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Para-LE4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Incubation period of Trichomoniasis
    a. 4-28 days
    b. 1-4 days
    c. 7-14 days
    d. 24-28 days
A

a. 4-28 days

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2
Q
  1. The only species in Amebae group known to ingest WBCs
    a. E. gingivalis
    b. E. dispar
    c. E. coli
    d. E. histolytica
A

a. E. gingivalis

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3
Q
  1. the commercially available orally retrievable string device that can be used in the detection of giardiasis
    a. cough test
    b. urine test
    c. blood test
    d. sputum test
A

d. sputum test

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4
Q
  1. Microscopic differences of E. coli from E. histolytica except
    a. Presence of ingested RBCs
    b. Nucleus has a large eccentric kayrosome
    c. Blunted pseudopods
    d. Irregular peripheral chromati clumping
A

a. Presence of ingested RBCs

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5
Q
  1. Trichomonas vaginalis only causes disease in females but not in males.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False

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6
Q

True of Giardiasis EXCEPT:
a. Traveller’s Diarrhea
b. Flask-shaped ulcerations
c. Beaver fever
d. Malabsorption syndrome

A

b. Flask-shaped ulcerations

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7
Q

The diagnostic stage of G. lamblia
a. Cyst
b. None of the choices are correct
c. Both Cyst and Trophozoite
d. Trophozoite

A

c. Both Cyst and Trophozoite

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8
Q

Encystation of Giardia lamblia occurs and transits to:
a. Duodenum
b. Upper part of jejunum
c. Ileum
d. Colon

A

d. Colon

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9
Q

The infective stage of G. lamblia
a. Cyst
b. None of the choices are correct
c. Both Cyst and Trophozoite
d. Trophozoite

A

a. Cyst

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10
Q

G. lamblia belongs to what class?
a. Zoomastigophora
b. Sporozoa
c. Lobosea
d. DAmebida

A

a. Zoomastigophora

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11
Q
  1. Trichomonas exhibit jerking motility.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

a. TRUE

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12
Q
  1. Trichomonas exist in the cystic stage.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

b. FALSE

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13
Q
  1. Chilomastix mesnili presents with safety pin morphology within a lemon shaped cyst form.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

b. FALSE

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14
Q
  1. C.mesnili have both trophozoite and cyst demonstrated in semi-formed stools.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

a. TRUE

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15
Q
  1. Trichomonas hominis is primarily transmitted via fomites.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

b. FALSE

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16
Q
  1. The costa is a rigid rod structure at the base of the undulating membrane
    a. true
    b. false
A

a. true

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17
Q
  1. Usually added to water to kill cysts
    a. iodine
    b. fluoride
    c. bicarbonate
    d. chlorine
A

d. chlorine

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18
Q

43.
Known host of Trichomonas vaginalis
a. canines
b. Most mammals
c. Other primates
d. Humans only

A

d. Humans only

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19
Q

Diagnostic stage for Trichomonas species
a. trophozoite
b. Cyst and trophozoite
c. NOTA
d. cysts

A

a. trophozoite

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20
Q

Frequent manifestation of trichomoniasis
a. Frothy discharge
b. pyosalphingitis
c. endometritis
d. AOTA

A

a. Frothy discharge

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21
Q

The only species in Amebae group known to ingest WBCs
a. E. gingivalis
b. E. dispar
c. E. coli
d. E. histolytica

A

a. E. gingivalis

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22
Q

The gold standard for the diagnosis of E. histolytica infestation but requires 1 to 2 weeks to complete, involves application of electrophoresis
a. Isoenzyme analysis
b. Serology
c. Microscopy
d. Colonoscopy

A

a. Isoenzyme analysis

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23
Q

Useful test for detection of amoebiasis but may be limited in developing country because subject may remain positive for years
a. Serology
b. Microscopy
c. Isoenzyme analysis
d. Colonoscopy

A

a. Serology

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24
Q

True about the cyst of E.histolytica except
a. the infective stage for humans
b. rapidly destroyed once outside the body
c. can be found in the formed stool
d. contains up to 4 nuclei

A

b. rapidly destroyed once outside the body

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25
Q

Infection with E. histolytica can be treated with
a. Metronidazole
b. Iodoquinol
c. No treatment needed
d. Gentamicin

A

b. Iodoquinol

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26
Q

Asymptomatic infection with E. dispar can be treated with
a. Metronidazole
b. Iodoquinol
c. No treatment needed
d. Gentamicin

A

c. No treatment needed

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27
Q

A px was having diarrhea, fever, and blood tinged stool. Microscopic findings showed motile unicellular organisms with ingested RBCs
a. Amoebic dysentery
b. Beaver’s dx
c. Ulcerative colitis
d. Diverticulitis

