Part 5 Flashcards

1
Q

A term used to describe unwanted hair is

A

superfluous hair

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2
Q

Electronic tweezers transmit radio frequency energy into the follicle area, dehydrating and eventually destroying the

A

papilla

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3
Q

A caustic substance used for the temporary removal of superfluous hair at the skin level is

A

a depilatory

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4
Q

The product composition of cold and hot wax is primarily beeswax and

A

resins

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5
Q

Disposable gloves should be worn during a waxing service to prevent contact with possible

A

blood borne pathogens

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6
Q

Wax should never be applied over warts, moles, abrasions, or

A

irritated or inflamed skin

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7
Q

To prevent wax contamination, an applicator should be placed in the wax

A

once

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8
Q

In a waxing treatment, the wax should be applied

A

in the direction of the hair growth

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9
Q

An epilator treatment that involves using a thick-based product appropriate for sensitive skin is

A

sugaring

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10
Q

Apply pressure to remove a fabric waxing strip and pull

A

in the opposite direction of hair growth

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11
Q

To prevent skin irritation or burns, the temperature of wax should be tested

A

prior to application

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12
Q

A temporary hair removal method practiced in many Eastern cultures is the process of

A

threading

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13
Q

If redness or swelling occurs after a waxing treatment sooth the skin with the application of

A

aloe gel

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14
Q

A wax that is thick and does not require fabric strips for removal is

A

cold wax

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15
Q

The preliminary parts of a facial treatment that determine the treatments to be performed are

A

skin analysis and consultation

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16
Q

The health screening performed prior to a facial treatment is used by the technician to determine any

A

contraindications

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17
Q

Clients with obvious skin abnormalities such as open sores, fever blisters, or abnormal-looking signs should be

A

provided treatments

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18
Q

When removing a cleanser from the eye area, it should be removed with damp facial sponges or cotton pads

A

in an upward and outward movement

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19
Q

When performing a skin analysis with a magnifying lamp, the first thing the technician should look for is the presence or absence of

A

visible pores

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20
Q

If the client is not producing enough sebum, the skin type is characterized as

A

alipidic

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21
Q

Skin that has small pores and may be flaky or dry with fine lines and wrinkles is characterized as

A

dehydrated

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22
Q

Oily skin or skin that produces too much sebum may appear shiny or greasy and have

A

large pores

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23
Q

Pores that are clogged from dead cells building up in the follicle may have the appearance of open

A

Comedones

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24
Q

The difference between closed and open Comedones is the size of the follicle opening or the

A

ostium

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25
Q

When the follicle becomes clogged, resulting in an infection of the follicle, it is caused by a type of acne bacteria called

A

anaerobic

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26
Q

Red pimples that do not have a pus head are referred to as

A

acne papules

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27
Q

A skin condition caused by sun exposure or hormone imbalances resulting in dark blotches of color in areas of the skin is

A

hyperpigmentation rosacea

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28
Q

A chronic hereditary disorder indicated by constant or frequent facial blushing is

A

cleansing milk

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29
Q

A nonfoaming cleansing product that is designed to cleanse dry and sensitive skin is

A

detergents

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30
Q

Cleansing products that foam and rinse off easily generally contain surfactant also known as

A

toners

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31
Q

Skin produces designed to lower the pH of skin after cleansing and remove excess cleansing produce are fresheners astringents, or

A

removing excess

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32
Q

Exfoliant products are used on skin surfaces to make the skin look smoother by

A

dead cells

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33
Q

Cosmetology professionals are only allowed to use products that remove surface dead cells from the

A

stratum corneum

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34
Q

A gentle chemical exfoliation acid that helps dissolve the bonds and intercellular cement between cells is

A

alpha hydroxy acid

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35
Q

A salon-type of alpha hydroxy acid exfoliant that contains a concentration of 20 to 30 percent acid is referred to as a

A

peel

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36
Q

A chemical exfoliant that works by dissolving keratin protein in the surface skin cells is known as an enzyme peel or

A

keratolytic

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37
Q

An enzyme cream-type peel that forms a crust and is rolled off the skin is a

A

gommage

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38
Q

Moisturizers that increase the water content of the skin’s surface with a product that is water-binding are known as

