie by more than 200°C
  • 1 brake temperature exceeds 900°C
  • A fuse plug has melted
88
Q

Tech Log Entries

A
  • Warning or caution on EWD
  • Flag on PFD or ND
  • Failure indication on SD page
  • Observed faults (Light,..)
  • Overspeed
  • Monitoring of Autoland
  • Discrepancy > 1% N1 between engines during TO
  • Inadvertent chemical oxygen mask deployment
  • CKPT OXY pressure ≤ 1 100psi
  • Severe turbulence
  • Hard Landing, suspected or actual
  • Overweight Landing
  • Bird or Lightning strike
  • Spillages in Aircraft
89
Q

Visual approach, Requirements

A
  • Cleared by ATC
  • Visual contact with Runway threshold or approach lights
  • Visibility along approach path >5000m
  • RVR > greater of 800m / NPA minimum if thin fog
  • At night: Captain familiar with terrain
90
Q

Lowest PAPI/VASI Minimum Eye Height over Threshold to follow the guidance below 200ft

A

45ft

91
Q

Tasksharing for Supplementary Procedure

A

• For procedures related to engine start:
‐ PM reads the actions
‐ PF acts on commands
• For other procedures the PM reads and do the actions

92
Q

Ground spoilers don’t extend after landing

A

• Set MAX REV and use manual brakes:

  • If not armed, ground spoilers extend with reverser
  • If ground spoilers don’t extend, autobrake can’t activate
93
Q

Tripped CB in flight

A
  • Do not reengage a circuit breaker (C/B) that has tripped unless it is necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight
  • This procedure should be adopted only as a last resort, and only 1 reengagement should be attempted
94
Q

Terrain reference for departure and arrival that don’t follow published procedures

A
  • MRA (from the CFP)
  • Grid MORA (if not on flight planned track)
  • MSA
  • Minimum vectoring altitudes under radar control
95
Q

Terrain separation provided by MRA on the CFP

A

1000’ above the Grid MORA (CAD requirement)

96
Q

Options available for a defect at an unmanned station (no riding engineer)

A
  • Alternate procedure (A) CFDS
  • Temporary Authorisation of a local engineer
  • Engineer brought in from a BUDDY STATION
  • Apply MEL (only items without Maintenance)
  • ARTICLE 11(1) DISPATCH
97
Q

Category A airport

A
  • Approved IAP
  • At least 1 non-performance limited runway
  • Circling minima not higher than 1 000 ft AAL
  • Night operations capability
98
Q

Category B Airport

A

Airport that has additional requirements to a Category A:
• Non-standard IAP aids or patterns
• Unusual local weather conditions
• Unusual characteristics or performance limitations
• Others, such as obstructions, physical layout, lighting

99
Q

Category C Airport

A

Airport that requires additional considerations to a Category B Airport

100
Q

Altitude allowance for MORA/MEA/MOCA/GRID MORA on the Navtech Chart

A
  • Terrain ≤ 5000’: Terrain + 1500’

* Terrain > 5000’: Terrain + 2000’

101
Q

MRA figures on the CFP, Allowance for strong winds

A
  • Up to 30 knots: Accounted for on CFP MRA
  • 30 to 50 knots: Add 500’
  • 50 to 70 knots: Add 1000’
  • Over 70 knots: Add 1500’
102
Q

ACARS RTOW, QNH Buffer for RTOW

A
  • Increase, no limit

* Decrease, more than 2hpa compute a new RTOW

103
Q

ACARS RTOW, How to display runway declared distances and slope

A

Enter LST as RWY Code

104
Q

ACARS RTOW print-out, signification of the asterisk (*) next to the SUPPLEMENTARY RTOW * 72 CONF 1 TOGA

A

Calculated RTOW is approach-climb limited using CONF 3

105
Q

Simplified RTOW charts, Conditions when their use is prohibited

A
  • Temporary obstacles
  • WIP affecting runway length
  • Runway contaminated or slippery
  • PADD related MEL applies (except T/REV INOP)
106
Q

Take-off from a badly paved runway, Recommendations

A

Use CONF 2 or CONF 3

107
Q

Maximum speed of IAP (approach and missed approach) in China

A

190kts (True Air Speed), unless stated differently on the plate

108
Q

Navtech Bulletins for Dragonair’s area of operations

A

Located in OpsMan Part ‘C’ (HKG Binder)

109
Q

Ice Accretion

A

• Avoid flying in icing condition with slats extended
• Increase speed:
- Ice on non heated structure:
. CONF 0, 1, 2, 3: VLS + 10kt
. FULL: VLS +5 kt
- Ice on de-iced parts (WING ANTI ICE inoperative):
. CLEAN: VLS + 15kt
. CONF 1, 2, 3, FULL: VLS + 10kt
• Correct Landing Distance (ACARS/QRH FPE-IFL)