A

a. Amoebic dysentery

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28
Q

Giardia lamblia belongs to this class
a. Zoomastigphorea
b. Sporozoa
c. Lobosea
d. Amoebida

A

a. Zoomastigphorea

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29
Q

The following describes the trophozoite of G. lamblia
a. none of the choices are correct
b. tear drop shape
c. biconcave in shape
d. 4 anterior nuclei

A

b. tear drop shape

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30
Q
  1. Transmission of Giardiasis is through:
    a. Ingestion of contaminated water
    b. Fecal-oral route
    c. Hands or fomites
    d. AOTA
A

d. AOTA

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31
Q

Trophozoites of G. lamblia multiply by
a. Binary fission
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Fissure budding
d. Gametes

A

a. Binary fission

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32
Q

The infective stage/s of G. lamblia
a. Cyst
b. Cyst and Trophozoite
c. None of the choices are correct
d. Trophozoite

A

a. Cyst

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33
Q

True of Giardiasis except
a. Traveller’s Diarrhea
b. Flask-shaped ulcerations
c. Beaver fever
d. Malabsorption syndrome

A

b. Flask-shaped ulcerations

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34
Q

True of the cyst of Giardia lamblia EXCEPT:
a. with 2 or more nuclei at one end
b. tear-drop shape
c. cytoplasm retracted from cyst wall
d. with cenral axoneme

A

b. tear-drop shape

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35
Q
  1. Death from cardiac failure may precede CNS symptoms.
    a. T. brucei rhodesiense
    b. T. brucei gambiense
    c. T. cruzi
    d. None of the above
A

a. T. brucei rhodesiense

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36
Q
  1. Flagellate form with the kinetoplast located at the posterior end of the organism
    a. Amastigotes
    b. Promastigotes
    c. Trypomastigotes
    d. Epimastigotes
A

c. Trypomastigotes

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37
Q
  1. An infected triatomine insect vector (or “kissing bug”) takes a blood meal and releases trypomastigotes in its feces near the site of the bite wound.
    a. T. brucei rhodesiense
    b. T. brucei gambiense
    c. T. cruzi
    d. None of the above
A

c. T. cruzi

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38
Q
  1. Found in muscles, nerve cells, and reticuloendothelial systems
    a. Amastigotes
    b. Promastigotes
    c. Trypomastigotes
    d. Epimastigotes
A

a. Amastigotes

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39
Q

The most common manifestation of acute acquired toxoplasmosis
a. microphthalmia,
b. lymphadenopathy
c. petechial rashes
d. splenomegaly

A

b. lymphadenopathy

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40
Q

Asexual reproduction of toxoplasma is called
a. cryptozony
b. gametes
c. schizogony

A

c. schizogony

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41
Q

Usual host of leshmania are the ff except
a. human
b. dog
c. fox
d. rodent

A

a. human

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42
Q

All leishmania spp are transmitted by
a. Anopheles Mosquito
b. Tsetse fly
c. Triatoma reduvid bug
d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

A

d. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug

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43
Q

In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
a. Neilbodies
b. Macrophages
c. LDbodies
d. Chromatidbodies

A

c. LDbodies

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44
Q

Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
a. Bradyzoites
b. Zygote
c. Sporozoites
d. Tachyzoites

A

d. Tachyzoites

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45
Q

Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
a. Sporozoites
b. Bradyzoites
c. Zygote
d. Tachyzoites

A

b. Bradyzoites

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46
Q
  1. Amebic dysentery is best treated with
    A. Gentamicin
    B. Metronidazole + Iodoquinol
    C. Iodoquinol
    D. Metronidazole
A

B. Metronidazole + Iodoquinol

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47
Q
  1. Treatment recommended for Trichomonas vaginalis
    A. Simultaneous treatment of partners
    B. AOTA
    C. Metronidazole 2g oral as single dose for men
    D. Tinidazole 2g oral as single dose for men
A

A. Simultaneous treatment of partners

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48
Q
  1. Trichomonas vaginalis is exclusively found in the vagina and cervix
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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49
Q
  1. Trophozoites of G. lamblia multiply by
    A. Binary fission
    B. Sexual reproduction
    C. Fissure budding
    D. Gametes
A

A. Binary fission

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50
Q
  1. True about the cyst of E.histolytica except
    A. the infective stage for humans
    B. rapidly destroyed once outside the body
    C. can be found in the formed stool
    D. contains up to 4 nuclei
A

B. rapidly destroyed once outside the body

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51
Q
  1. The costa is a rigid rod structure at the base of the undulating membrane
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

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52
Q

8.Previously reported carriers of Entamoea but do not exhibit symptoms may actually have acquired this due to the close resemblance to E. histolytica
A. E. dispar
B. None of the choices are correct
C. E. gingivalis
D. E. hartmanni