A

hydrators

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39
Q

A fatty or oily ingredient used to block moisture from leaving the skin is a(n)

A

emollient

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40
Q

Clients should be advised to use sunscreens that protect against both UVA and

A

UVB sun rays

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41
Q

Highly concentrated skin products applied under a moisturizer or sunscreen are

A

serums

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42
Q

Lubricants applied to the face to make the skin slippery during a treatment are

A

massage creams

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43
Q

Soothing masks that have antibacterial ingredients and are helpful for acne-prone skin are

A

clay based

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44
Q

Masks that do not dry the skin and often contain oils and emollients as well as humectants are

A

cream masks

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45
Q

Paraffin used as a mask has no skin benefit unless mixed with a(n)

A

treatment cream

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46
Q

A plaster-like mask that, when mixed with water, causes a chemical reaction is known as a(n)

A

modelage mask

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47
Q

The thin, open-meshed, woven cotton fabric used in the penetration of the mask application is

A

gauze

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48
Q

The term used to describe the manual or mechanical manipulation of the body is

A

massage creams

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49
Q

To master massage techniques, the cosmetologist should have a basic working knowledge of

A

anatomy and physiology

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50
Q

The direction of movement in massage techniques should always be from the insertion of the muscle

A

toward its origin

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51
Q

The massage movement that is light continuous stroking movement with the fingers in a slow rhythmic manner is

A

effleurage

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52
Q

The kneading massage movement performed by lifting, squeezing, and pressing the tissue with light, firm pressure is

A

pestrissage

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53
Q

The deep rubbing of friction massage movements on the skin has been known to have a significant effect on the

A

circulation and gladular activity of the skin

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54
Q

The most stimulating type of massage that should be performed using extreme care and discretion is

A

tapotement

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55
Q

The point on the skin over the muscle where pressure an stimulation will cause contraction of the muscle is referred to as the

A

motor point

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56
Q

A significant benefit of a facial steamer that heats and produces steam is that the steam produced will soften and relax

A

follicle accumulations

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57
Q

When using the brushing machine to perform an exfoliation, the skin should be treated with a(n)

A

fairly thick layer of cleanser or moisturizer

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58
Q

The skin suction and cold spray machine is used to increase circulation and should be used only on nonsensitive or

A

noninflamed skin

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59
Q

The use of electric currents to treat the skin is a form of

A

electrotherapy

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60
Q

The process of softening and emulsifying hardened sebum stuck in the follicles is called

A

desincrustatin

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61
Q

Water-soluble products are penetrated into the skin using galvanic current and a process called

A

iontophoresis

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62
Q

A galvanic treatment using a computerized device to tone skin and produce a lifting effect on aging skin is

A

microcurrent

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63
Q

The therapeutic use of essential oils to enhance a person’s physical and emotional well-being is

A

aromatherapy

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64
Q

After the first treatment, every new client should be provided with a thorough consultation that consists of salon treatment programs, education, and

A

proper home care

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65
Q

A base makeup that is used to cover r even out the coloring of skin is

A

foundation

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66
Q

Foundation bases are available in stick, cream, mineral powder, and

A

liquid

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67
Q

Natural derived pigments or color agents added to foundations to provide color are

A

lakes

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68
Q

The recommended foundation for light coverage for dry skin are

A

water based

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69
Q

Foundations that provide a heavier base coverage for dry skin are

A

cream foundation

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70
Q

Foundation should be blended using

A

disposable makeup sponge

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71
Q

Concealers that are used to hide dark circles and imperfections contain talc or

A

pigment

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72
Q

To keep pressed powder in a cake form, it is usually blended with

A

binding agents

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73
Q

A makeup product primarily used to add a natural glow to the cheek or face area is a

A

blush

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74
Q

Generally, a darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the iris appear

A

lighter

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75
Q

Color applied over the eye area to even out skin tones and provide a smooth surface for blending of other colors is a

A

base color

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76
Q

A color in any finish that deepens and darkens the skin tone and minimizes a specific area is a

A

contour color

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77
Q

To avoid infection in the tear duct or permanent pigmentation of the mucous membrane lining, eye pencils should never be used

