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MICRO/PARA > 2023 > Flashcards

2023 Flashcards

1
Q

True statements about G. lamblia pathogenesis and clinical features include which of the following?
A. It does not invade tissues but remains tightly attached by means of the sucking disc to the epithelial surface in the duodenum and jejunum.
B. Children may develop chronic diarrhea, malabsorption, weight loss, and a sprue-like syndrome.
C. Occasionally, giardia may colonize the gallbladder, causing biliary colic and jaundice.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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2
Q

What is the ultimate source of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. part of the normal human flora
B. Spread of infection through droplets from the respiratory tract
C. Subclinically infected persons
D. None of the above.

A

C. Subclinically infected persons

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3
Q

In evaluating the immune status of a young girl with repeated infections, which of the following vaccines should be contraindicated?
A. BCG
B. Diphtheria toxoid
C. B. pertussis vaccine
D. None of the above.

A

A. BCG

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4
Q

Abdominal pain is associated with which of the following processes?
A. Binary fission
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Fissure binding
D. None of the above.

A

A. Binary fission

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5
Q

What type of measurement in microbial culture quantifies viable cells per unit of volume culture?
A. Cell concentration
B. Biomass density
C. Growth
D. Culture viability

A

A. Cell concentration

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6
Q

The common liver fluke, ____, inflicts tissue damage that sometimes predisposes cattle to redwater disease.
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Schistosoma japonicum

A

B. Fasciola hepatica

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7
Q

A friend bitten by his pet cat exhibits redness, swelling, and pain on the wound, along with a painful mass on his right inguinal area. This is compatible with Pasteurella multocida infection. He also has a low-grade fever. Which drug is the appropriate choice?
A. Penicillin G
B. Fluoroquinolone
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Streptomycin

A

A. Penicillin G

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8
Q

What vitamin deficiency is caused by Diphyllobothrium latum?
A. Rickets
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron-deficiency anemia
D. Scurvy

A

B. Pernicious anemia

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9
Q

Which organism causes intoxication from food ingestion, leading to flaccid paralysis by blocking acetylcholine release at synapses and NMJs?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani

A

A. Clostridium botulinum

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10
Q

The leading cause of blindness in Africa is:
A. Onchocerciasis
B. Elephantiasis
C. Calabar swelling
D. Weingarten’s syndrome

A

A. Onchocerciasis

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11
Q

Which phase of the microbial growth curve refers to the period when there is an equilibrium between cell production and cell death?
A. Death
B. Stationary
C. Lag
D. Log

A

B. Stationary

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of human eosinophilic meningitis?
A. Loa loa
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

A

D. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

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13
Q

Infestation with the dog roundworm causing visceral larva migrans and ocular larva migrans:
A. Toxocariasis
B. Trichinellosis
C. Taeniasis
D. Ascariasis

A

A. Toxocariasis

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14
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI in females?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Proteus mirabilis

A

A. Escherichia coli

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15
Q

Characteristics of Streptococcus agalactiae:
A. Alpha hemolytic
B. Group A streptococci
C. Positive for CAMP test
D. All of the above

A

C. Positive for CAMP test

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16
Q

In which part of the body does Schistosoma japonicum reside?
A. Superior mesenteric vein
B. Gallbladder
C. Inferior mesenteric vein
D. Liver

A

A. Superior mesenteric vein

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17
Q

Immunity may be natural or acquired. Which of the following describes acquired immunity?
A. Presence of natural killer (NK) cells
B. Maternal transfer of antibody
C. Complement cascade
D. None of the above (since other choices are innate)

A

B. Maternal transfer of antibody

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18
Q

Steatorrheic or gruelly stool is due to malabsorption of fat:
A. T. vaginalis
B. T. tenax
C. T. hominis
D. G. lamblia

A

D. G. lamblia

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19
Q

Which cytokine is involved in cell activation and fever?
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-3
D. IL-4

A

A. IL-1

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20
Q

Acute infantile diarrhea is most commonly due to infection with which of the following:
A. Astroviruses
B. Enteric adenoviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Rotaviruses

A

D. Rotaviruses

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21
Q

A hapten is a nonimmunogenic small protein. Which of the following statements best describes haptens?
A. Haptens do not react with specific antibody.
B. Penicillin is a hapten.
C. Haptens activate T cells.