A

A. E. dispar

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are considered as harmless commensals of the gastrointestinal tract?
    A. Chilomastix mesnili
    B. Retortamonas intestinalis
    C. Trichomonas hominis
    D. All of the choice are correct
A

D. All of the choice are correct

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54
Q
  1. a commercially available orally retrievable string device that can be used in the detection of gardiasis
    a. cough test
    b. tape test
    c. sputum test
    d. entero test
A

c. sputum test

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55
Q
  1. Usually added to water to kill cysts
    A. Iodine
    B. Fluoride
    C. Bicarbonate
    D. Chlorine
A

D. Chlorine

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56
Q

12 When using culture method in Trichomonas diagnosis, which of the following can be used as media?
A.solid media
B. eggs
C. AOTA
D. Liquid media

A

C.AOTC

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57
Q

13 diagnostic stage for trichomonas species is the cyst form
A. true
D. false

A

D. false

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58
Q

14 Knwon host of Trichomonas vaginalis
A canines
B. most mammals
C.other primates
D. Humans only

A

D. Humans only

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59
Q
  1. predominant immune cells seen on wet mount positive for trichomonas vaginalis
    a. eosinophils
    b. mononuclear cells
    c. lymphocytes
    d. neutrophils
A

c. lymphocytes

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60
Q
  1. True about the trophozoite of E.histolytica except:
    A. Can survive days to weeks in the external environment
    B. Found in the diarrheal stool
    C. May remain confined in the intestinal lumen
    D. Would not survive exposure to gastric environment
A

A. Can survive days to weeks in the external environment

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61
Q
  1. Diagnostic stage for Trichomonas species
    A. Trophozoite
    B. Cyst and trophozoite
    C. None of the choices is correct
    D. Cyst
A

A. Trophozoite

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62
Q
  1. The gold standard for the diagnosis of E. histolytica infestation but requires 1 to 2 weeks to complete, involves application of electrophoresis
    A. Isoenzyme analysis
    B. Serology
    C. Microscopy
    D. Colonoscopy
A

A. Isoenzyme analysis

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following is an inhabitant of the oral cavity?
    A. Trichomonas tenax
    B. Trichomonas vaginalis
    C. Trichomonas hominis
    D. Enteromonas hominis
A

A. Trichomonas tenax

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64
Q
  1. The only species in Amebae group known to ingest WBCs
    A. E. gingivalis
    B. E. dispar
    C. E. coli
    D. E. histolytica
A

A. E. gingivalis

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65
Q
  1. Which of the following are frequent manifestation of Trichomoniasis
    A. frothy discharge
    B. pyosalpingitis
    C. endometritis
    D. all of the choices are correct
A

A. frothy discharge

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66
Q
  1. Incubation period of Trichomoniasis
    a. 4-28 days
    b. 1-4 days
    c. 7-14 days
    d. 24-28 days
A

a. 4-28 days

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67
Q
  1. the following describes the trophozoite of G. lamblia
    a. none of the choices are correct
    b. tear drop shape
    c. biconcave in shape
    d. 4 anterior nuclei
A

b. tear drop shape

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68
Q
  1. Trophozoites multiply by
    A. Budding sporogony
    B. Binary fission
    C. Sexual reproduction
A

B. Binary fission

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69
Q
  1. Primary mode of transmission of Trichomonas tenax
    A. Salivary droplets
    B. Fecal contamination
    C. Any of the modes are possible
    D. Sexual contact
A

A. Salivary droplets

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70
Q
  1. Cervical erosions can occur with Trichomonas tenax infection
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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71
Q
  1. The non-feeding nonmotile infective stage of amoebae
    A. Merozoite
    B. Cyst
    C. Trophozoite
    D. Sporozoite
A

B. Cyst

72
Q
  1. Chilomastix mesnili presents with safety pin morphology within a lemod shaped cyt form.
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE

73
Q
  1. Trichomonas exhibits jerking motility.
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

A. TRUE

74
Q
  1. The characteristic odor of positive whiff test for Trichomonas is due to the production of:
    A. Amine
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Hydrogen sulfide
A

A. Amine

75
Q
  1. True of Giardiasis except
    A. Traveller’s Diarrhea
    B. Flask-shaped ulcerations
    C. Beaver fever
    D. Malabsorption syndrome
A

B. Flask-shaped ulcerations

76
Q
  1. Trichomonas hominis is primarily transmitted via fomites
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

77
Q
  1. The diagnostic stage of G. Lamblia
    A. Cyst
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. Both Cyst and Trophozoite
    D. Trophozoite
A