110
Q

Taxi with Nosewheel steering offset, Limitations

A

FCOM PRO-SUP-32 LANDING GEAR SECTION
“Operation with Nosewheel Steering Offset”

Trim > 8.8 ° Immediate maintenance action is due

Trim > 3°
Autoland Crosswind limit decreased 10kt
Reset trim to 0 before take off

111
Q

VLS without failure, Maximum speed increment

A
  • 15kts at the discretion of the crew

* Landing Distance must be corrected

112
Q

VLS with failure, Maximum speed increment

A
  • 20kts total (failure + A/THR + Wind + Icing)

* Landing Distance must be corrected

113
Q

Maximum crosswind table for Take off from a contaminated Runway

A
  • QRH Company procedures section

* FCOM LIM 12

114
Q

Weather conditions under which take off, approach or landing are prohibited

A

• Takeoff, approach and landing are prohibited with moderate or heavy freezing precipitations:
- Moderate or Heavy Freezing Drizzle/Rain (FZDZ, +FZDZ / FZRA, +FZRA)
• Takeoff is prohibited under pellets or hail:
- Snow pellets / small hail (GS)
- Heavy ice pellets (+PL)
- Moderate ice pellets (PL) mixed with any precipitation

Note: Mist (BR), Fog (FG), and Freezing Fog (FZFG) are not considered as “precipitation”

115
Q

Approach separation behind a heavy and behind a A380

A

5NM following a heavy increased to 7NM behind A380

116
Q

Departure separation behind a heavy and behind a A380

A
  • 2’ following a heavy, increased to 3’ behind an A380

* Separation is between airborne time (Roll time 40s)

117
Q

Overspeed prevention

A

Aircraft encounters significant speed variations close to VMO/MMO:
• Keep AP&ATHR ON
• Select lower speed target
• Use Speedbrake if speed trend approach VMO/MMO

118
Q

Overspeed recovery

A
Overspeed warning is triggered:
• Keep AP&ATHR ON
• Use Speedbrake as required
• Severe overspeed, AP automatically disengages and High Speed Protection orders an automatic pitch up:
- Keep ATHR ON
- Keep FULL Speedbrake 
- Disregard FD orders
119
Q

Severe damage, Flying the aircraft

A
• Apply smooth sidestick input and limit bank angle to 15°
• Avoid using speedbrake
• Pitch can be compensated by :
- Manual trim with the THS
- Engines thrust
• Roll can be compensated by:
- Rudder
- Asymmetrical thrust
120
Q

Cabin Layout A320

A
  • 8 Business / 150 Economy
  • 6 Cabin Crew seats
  • Toilets 1 FWD / 2 AFT
121
Q

Cabin Layout A321

A
  • 24 Business / 148 Economy
  • 9 Cabin Crew seats
  • Toilets 1 FWD/ 1 MID/ 2 AFT
122
Q

Cabin Layout Full economy aircraft

A
  • 168 seats

* Toilets 1 FWD / 2 AFT

123
Q

Cargo Holds

A
  • A320: Forward 1 / Aft 3,4,5

* A321: Forward 1,2 / Aft 3,4,5

124
Q

Restrictions on New Captains

A

• PF for first 30 sectors or 100h whichever occurs first
• Restriction on first 20 sectors:
- Take-off: RVR + 200m
- Landing: RVR + 200m / DA + 50ft

125
Q

First Officer Take Off and Landing weather requirements

A
  • Maximum crosswind, 20kts

* Ceiling and RVR/visibility at or above CAT1 minimum

126
Q

Junior First Officer Take Off and Landing weather requirements

A
  • Maximum crosswind 15 kt

* Ceiling and RVR/visibility above 500ft/2km

127
Q

Second Officer Take Off and Landing weather requirements

A
  • Maximum crosswind 10 kt

* Ceiling and RVR/visibility above 1000ft/3km

128
Q

Turbulence speed

A
  • A320: 250 kt up to FL200, then 275 kt / M0.76

* A321: 270 kt up to FL200, then 300 kt / M0.76

129
Q

First and Second Officers Take Off and Landing limitations

A

• For take-off and landing:

  • Normal runway surface (no slush, snow, ice or standing water)
  • No significant performance or control related failure
  • No combination of low visibility and crosswind likely to affect directional control

• For landing, minimum LDA of 2500m

130
Q

On a WET runway (surface condition GOOD), REV IDLE can be selected if

A

IFL distance is within LDA using:

  • Medium to Poor (MP)
  • No reverser
131
Q

Dispatch with these 3 Maintenance messages is not permitted without checking the MEL

A
  • AIR BLEED
  • DMC 1/3
  • DMC 2/3
132
Q

Unmanned station, Aircraft defect before doors are closed

Refer Part A 8.6.1.18, Defect Options at unmanned stations

A
• Write the defect in the AML
• Check MEL if any Maintenance action
• If no Maintenance action:
- Answer AML action taken box and write ERN
- Raise a P/S/ADD as applicable
- Leave CRS empty