A

B. Penicillin is a hapten.

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22
Q

Previously reported carriers of Entamoeba but do not exhibit symptoms may actually have acquired this due to the close resemblance to E. histolytica
A. NOTA
B. E. coli
C. E. hartmanni
D. E. dispar

A

D. E. dispar

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23
Q

Certain viruses have been associated with birth defects; these teratogenic viruses include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Parvovirus B19
B. VZV
C. CMV
D. Rhinovirus
E. Rubella virus

A

D. Rhinovirus

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24
Q

Which of the following statements best describes immunoglobulin structure?
A. The amino acid sequence variation of the heavy chains is different than that observed in light chains.
B. On the 3D structure of Ig, there is little, if any, flexibility in the hinge region between the Fc and two Fab portions.
C. In humans, there are approximately twice as many Ig molecules with α and β chains.

A

A. The amino acid sequence variation of the heavy chains is different than that observed in light chains.

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25
Q

Confirmation of the identity of the virus may be carried out using:
A. Neutralization
B. AOTA
C. Haemadsorption-inhibition
D. Immunofluorescence test

A

B. AOTA

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26
Q

A latent, measles-like viral infection and, presumably, a defect in cellular immunity are associated with which of the following diseases?
A. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

B. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

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27
Q
  1. A 28-year-old nurse was brought to the ER because of hypotension, headache, muscle ache, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. PE revealed the presence of an erythematous rash and an intact tampon as she was menstruating at that time. Her kidney function tests were abnormal indicative of mild renal failure. Her illness is likely to be caused by which of the following?
    A. A toxin that stimulates up to 10% of T cells to be non-specifically activated
    B. A toxin that blocks elongation factor 2 (EP2)
    C. A toxin that results in greatly increased levels of intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (CAMP)
    D. A toxin that degrades sphingomyelin
A

A. A toxin that stimulates up to 10% of T cells to be non-specifically activated

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28
Q
  1. А month-old infant came in due to 5 days cough, fever, and convulsions. The most likely organism that could cause this condition is?
    A. K. pneumoniae
    B. S. pneumoniae
    C. H. influenzae
    D. S. aureus
A

C. H. influenzae

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29
Q
  1. Acute phase of first infection resembles typhoid fever
    A. intestinal schistosomiasis
    B. Oriental schistosomiasis
    C. Urinary schistosomiasis
    D. Fasciola infection
A

A. intestinal schistosomiasis

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30
Q
  1. This part of the microbial growth curve refers to the phase when the population decreases due to cell death
    A. Death
    B. Lag
    C. Log
    D. Stationary
A

A. Death

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31
Q
  1. Transmitted thru oral contact:
    A. Both HSV 1 and HSV 2
    B. HSV I
    C. None of the above
    D. HSV II
A

B. HSV I

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32
Q
  1. Lodges in the trigeminal ganglia
    A. Both HSV 1 and HSV 2
    B. HSV I
    C. HSV II
    D. None of the above
A

B. HSV I

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33
Q
  1. The gold standard for the diagnosis of E. histolytica but requires 1-2 weeks to complete; involves application of electrophoresis
    A. Serology
    B. Colonoscopy
    C. Isoenzyme Analysis
    D. Microscopy
A

C. Isoenzyme Analysis

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34
Q
  1. Target organ of HHV 6
    A. Lymphoid Tissue
    B. Glands
    C. None of the above
    D. Neuron
A

A. Lymphoid Tissue

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35
Q
  1. The anterior end of a tapeworm which is used to attach to the wall of the host intestine by means of suckers and hooks is called
    A. Strobili
    B. Scolex
    C. Parenchyma
    D. Proglottid
A

B. Scolex

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36
Q
  1. Eggs of this tapeworm is immediately infective when passed and cannot survive more than 10 days in the external environment
    A. Echinococcus granulosus
    b. Diphyllobotrium latum
    C. Taenia Solium
    D. Hymenolepsis Nana
A

D. Hymenolepsis Nana

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37
Q
  1. Megakaryocytes are minimally immunoresponsive; such cells are also known as
    A. Platelet
    B. B-lymphocytes
    C. Erythrocytes
A

A. Platelet

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38
Q
  1. A 20 y. 0. Indian Medical Student from India came in for fever with tender enlarged lymph node of his axillae, vomiting and diarrhea, you suspect Yersinia Pestis infection. What is the drug of cheice for this condition?
    A. Streptomycin
    B. Tetracycline
    C. Tetracycline
    D. Rifampicin
A

A. Streptomycin

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39
Q
  1. This is the type of measurement for microbial culture that measures the dry weight of cells per unit volume of culture
    A. Biomass density
    B. Culture
    C. Growth
    D. Cell concentration
A

A. Biomass density

Biomass density measures the dry weight of cells per unit volume of culture, providing an indication of the amount of microbial cells present.