C. Both Cyst and Trophozoite

78
Q
  1. the process undergone by cysts once inside the host intestine
    a. encystation
    b. excystation
    c. ingestion
    d. binary fission
A

b. excystation

79
Q
  1. Giardia lamblia belongs to this class
    A.Zoomastigphorea
    B. Sporozoa
    C.Lobosea
    D.Amebida
A

A.Zoomastigphorea

80
Q
  1. The motility structure of E. histolytica
    A. Flagella
    B. Cilia
    C. Pseudopodia
    D. Pseudocilia
A

C. Pseudopodia

81
Q
  1. Transmission of Giardiasis is through:
    A. Ingestion of contaminated water
    B. Fecal-oral route
    C. Hands or fomites
    D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

82
Q
  1. True about G. lamblia except
    A. Tissue invaders
    B. None of the choices are correct
    C. Mechanical irritators
    D. May cause malabsorption syndrome
A

A. Tissue invaders

83
Q

39.Due to their morphologic characteristics, the non-pathogenic Pentatrichomonas hominis can be mistaken for pathogenic organisms such as Entamoeba hartmani and Entamoeba histolytica in fecal specimens.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

84
Q
  1. Trichomonas vaginalis infection during pregnancy can lead to premature rupture of membranes
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

85
Q
  1. Number of nuclei in Trichomonas
    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 3
    D. 2
A

B. 1

86
Q

42 Asymptomatic infection with E. dispar can be treated with
A. Gentamycin
B. No treatment method
C. lodoquinol
D. Metronidazole

A

B. No treatment method

87
Q
  1. A patient with amebic hepatitis may present with fever, chills, leukocytosis, and
    A. Melena
    B. Steatorrhea
    C. Hepatomegaly
    D. Pruritus
A

C. Hepatomegaly

88
Q
  1. Flask-shaped ulcerations of the intestinal wall is caused by.
    A. E. coli
    B. E. dispar
    C. E. histolytica
    D. E. gingivalis
A

C. E. histolytica

89
Q
  1. Species found in periodontal pockets, tartar and carous teeth
    A. Trichomonas vaginalis
    B. Paratrichomonas hominis
    C. Trichomonas buccalis
    D. Trichomonas hominis
A

C. Trichomonas buccalis

90
Q
  1. A px was having diarrhea, fever, and blood tinged stool. Microscopic findings showed motile unicellular organisms with ingested rbcs
    A. Amoebic dysentery
    B. beaver’s dx
    C. Ulcerative colitis
    D. diverticultis
A

A. Amoebic dysentery

91
Q
  1. Its nucleus has a large eccentric karyosome and irregular peripheral chromatin clumping along the nuclear membrane
    A. E. gingivalis
    B. E. dispar
    C. E. coli
    D. E. histolytica
A

C. E. coli

92
Q
  1. Cigar shaped cytoplasmic inclusions in E. histolytica
    A.Chromatid bars
    B. pseudopodia
    C. karyosome
    D. nucleus
A

A.Chromatid bars

93
Q
  1. Presence of ingested bacteria is a microscopic finding for
    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Entamoeba dispar
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Entamoeba gingivalis
A

D. Entamoeba gingivalis

94
Q
  1. The cyst stage of this Entamoeba may contain up to 8 nucleus of characteristic structure
    A. E. gingivalis
    B. E. coli
    C. E. dispar
    D. E.histolytica
A

B. E. coli

95
Q
  1. Causes Beaver’s disease
    A. Giardia lamblia
    B. Trichomonas vaginalis
    C. Entamoeba gingivalis
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
A

A. Giardia lamblia

96
Q
  1. Optimal pH for Trichomonas culture
    А. 4.5 - 5.0
    B. 3.0 - 4.5
    C. 6.0 - 7.5
    D. 5.5 - 6.0
A

А. 4.5 - 5.0

97
Q
  1. A Positive Whiff test for Trichomonas vaginalis is a accentuation of fishy odor with 10% KOH
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

98
Q
  1. Higher doses of metronidazole may be used in metronidazole resistant Trichomonas
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

99
Q
  1. Also associated with cases of diarrhea, does not form cyts, has no observable flagella in the order of Trichomonadida
    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Giardia lamblia
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Entamoeba gingivalis
A

A. Dientamoeba fragilis

100
Q
  1. Reproducing feeding stage of Amoebae
    A. Trophozoite
    B. Flagella
    C. Meozoite
    D. Cyst
A

A. Trophozoite

101
Q
  1. infective stage for trichomonas vaginalis
    a. trophozoite
    b. cyst
    c. none of the choices is correct
    d. cyst and trophoziote
A

a. trophozoite

102
Q
  1. The following antiamoebic drugs are luminal agents except
    A. Diloxanide Furoate
    B. NOTA
    C. lodoquinol
    D. Metronidazole
A