A

on the inner rim of eyes

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78
Q

A cosmetic preparation used to darken, define, and thicken eyelashes is

A

mascara

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79
Q

To clean professional makeup brushes, a gentle shampoo or brush solvent is used, and the brush is placed into running water with the

A

ferrule pointing downward

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80
Q

Colors obtained by mixing equal parts of two primary colors are

A

secondary colors

81
Q

A primary and secondary color directly opposite each other on the color wheel are

A

complementary colors

82
Q

Three main factors to consider when choosing color for a client are the client’s hair color

A

eye color and skin color

83
Q

Colors that are dominated by blues, greens, violets, and blue reds are classified as

A

cool colors

84
Q

Skin tones that contain equal amounts of warn and cool colors are considered

A

neutral skin tones

85
Q

Complementary colors for green eyes are brown-based reds, which include

A

copper plum and mauve

86
Q

The best type of lighting for color selection in the salon consultation area is

A

natural light

87
Q

Foundation application should start at the center of the face and blend with

A

outward and downward motions

88
Q

A basic rule of makeup application is that highlighting emphasizes a feature and shadowing

A

minimizes a feature

89
Q

The second portion of an oval-shaped type face is measured from the

A

top of eyebrows to end of nose

90
Q

The facial shape composed of comparatively straight lines, a wide forehead, and square jaw is the

A

square-shaped face

91
Q

The long, narrow facial shape with greater length in proportion to its wide is the

A

oblong-shaped face

92
Q

To minimize a short, flat nose, a lighter foundation is applied

A

down the center of the nose, ending at the tip

93
Q

To set foundation and prevent the transfer to clothing, use

A

translucent powder

94
Q

In eyebrow arching, the highest part of an eyebrow arch should be from the outer circle to the

A

iris of the eye upward

95
Q

A normal healthy nail is firm and flexible and should be

A

smooth and unspotted

96
Q

A nail disorder is classified as a condition that is caused by

A

injury or disease

97
Q

If a client has skin that is infected, inflamed, or swollen, the client should be referred to

A

a physician

98
Q

A condition of the nails in which blood clots from under the nail plate is

A

bruised nails

99
Q

When performing nail services on a client with nail ridges running vertically down the nail plate, it is recommended that the technician

A

carefully buff the nail plate

100
Q

A common nail condition where living skin around the nail splits due to dryness of the skin is

A

hangnails

101
Q

A localized area of increased pigment cells within the matrix bed is responsible for the nail condition

A

melanonychia

102
Q

A common term used to describe a nail with a highly curved nail plate is

A

plicatured nail

103
Q

An abnormal nail condition that is the result of damage to the eponychium or hyponychium and occurs when skin is stretched by the nail plate is

A

nail pterygium

104
Q

Parasites that under some conditions may caused infection to the feet and hands are

A

fungi

105
Q

Nail fungi are of concern to the salon because they can be transmitted through unsanitary implements and are

A

contagious

106
Q

A term that should not be used when referring to infections of the fingernails or toenails is

A

mold

107
Q

TO prevent fungal organisms on the nail, in addition to the sanitation and disinfection of implements, the technician must properly

A

clean and prepare the natural nail plate

108
Q

A typical bacterial infection on the nail plate can be identified in thee early stages as a

A

yellow-green spot on the nail

109
Q

To avoid the spread of any nail diseases or bacterial infections, it is imperative that the technician use

A

strict sanitation and disinfection practices

110
Q

The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a nail disease called

A

onycholysis

111
Q

A bacterial inflammation surrounding the nail tissue that may be the result of excessive exposure to water is

A

paronychia

112
Q

The medical term for fungal infections associated with the feet is

A

tinea pedis

113
Q

The technical term used to describe bitten nails is

A

onychophagy

114
Q

The naturally occurring skin bacteria that can grow out of control and cause an infection if conditions are correct is

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

115
Q

A manicuring table lamp should have an incandescent bulb with wattage no higher than

A

40 to 60 watts

116
Q

Disinfection containers for manicure implements should be large enough for implements to be