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40
Q
  1. Has reservoirs
    A. Both HSV 1 and HSV 2
    B. HSV I
    C. HSV II
    D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

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41
Q

Which immunoglobulin has no known function but is present on the surface of B lymphocytes? It may function as an antigen receptor.
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD

A

C. IgD

42
Q

Morphology and life cycle of T. vaginalis:
A. The trophozoite can be round or bean-shaped
B. It is motile with leaf-like motion
C. It only lives in the vagina and cervix in females
D. Occurs only as the trophozoite

A

D. Occurs only as the trophozoite

43
Q

No bacterial pathogens can be isolated from the sputum of a patient with pneumonia. Antibiotic therapy has not been successful. The next step should be:
A. A change in antibiotics
B. Culturing for Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Culturing for Mycoplasma tuberculosis
D. Culturing for fungi

A

D. Culturing for fungi

44
Q

The following describes giardiasis except:
A. Abdominal pain
B. Foul-smelling diarrhea
C. Purple burps
D. Bloody stool

A

D. Bloody stool

45
Q

IgA antibody is the first line of defense against infections at the mucous membrane. It is usually an early specific antibody. Which of the following statements regarding IgA is not true?
A. IgA is not found in saliva, therefore an IgA diagnostic test on saliva would have no value
B. Complement fixation tests for IgA antibody will be positive if specific IgA antibody is present
C. IgA can be destroyed by bacterial proteases

A

A. IgA is not found in saliva, therefore an IgA diagnostic test on saliva would have no value

46
Q

Manifest as cold sores:
A. Both HSV1 and HSV2
B. None of the choices is correct
C. HSV2
D. HSV1

A

D. HSV1

47
Q

Phase where there is no appreciable increase in bacterial count, though there may be an increase in size of the cells noted immediately following inoculation:
A. Lag Phase
B. Log Phase
C. Stationary Phase

A

A. Lag Phase

48
Q

A 22-month-old infant came to the ER looking acutely ill with fever. He started to develop a petechial rash which was noted to be increasing rapidly. Your impression is meningococcemia. What would be your first step to confirm the diagnosis so you can institute immediate therapy?
A. VCN media of skin scrapings
B. CBC
C. Gram stain of scraping of petechiae
D. Blood culture on Thayer-Martin aga

A

C. Gram stain of scraping of petechiae

49
Q

What parasite produces an infection that stimulates tuberculosis:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Fasciolopsis buski

A

C. Paragonimus westermani

50
Q

The intermediate host of Onchocerca volvulus is:
A. Chrysops
B. Culex
C. Anopheles
D. Simulium

A

D. Simulium

51
Q

Migration of the larva of this nematode to the posterior segment of the eye causes ocular larva migrans, which can lead to unilateral visual loss, leukocoria, and retinal detachment:
A. Trichinella spiralis
B. Toxocara canis
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

A

B. Toxocara canis

52
Q
  1. Infects adults and children and considered as epidemic viral gastroenteritis:
    A. Rotavirus
    B. Norwalk agent and Calicivirus
    C. Astroviruses and Retrovirus
    D. AOTA
A

B. Norwalk agent and Calicivirus

53
Q
  1. What is the most common organism in human wounds inflicted by bites from cats and dogs:
    A. Yersinia pestis
    B. Francisella tularensis - tick bite
    C. Pasteurella multicoda
    D. Brucella sp.
A

C. Pasteurella multicoda

54
Q
  1. What kind of lymphocytes is involved in cell- mediate immune response:
    A. CD3andCD7
    B. CD6andCD10
    C. CD4 and CD6
    D. CD5 and CD9
A

C. CD4 and CD6

55
Q
  1. An 8-year-old boy develops a circular dry, scaly and pruritic lesions on his leg. What is the diagnostic significance of observing branching, septate, nonpigmented hyphae in a potassium hydroxide/calcofluor white preparation of a scraping from that skin lesion?
    A. Chromomycosis
    B. Phaeohyphomycosis
    C. Dermatophytosis
    D. Sporotrichosis
A

C. Dermatophytosis

56
Q
  1. Oriental schistosomiasis is caused by?
    A. Schistosoma haematobium
    B. Schistosoma
    C. Schistosoma mansoni
    D. Schistosoma japonicum
A