D. Metronidazole

103
Q

60 Entamoeba coli may have this number of nuclei in the cyst
A. 1-8
B. 1-10
C. 1-4
D. 1-2

A

A. 1-8

104
Q

61 Useful test for detection of amoebiasis but may be limited in developing country because subject may remain positive for years
a) Serology
b) Microscopy
c) Isoenzyme analysis
d) Colonoscopy

A

a) Serology

105
Q

62 True of the cyst of Giardia lamblia EXCEPT:
A. with 2 or more nuclei at one end
B. tear-drop shape
C. cytoplasm retracted from cyst wall
D.with cenral axoneme

A

B. tear-drop shape

106
Q
  1. true statement about trichomonas vaginalis
    a. all of the choices are correct
    b. can coexist with other stds
    c. has a free living phase
    d. thrives in vaginal pH of 6.0 and above
A

a. all of the choices are correct

107
Q
  1. Multiplication of Trichomonas vaginalis is by:
    A. Conjugation
    B. Longitudinal binary fission
    C. Budding
    D. Sexual reproduction
A

B. Longitudinal binary fission

108
Q
  1. Exhibits “falling leaf motility”
    A. Giardia lamblia cyst
    B. Trichomonas vaginalis cyst
    C. Gardia lamblia trohpzoite
    D. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoite
A

C. Gardia lamblia trohpzoite

109
Q
  1. Therapeutic intervention indicated when Trichomonas is identified in specimens
    A. Metronidazole 500mg oral 3x a day for 7 days
    B. Tinidazole 2g oral single dose
    C. No treatment needed
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

B. Tinidazole 2g oral single dose

110
Q
  1. Due to its high specificity and sensitivity, which test is becoming the gold standard in the diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis since doing culture studies?
    A. Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
    B. Direct Visualization
    C. Direct Wet Mount
    D. Pap smear
A

A. Nucleic Acid Amplification Test

111
Q
  1. Treatment of Giardiasis include
    A. Quinacrine
    B. All of the choices are correct
    C. Furazolidone
    D. Metronidazole
A

B. All of the choices are correct

112
Q
  1. T. vaginalis infection in males mayh present as
    A. Asymptomatic
    B. Prostatitis
    C. Epididymitis
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

D. All of the choices are correct

113
Q
  1. Trichomonas has prominent siderophilic granules most prominent in which area?
    A. axostyle only
    b. none of the choices
    c. axostyle and costa
    d. costa only
A

c. axostyle and costa

114
Q
  1. for recurrent Trichomoniasis, NAAT shoul not be conducted before 3 weeks after treatment completion because of possible detection of residual nucleic acid that is not clinically relevant
    A. False
    b. True
A

b. True

115
Q
  1. Giardia lamblia has how many flagella
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 10
    D. 8
A

D. 8

116
Q
  1. Microscopic differences of E. coli from E. histolytica except
    A. Presence of ingested RBCs
    B. Nucleus has a large eccentric kayrosome
    C. Blunted pseudopods
    D. Irregular peripheral chromatin clumping
A

A. Presence of ingested RBCs

117
Q
  1. The infective stage/s of G. lamblia
    A. Cyst
    B. Cyst and Trophoziote
    C. None of the choices are correct
    D. Trophozoite
A

A. Cyst

118
Q
  1. Strawberry mucosa is described as petechial hemorrhage and mucosal capillary dilatation of the cervix caused by Trichomonas.
    A. true
    b. false
A

A. true

119
Q
  1. Best conditions for Trichomonas culture growth
    A. 37 - 38 °C under aerobic conditions
    B. 37 - 35 °C under anaerobic conditions
    C. 35 - 37 °C under anaerobic conditions
    D. 35 - 37 °C under aeronic conditions
A

C. 35 - 37 °C under anaerobic conditions

120
Q
  1. Primary mode of trasmission of Trichomonas vaginalis
    A. Fecal contamination
    B. Kissing
    C. Salivary droplets
    D. Sexual intercourse with asymptomatic men.
A

D. Sexual intercourse with asymptomatic men.

121
Q
  1. Men diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis may take 2g of Metronidazole as single dose
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

122
Q
  1. Which of the ff is NOT an intestinal flagellates
    A. Enteromonas hominis
    B. Retromonas intestinalis
    C. Trichomonas tenax
    D. Trichomonas hominis
A

C. Trichomonas tenax

(It is a mouth commensal, not an intestinal flagellate.)

123
Q
  1. In the small intestine, each G lamblia cyst produces how many trophozoites
    A. 1
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 2
A

D. 2

124
Q
  1. Purple burps caused by Giardiasis smells like
    A. Bad breath
    B. Fishy stool
    C. Rotten eggs
    D. Spoiled meat
A

C. Rotten eggs

(Sulfur compounds such as hydrogen sulfide, which has a rotten egg smell, can be produced in the gut.)