A

completely immersed

117
Q

Lids are required on disinfectant containers to prevent

A

contamination

118
Q

Manicuring implements should be placed in the disinfectant container after being

A

properly cleaned

119
Q

A wooden pusher used to remove cuticle tissue is disposable and should be

A

discarded after each use

120
Q

A metal pusher is used to push back the eponychium and gently scrape cuticle tissue from the

A

natural nail plate

121
Q

Fine grit abrasives are designed for removing very fine scratches and

A

buffing and polishing

122
Q

To bevel a nail, use gentle pressure and angle the file with a

A

45-degree angle

123
Q

Clean abrasives or implements stored in plastic bags or sealed airtight containers promote

A

bacterial growth

124
Q

A nipper should be used to carefully trim away the

A

tags of dead skin

125
Q

A buffer that shines the nail plate without the use of dry buffing power is a(n)

A

three-way buffer

126
Q

A tool used to shorten the length of the natural nail plate is a(n)

A

nail clipper

127
Q

The time necessary to properly clean and disinfect implements after each use is

A

20m

128
Q

Brushes used in products that do not harbor the growth of pathogens are considered

A

self disinfecting

129
Q

Small fiber-free squares used to apply or remove product are

A

pledgets

130
Q

Nail products should be removed from their containers using a

A

plastic or metal spatula

131
Q

Cosmetic products containing a high water content provide the growth opportunity for

A

pathogens

132
Q

The use of bar soap is not recommended as it may

A

harbor bacteria

133
Q

When removing nail polish from wrap-type nail enhancements, use a solvent that is

A

non acetone

134
Q

Removers that are used to dissolve and remove polish contain solvents of ethyl acetate or

A

acetone

135
Q

A product designed to loosen and dissolve dead tissue from the nail plate is

A

cuticle remover

136
Q

A product designed to improve adhesion of polish to the natural nail is a

A

base coat

137
Q

Nail hardeners that cause adverse reactions to skin may contain

A

formaldehyde

138
Q

Product information including safe handling, first aid, and proper storage is required in

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

139
Q

Generally, it is recommended that the shape of the nail plate enhances the overall

A

shape of the fingertip

140
Q

The five basic nail shapes are

A

square squoval round pointed and oval

141
Q

Should a client be accidentally cut and blood drawn, the first precautionary step is to

A

put on gloves and inform client

142
Q

The three individual procedures for a basic manicure should include

A

Pre-service, actual service. And post-service

143
Q

Success in nail polish application is achieved by using four coats including

A

one base goat, two polish coat, and one top coat

144
Q

Massage manipulations should be executed using

A

rhythmic and smooth movements

145
Q

The massage movement where the technician holds the client’s wrist and bends it back and forth slowly is a form of

A

joint movement

146
Q

Vigorous joint massage should not be performed if a client has a joint injury or

A

arthritis

147
Q

Sitting or working in uncomfortable, strained positions can lead to back, neck, or shoulder injuries and result in

A

cumulative trauma

148
Q

Spa manicures encompass extensive knowledge of nail care and

A

skin care treatments

149
Q

Spa manicures include massage and skin exfoliation for polishing, smoothing, and enhancing

A

professional product penetration

150
Q

Pedicure procedures include trimming, shaping, and polishing toenails; exfoliating skin; and

A

foot massage services

151
Q

To ensure healthy, happy feet, professional pedicure services should be performed

A

monthly

152
Q

A pedicure tool used to exfoliate dry skin or smooth calluses is a

A

paddle

153
Q

A pedicuring station should include a comfortable chair for the client, a footrest for the client, and a(n)

A

ergonomic chair for the nail professional

154
Q

To be effective in a pedicure bath, liquid soaps should contain a(n)

A

mild detergent

155
Q

Lotions, oils, and creams are used to condition and moisturize feet and for

A

performing a foot massage

156
Q

A metal file that is designed to be used in a specific fashion is a

A

rasp

157
Q

The tool used to exfoliate dry skin or smooth calluses during a pedicure service is a

A

foot file

158
Q

When working on the foot, it should be grasped between the thumb and fingers at the

A

mid-tarsal area

159
Q

The actual pedicure procedure has five basic steps; the soak, nail care, skin care,