D. Schistosoma japonicum

57
Q

An inflammatory granuloma forms with epithelial, giant plasma, eosinophil, and fibroblasts as a result of the damage by the eggs in the tissue worms in Schistosoma infection?
A. Papillomata
B. Katayama fever
C. Halzoun
D. Hoeppli reaction

A

D. Hoeppli reaction

58
Q

Human infection with P. westermani occurs:
A. Ingestion of aquatic vegetation
B. Ingestion of undercooked freshwater fish
C. Ingestion of inadequately cooked crab or crayfish
D. All of the above

A

C. Ingestion of inadequately cooked crab or crayfish

59
Q

A 22-year-old male patient was having diarrhea, fever, and blood-tinged stool. Microscopic findings showed motile unicellular organisms with ingested RBCs. Diagnosis is:
A. Diverticulitis
B. Irritable bowel syndrome
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Amoebic dysentery

A

D. Amoebic dysentery

60
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the predominant antibody in the secondary immune response? It has four subclasses.
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG

A

C. IgG

61
Q

What immune response does AIDS suppress that results in overwhelming infections?
A. Immunetolerance
B. Cell-mediated immune response
C. Cytokine production
D. Humoral immune response

A

B. Cell-mediated immune response

62
Q

Asymptomatic infection with E. dispar can be treated with:
A. Gentamicin
B. No treatment needed
C. Metronidazole
D. Iodoquinol

A

B. No treatment needed

63
Q

This part of the microbial growth curve refers to the phase where the cell starts dividing and their numbers increase exponentially with time:
A. Lag
B. Stationary
C. Death
D. Log

A

D. Log

64
Q

Marked initial toxic and allergic symptoms which can lead to myocarditis and death. Hepatic lesions may lead to portal hypertension. The brain may also be involved:
A. Clonorchis infection
B. Oriental schistosomiasis
C. Intestinal schistosomiasis
D. Urinary schistosomiasis

A

B. Oriental schistosomiasis

65
Q

Exchange of bacterial genetic material through a pilus which attaches to another bacteria:
A. Transduction
B. Deletion
C. Conjugation

A

C. Conjugation

66
Q

The nematode that resides in striated muscle tissue forming granuloma and calcification is:
A. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
B. Loa loa
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Trichinella spiralis

A

D. Trichinella spiralis

67
Q

One of the most remarkable aspects of the human immune system is its diversity, that is, the ability to recognize a wide range of antigens and to mount a specific antibody response. This is called clonal selection. At the cellular level, which of the following are primarily responsible for such specificity:
A. The major histocompatibility complex
B. Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells
C. Cytotoxic T cells

A

B. Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells

68
Q

An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of him progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one of the following tests would be most useful?
A. CD4 lymphocyte count
B. HIV antibody test
C. HIV RT-PCR

A

A. CD4 lymphocyte count

69
Q

May be inactive in the sacral ganglia:
A. HSV1
B. None of the choices are correct
C. HSV2
D. Both HSV1 and HSV2

A

C. HSV2

70
Q

The following viruses are associated with gastroenteritis EXCEPT:
A. Astroviruses
B. Adenoviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Norwalk-like viruses

A

C. Enteroviruses

71
Q

This is the prevention of an immune response to a particular antigen:
A. Immune prophylaxis
B. Immune modulation
C. Immune paralysis
D. Immune tolerance

A

A. Immune prophylaxis

72
Q

Mode of transmission is by ingestion of metacercaria from fish:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Schistosoma mansoni

A

B. Clonorchis sinensis

73
Q

Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in the immune response to parasitic infections:
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgM

A

B. IgE

74
Q

Cell culture is not widely used due to the following problems:
A. Short period (up to 1 week) is usually required for a result – except due to long 4 weeks
B. Susceptible to bacterial contamination
C. Susceptible to toxic substances which may be present in the specimen
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

75
Q

The only virus which has double-stranded RNA is:
A. Adenovirus
B. Reovirus
C. Bunyavirus
D. Rhabdovirus

A

B. Reovirus

76
Q

Infection in which the worm settles in the pharynx, occurs when an individual consumes infected raw liver, the young adult worms there attach themselves to the pharyngeal mucosa which causes considerable pain, edema leading to dysphagia bleeding:
A. Hoeppli reaction
B. Papillomata
C. Katayama fever
D. Halzoun

A

D. Halzoun

77
Q

Eggs are immature when laid:
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