125
Q
  1. true statement about trichomonas vaginalis
    a. obligate parasite
    b. cysts divide by binary fission maturing to trophozites
    c. infects columnar epithelium
    d. has a free living phase in its life cycle
A

a. obligate parasite

126
Q

83 True statement about non-pathogenic flagellates.
A. All of the statement are correct
B. Pentatrichomonas hominis has no cysta stage
C. Trichomonas vaginalis only has a trophozoite stage
D. Trichomonas tenax is recovered in vaginal secretion

A

C. Trichomonas vaginalis only has a trophozoite stage

127
Q
  1. Asymptomatic infection with E. histolytica can be treated with
    A Metronidazole
    B. lodoquinol
    C. No treatment needed
    D. Gentamycine
A

B. lodoquinol

128
Q
  1. Additional diagnosis needed for diagnosis of amoebic colitis
    A. CT Scan
    B. MRI
    C. Colonoscopy
A

C. Colonoscopy

129
Q
  1. The most common extraintestinal site of spread of E. histolytica
    A. Brain
    B. Lung
    C. Pancreas
    D. Liver
A

D. Liver

130
Q
  1. The ff describes the group Amebae except
    A. Eukaryotic
    B. Multicellular
    C. Motile trophozoite
    D. Nonmotile cyst
A

B. Multicellular

131
Q
  1. The undulating membrane of this Trichomonas species extends down the entire length of the body
    A. Trichomonas tenax
    B. Trichomonas vaginalis
    C. Trichomonas hominis
    D. All of the choices are correct
A

C. Trichomonas hominis

132
Q
  1. The following describes giardiasis, except:
    A. Abdominal pain
    B. Bloody stool
    C. Foul smelling diarrhea
    D. Purple burps
A

D. Purple burps

133
Q

90 Found in the mouthin soft tartar between teeth or tonsillar crypts and is considered non-pathogenic
A. E. gingivalis
B. E. coli
C. E. dispar
D. E. histolytica

A

A. E. gingivalis

134
Q
  1. Due to their morphologic characteristics, the non-pathogenic Trichomonas vaginalis is mistaken for pathogenic Giardia lamblia.
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

135
Q
  1. Microscopic Finding that differentiate trophozoites of E. Histolytica from E. dispar
    A. Presence of ingested WBCs
    B. Presence of ingested RBCs
    C. Presence of ingested bacteria
    D. Presence of chromatid bars
A

B. Presence of ingested RBCs

136
Q
  1. Morphologic characteristic of Trichomonas hominis includes:
    A. transmitted by fecal oral route
    B. harmless commensal of the cecum
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. has 5 anterior flagella
A

C. All of the choices are correct

137
Q
  1. Infective stage for Trichomonas hominis
    A. Trophozoite
    B. Cyst
    C. Cyst and Trophozoite
    D. NOTA
A

A. Trophozoite

138
Q
  1. Trichomonas Vaginalis can infect infants at birth
    A. true
    B. false
A

A. true

139
Q
  1. Amoebic lung invasion usually results from
    A. Smoking
    B. Phlegm
    C. Erosion from liver abscess
    D. Inhalation of cyst
A

C. Erosion from liver abscess

(Amoebic lung invasion typically occurs when an amoebic liver abscess erodes into the pleural space or lung parenchyma.)

140
Q
  1. The cysts of E. histolytica may contain how many nucleus
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. All of the choices are correct
    D. 1
A

C. All of the choices are correct

141
Q
  1. Morphologic characteristic of Trichomonas Vaginalis includes:
    A. undulating membrane extends to half the length of the body
    B. 5 anterior flagella
    C. axostyle extends to half of the body
    D. 6th flagella at the outer margin of the undulating membrane
A

B. 5 anterior flagella

142
Q
  1. Demonstrates T. vaginalis antigen in vaginal smear using monoclonal antibody for (65kDA) surface polypeptide
    A. Wet mount
    B. Direct Fluorescent antibody
    C. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
    D. Rapid immunochromatographic test
A

C. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

143
Q
  1. Trichomonas vaginalis only cause disease in females but not in males.
    A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
A

B. FALSE

144
Q
  1. Kissing bugs have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
    A. Reaction to its bite is Sensitization
    B. They bite usually during the day
    C. They inflict painful bites
    D. Frequent site of bites is face
A

D. Frequent site of bites is face

145
Q
  1. The initial chagoma reaction at bite site with periorbital edema if bitten near the eye
    a. Romana’s sign
    B. Winterbottom’s sign
    C. Winter’s sign
    D. Racoon sign
A

a. Romana’s sign

146
Q
  1. Asexual reproduction of Toxoplasma is called
    A. Cryptozony
    B. Gametes
    C. Sporogony
    D. Schizogony
A

D. Schizogony
(Toxoplasma gondii undergoes asexual reproduction by a process called schizogony, which is similar to what happens with many other Apicomplexa parasites.)