A

massage, and polish

160
Q

When performing a pedicure, apply a firm grip on the client’s foot to

A

calm the client

161
Q

When clipping toenails, extra care should be exercised to avoid breaking the

A

hyponychium

162
Q

To properly disinfect a foot spa after each pedicure service, the nail technician is required to perform the following steps:

A

Drain and remove water and contaminants, add more surface and water, and use

163
Q

The procedure for cleaning a foot spa at the end of the day is:

A

remove and clean screen of trapped debris, wash screen and inlet and totally immerse in approved disinfectant, then flush system with low-sudsing soap and water for 10 mins, rinse, drain, and air-dry

164
Q

The weekly maintenance procedure for foot spas requires the disinfectant solution to remain in the foot spa at least

A

6 to 10 hours

165
Q

Foot massage performed correctly is relaxing to the client, is therapeutic and

A

stimulates blood flow

166
Q

The massage movement used to stretch the muscles and tendons is

A

pestrissage

167
Q

A product that should never be placed in the foot bath with the client’s feet is a

A

disinfectant

168
Q

Creams or lotions used to help in the removal and smoothing of dry, flaky skin and calluses are

A

abrasive scrubs

169
Q

Alkaline cuticle removers should never be applied to

A

living skin

170
Q

Professional strength callus softener products usually contain sodium hydroxide or

A

lactic acid

171
Q

A hot paraffin bath should not be provided to a client with

A

diabetic related problems

172
Q

A small “ice cream scooper” -shaped implement used for efficient removal of debris from nail folds and cuticle area is a

A

curette

173
Q

Toenail clippers used for a pedicure service should have

A

fairly fine points

174
Q

Nail rasps are a tool specifically designed to file

A

in one direction

175
Q

Plastic, premolded forms adhered to natural nails to add length or support nail enhancement products are

A

nail tips

176
Q

Nail tips break easily without the reinforcement called a(n)

A

overlay

177
Q

A rough surface tool used to shape, smooth, and remove the surface shine on a nail is a(n)

A

abrasive board

178
Q

The term used to describe the thickness of nail adhesives is

A

viscosity

179
Q

Nail tips should never cover more than

A

one third of the natural nail plate

180
Q

The shallow depression area of a nail tip is the

A

well

181
Q

When placing nail tips on the natural nail plate, the technique used is

A

stop rock and hold

182
Q

When blending a nail tip at the contact area, the fine-grit buff block should be held

A

flat across the surface of the nail plate

183
Q

The action used with a wooden pusher to remove soften nail tips is

A

slide off with pusher

184
Q

Nail enhancements using nail-size pieces of cloth or paper bonded to the nail plate are

A

nail wraps

185
Q

The strongest material used as a nail wrap is

A

linen

186
Q

A product applied to the surface of natural nails to remove moisture and improve adhesion is a

A

nail dehydrator

187
Q

When applying nail wraps, to prevent the transfer of oil and debris from the technician to the client, use

A

flexible plastic sheets

188
Q

Nail wraps should be rebalanced with resin and new fabric after

A

4 weeks

189
Q

A fabric piece cut to completely cover a crack or break in a nail wrap is a

A

repair patch

190
Q

A gel-like material that requires an activator to cure is

A

no light gel application

191
Q

The improper use of activators can cause a heat spike to the client and

A

nail bed damage

192
Q

To avoid damaging nail wraps when removing existing polish, use a(n)

A

no acetone remover

193
Q

An implement similar to a nail clipper, designed especially for use on nail tips, is a

A

tip cutter

194
Q

Acrylic(methacrylate) nail enhancements are created by combining monomer liquid with

A

polymer powder

195
Q

Nail enhancements sculptured with the use of polymer powder are called

A

acrylic nails

196
Q

Brushes recommended for the application acrylic(methacrylate) product are

A

natural hair

197
Q

When applying product, the brush is immersed into monomer and the tip of the brush is

A

touched to the surface of the dry polymer powder

198
Q

As monomer liquid absorbs a polymer powder, the product formed at the tip of the brush is referred to as a

A

bead of product

199
Q

Polymer powder is made using a special chemical reaction called

A

polymerization