78
Q

Non-enterococcal group D streptococci and part of the enteric flora:
A. Streptococcus group C and D
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. None of the choices is correct

A

C. Streptococcus bovis

79
Q

Direct uptake of naked donor DNA by a competent cell is seen in which bacterial process:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation

A

C. Transformation

80
Q

One way of killing larvae of T. spiralis by cooking meat to:
A. 137°F
B. 100°C
C. 137°C
D. 100°F

A

A. 137°F

81
Q

Diagnosis of infestation with blood tissue nematodes is by:
A. Identification of eggs in the feces
B. Identification of microfilariae in stained blood smear
C. Serology
D. Identification of the adult filariae

A

B. Identification of microfilariae in stained blood smear

82
Q

Most common extraintestinal site of spread of E. histolytica:
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Lung

A

B. Liver

83
Q

The major role of T cells in the immune response includes which one of the following?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Complement function
C. Recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on cell surfaces

A

C. Recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on cell surfaces

84
Q

A 19-year-old college student develops a rash. She works part-time in a pediatric AIDS clinic. Her blood is drawn and tested for specific antibody to the chickenpox virus. Which of the following antibody classes would you expect to find if she is immune to chickenpox?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE

A

A. IgA

85
Q

Associated with herpes meningitis:
A. HSV1
B. HSV2
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

C. Both

86
Q

Which of the following is the immunoglobulin that is initially seen on the primary immune response? It is present as a monomer on B cell surfaces but as a pentamer in serum.
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgG

A

B. IgM

87
Q

Causes Beaver’s disease:
A. E. histolytica
B. E. gingivalis
C. T. vaginalis
D. G. lamblia

A

D. G. lamblia

88
Q

What is involved in Humoral Immunity?
A. Plasma cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Cytotoxic T-cells
D. Natural Killer Cells

A

A. Plasma cells

89
Q

True about T. vaginalis treatment and prevention:
A. Simultaneous treatment of the sexual partner is necessary for cure
B. Prevention is as for other sexually transmitted diseases
C. Metronidazole is the drug of choice
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

90
Q

Which of the following statements regarding virus morphology is true:
A. All RNA viruses are spherical in shape
B. Viral surface proteins protect the viral genome from nucleases
C. Some viruses contain flagella
D. Some viruses with DNA genomes contain a primitive nucleus

A

B. Viral surface proteins protect the viral genome from nucleases

91
Q
  1. Target organ of Cytomegalovirus
    A. Glands
    B. Neuron
    C. Lymphoid tissue
    D. NOTA
A

A. Glands

92
Q

Chronic elephantiasis develops because of:
A. Blindness
B. Allergy
C. Obstruction of lymphatics
D. Eosinophilia

A

C. Obstruction of lymphatics

93
Q

This part of the microbial growth curve refers to the phase immediately following inoculation there is no appreciable increase in the number, though there may be an increase in the size of the cells.
A. Death
B. Log
C. Stationary
D. Lag

A

D. Lag

94
Q

This tapeworm can cause neurocysticercosis.
A. T. solium
B. D. latum
C. E. granulosus
D. T. saginata

A

A. T. solium

95
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Pasteurella multocida?
A. Cefuroxime
B. Penicillin G
C. Streptomycin
D. Clarithromycin

A

B. Penicillin G

96
Q

A relative from rural Europe complained of high fever and body aches, swollen glands, and difficulty with swallowing which was present for weeks. What is the most likely organism that you will consider?
A. Yersinia pestis
B. Brucella sp.
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Francisella tularensis

A

A. Yersinia pestis

97
Q

A 34-year-old male patient visits a physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and swollen glands. The physician also observes that he has an oral yeast infection. Which of the following tests would most likely reveal the cause of his problems?
A. An HIV ELISA test
B. A human T-lymphocytic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) test
C. A test of CD8 lymphocyte

A

A. An HIV ELISA test

98
Q

Which is involved in cell-mediated immunity?
A. B cell
B. Complement
C. Antibodies
D. T cell

A

D. T cell

99
Q

CSF examination of a 40-year-old male showed the image of Charcot-Leyden crystals in the meninges. This shows possible infestation with:
A. Trichinella spiralis
B. W. bancrofti
C. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
D. O. volvulus

A

C. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

100
Q

Difference of schistosomes from other trematodes except:
A. Dioecious adults
B. Bifurcated (forked) cercaria
C. Operculated egg monoperalate
D. Adults parasitize the blood vessels.

A

C. Operculated egg monoperalate

MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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