146
Q
  1. The infective stage of Trypanosoma transmitted by the insect vector
    A. Promastigote
    B. Trypomastigote
    C. Epimastigote
    D. Amastigote
A

B. Trypomastigote
(The trypomastigote stage of Trypanosoma species, such as Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei, is the form transmitted by insect vectors.)

147
Q
  1. Usual host of leshmania are the following except:
    A. Human
    B. Dog
    C. Fox
    D. Rodent
A

A. Human
(Leishmania species typically have a natural reservoir in animals like dogs, rodents, and foxes. Humans are generally considered incidental hosts, meaning they are not part of the natural transmission cycle of the parasite.)

148
Q
  1. One of the following arthropods role in the transmission of amoebiasis
    A. Cockroach
    B. Tick
    C. Crab
    D. Flea
A

A. Cockroach (Cockroaches can act as mechanical vectors for the cysts of Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amoebiasis, by contaminating food and surfaces.)

149
Q

27 Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by
A. Anopholes mosquito
b. Triatoma reduvid bug
c. simulium fly
d. tsetse fly

A

B. Triatoma reduviid bug
(Trypanosoma cruzi, the causative agent of Chagas disease, is transmitted by the Triatoma reduviid bug, commonly known as the “kissing bug.”)

150
Q

31 L. Donovani causes
a. Kala-azar
b. Visceral leishmaniasis
c. all of the choices are correct
d. dumdum fever

A

C. all of the choices are correct (Leishmania donovani is the causative agent of Kala-azar, also known as visceral leishmaniasis or dumdum fever.)

151
Q
  1. Kissing bugs have the following characterisitics, except:
    A. Reaction to its bite is sensitization
    b. they bite usually during the day
    c. the inflict painful bites
    d. frequent site of the bite is face
A

d. frequent site of the bite is face

152
Q
  1. True of the methods of diagnosis of African Trypanosomiasis except
    A. High levels of both IM and spinal fluid proteins are characteristic
    B. Thick blood smears increase the chance of diagnosis
    C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine
    D. Animal inoculation in mice or young rats
A

C. Late in the infection, trypomastigotes are best found in the urine
(In African Trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, trypomastigotes are not typically found in urine. They are usually found in blood, lymph, and cerebrospinal fluid.)

153
Q

38 Rapidly growing intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
A. Bradyzoites
B. Zygote
C.Sporozoites
D. Tachyzoites

A

D. Tachyzoites (Tachyzoites are the rapidly dividing and invasive form of Toxoplasma gondii.)

154
Q
  1. Causative agent for Baghdad boil
    A. L. braziliensis
    B. L. donovani
    C. L. tropica
    D. L. mexicana
A

C. L. tropica (Baghdad boil, also known as cutaneous leishmaniasis, is commonly caused by Leishmania tropica.)

155
Q

40 Causes american Typanosomiasis
A. Tryponosoma brucei gambiense
B. Tryponosoma donovani
C. Tryponosoma brucei rhodensiensi
D. Tryponosoma cruzi

A

D. Trypanosoma cruzi (Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of American Trypanosomiasis, also known as Chagas disease.)

156
Q
  1. This organisms are seen as C-shaped trypomastigotes in stained tissue scraping of skin lesion
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
    C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    D. Trypanosoma donovani
A

A. Trypanosoma cruzi
(Trypanosoma cruzi trypomastigotes can be seen as C-shaped in stained tissue samples, especially in chronic Chagas disease.)

157
Q

47.Slowly multiplying intracellular trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii
A. Sporozoites
B. Bradyzoites
C. Zygote
D. Tahcyzoites

A

B. Bradyzoites
(Bradyzoites are the slowly multiplying form of Toxoplasma gondii, typically found in tissue cysts.)

158
Q
  1. Diagnostic stage for Leishmania spp
    A. Epimastigote
    B. trypomastigotes
    C. Amastigotes
    D. Promastigote
A

C. Amastigotes
(The amastigote stage of Leishmania spp. is the diagnostic stage, typically found in macrophages in tissue smears.)

159
Q
  1. East african sleeping sickness is caused by
    A. Trypanosoma donovani
    B. Trypanosoma cruzi
    C. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
    D. Trypanosoma gambiense
A

C. Trypanosoma rhodesiense
(East African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.)

160
Q

58 Treatment for Tryposomniasis in late disease when theres involvement of the CNS
A. Nifurtimox
B. Tetracycline
C. Tryparsamide
D. Antimony

A

C. Tryparsamide
(Tryparsamide is used for the treatment of late-stage African Trypanosomiasis involving the CNS, although more contemporary treatments like eflornithine are often preferred.)

161
Q

61To establish the diagnosis of trypanosomias, these are found in the fluid from bite site chancre or buffy coat of blood
a. merozoites
b bradyzoites
c tachyzoites
d trypomastigotes

A

D. Trypomastigotes
(Trypomastigotes are the form of Trypanosoma found in the fluid from a bite site chancre or in the buffy coat of blood.)

162
Q
  1. Toxoplasma are obligate endoparasitic protozoa under the class
    A. Sporozoa
    B. Kinetoplastida
    C. Spirocheta
    D. Protista
A

A. Sporozoa
(Toxoplasma gondii belongs to the class Sporozoa, which is characterized by organisms that typically have a spore-like stage in their lifecycle. This class is part of the phylum Apicomplexa.)

163
Q
  1. Infective organisms are deposited on the skin in the feces of the bug and are rubbed into the wound when scratched
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
    D. Both T. brucei gambiencse and rhodesiense
A

A. Trypanosoma cruzi
(This describes the transmission mechanism of Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi, by the Triatomine bugs or “kissing bugs.”)

164
Q
  1. This may spread to cause a disfiguring form, diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis (DCL)
    Select the correct response:
    A. L. braziliensis
    B. L. tropica
    C. L. mexicana
    D. L. donovani
A

C. L. mexicana

165
Q
  1. All leishmania spp are transmitted by
    A.Anopheles Mosquito
    B. Tsetse fly
    C. Triatoma reduvid bug
    D. Sandfly Phlebotomus bug
A

D. Sandfly
(Phlebotomus bug) (Leishmania species are transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.)

166
Q
  1. Trypomastigotes multipy in the body fluids by
    A. sporogony
    B. both asexual and sexual reproduction
    C. binary fission
    D. schizogony
A

C. binary fission
(Trypomastigotes, like those of Trypanosoma cruzi, multiply by binary fission in body fluids.)

167
Q
  1. The only definite host of toxoplasma gondii
    A. Dog
    B. Rat
    C. Bird
    D. Cat
A

D. Cat
(Cats are the only known definitive hosts for Toxoplasma gondii, in which the parasite can complete its sexual reproduction cycle.)

168
Q

75the infective stage of toxoplasma gondi
a. sporozoite
b. oocyte
c. gametes
d. oocyst

A

D. Oocyst
(The oocyst stage of Toxoplasma gondii, especially after sporulation, is the infective form that can be transmitted to humans and other warm-blooded animals.)

169
Q
  1. the form of T. cruzi found multiplying in the heart
    a. epimastigote
    b. promastigote
    c. amastigote
    d. trypomastigote
A

C. Amastigote
(In the tissues, such as the heart, Trypanosoma cruzi exists in the amastigote form, which multiplies intracellularly.)

170
Q
  1. Enlarged lymph nodes in the posterior cervical chain caused by is called
    A. Romana’s sign
    B. Winterbottom sign
    C. Winter sign
    D. Racoon Sign
A

B. Winterbottom’s sign
(Winterbottom’s sign is the term for enlarged lymph nodes, particularly in the posterior cervical chain, classically associated with African Trypanosomiasis caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.)

171
Q
  1. The leishmania spp that does not stay localized in the skin lesion but spread to the viscera eventually causing death
    A. L. brazilliensis
    B. L. donovani
    C. L. mexicana
    D. L. tropica
A

B. L. donovani
(Leishmania donovani is known for causing visceral leishmaniasis, which can spread to the viscera and can be fatal if not treated.)

172
Q
  1. the vector transmits the infective organism by injecting metacyclic trypomastigotes from the salivary gland
    a. trypanosoma brucei gambiense
    b. trypanosoma cruzi
    c. both t. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
    d. trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
A

C. both T. brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
(Both Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense are transmitted by the tsetse fly, which injects metacyclic trypomastigotes into the host from its salivary glands.)

173
Q
  1. In the diagnosis of infection with L.donovani, these can be found later in the infection in the RES, spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
    A. Neil bodies
    B. Macrophages
    C. LD bodies
    D. Chromatid bodies
A

C. LD bodies
(Leishman-Donovan bodies, or LD bodies, are the intracellular form of Leishmania donovani found within macrophages in the reticuloendothelial system, spleen, lymph nodes, and bone marrow.)

174
Q
  1. Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by the arthropod
    A. Phlebotomus bug
    B. Triatoma reduviid bug
    C. Tsetse fly
    D. Sandly
    E. Simulium fly
A

C. Tsetse fly
(Trypanosoma brucei, the causative agent of African sleeping sickness, is transmitted by the tsetse fly.)

MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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