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MICRO/PARA > Blood and Tissue Flagellates > Flashcards

Blood and Tissue Flagellates Flashcards

1
Q

What is the etiological agent of Chagas disease?

A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Trypanosoma brucei
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) Leishmania donovani

A

C) Trypanosoma cruzi

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2
Q

Which stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is typically found in human blood?

A) Epimastigote
B) Amastigote
C) Trypomastigote
D) Promastigote

A

C) Trypomastigote

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3
Q

Chagas disease is also known as:

A) African Sleeping Sickness
B) American Trypanosomiasis
C) Leishmaniasis
D) Malaria

A

B) American Trypanosomiasis

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4
Q

Which insect is the primary vector for the transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A) Anopheles mosquito
B) Sandfly
C) Tsetse fly
D) Triatomine bug

A

D) Triatomine bug

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5
Q

What is the common name for the insect vector responsible for the transmission of Chagas disease?

A) Kissing Bug
B) Bed Bug
C) Flea
D) Louse

A

A) Kissing Bug

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6
Q

Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is traditionally associated with East African Sleeping Sickness?

A) T. brucei gambiense
B) T. brucei rhodesiense
C) T. brucei brucei
D) T. cruzi

A

B) T. brucei rhodesiense

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7
Q

What is the main vector for the transmission of Trypanosoma brucei?

A) Anopheles mosquito
B) Tsetse fly
C) Sandfly
D) Triatomine bug

A

B) Tsetse fly

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8
Q

What is the genus name of the tsetse fly, the vector for African Sleeping Sickness?

A) Culex
B) Aedes
C) Glossina
D) Musca

A

C) Glossina

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9
Q

Which disease is caused by Trypanosoma brucei?

A) Chagas disease
B) Malaria
C) Leishmaniasis
D) African Sleeping Sickness

A

D) African Sleeping Sickness

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10
Q

Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is most prevalent in West Africa?

A) T. brucei gambiense
B) T. brucei rhodesiense
C) T. brucei brucei
D) T. cruzi

A

A) T. brucei gambiense

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11
Q

Which Leishmania species is primarily associated with cutaneous leishmaniasis?

A) Leishmania donovani
B) Leishmania tropica
C) Leishmania braziliensis
D) Leishmania major

A

B) Leishmania tropica

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12
Q

Leishmania amastigotes are known to live intracellularly in:

A) Red blood cells
B) Epidermal cells
C) Monocytes and endothelial cells
D) Hepatocytes

A

C) Monocytes and endothelial cells

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13
Q

What is the common name for the disease caused by Leishmania donovani?

A) Chagas disease
B) African Sleeping Sickness
C) Visceral leishmaniasis or Kala-Azar
D) Malaria

A

C) Visceral leishmaniasis or Kala-Azar

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14
Q

Which of the following Leishmania species can cause mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

A) Leishmania donovani
B) Leishmania major
C) Leishmania tropica
D) Leishmania braziliensis

A

D) Leishmania braziliensis

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15
Q

What is the insect vector for Leishmania spp.?

A) Anopheles mosquito
B) Tsetse fly
C) Sandfly (Phlebotomus spp.)
D) Triatomine bug

A

C) Sandfly (Phlebotomus spp.)

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16
Q

The Leishmania stage shown in the image, characterized by a single free flagellum, is known as:

A) Amastigote
B) Promastigote
C) Epimastigote
D) Trypomastigote

A

B) Promastigote

17
Q

The flagellum of a Leishmania promastigote originates from which part of the cell?

A) Nucleus
B) Kinetoplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Mitochondrion

A

B) Kinetoplast

18
Q

What is the significance of the Leishmania promastigote form?

A) It is the reproductive stage.
B) It is the infective stage to humans.
C) It is the stage that lives in the sandfly’s gut.
D) It is the stage that causes symptoms in humans.

A

B) It is the infective stage to humans.

19
Q

In which host is the Leishmania promastigote form found?

A) In the mammalian host
B) In the insect vector
C) In the environment
D) In water sources

A

B) In the insect vector

20
Q

The infective stage of Leishmania responsible for transmission to humans is:

A) Promastigote
B) Amastigote
C) Epimastigote
D) Trypomastigote

A

A) Promastigote

21
Q

What is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?

A) Canids (dogs)
B) Rodents (rats)
C) Felidae (cats)
D) Bovidae (cattle)

A

C) Felidae (cats)

22
Q

Which form of Toxoplasma gondii is typically found in the definitive host?

A) Tachyzoites
B) Tissue cysts
C) Bradyzoites
D) Oocysts

A

D) Oocysts

23
Q

Which stage of Toxoplasma gondii is most commonly associated with infection in intermediate hosts through ingestion?

A) Tachyzoites
B) Tissue cysts
C) Bradyzoites
D) Oocysts

A

B) Tissue cysts

24
Q

Toxoplasma gondii : Tachyzoites are:

A) The slow-dividing form found in tissues
B) The rapid-dividing form seen during acute infection
C) The form that encysts in the brain and muscle tissues
D) The form excreted by the definitive host

A

B) The rapid-dividing form seen during acute infection

25
Q

Oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii are:

A) Passed in the stool of the definitive host
B) Found in the blood of the intermediate host
C) The form that causes congenital infections
D) The form found in undercooked meat

A

A) Passed in the stool of the definitive host

26
Q

What is the infective form of Cryptosporidium parvum?

A) Merozoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Oocyst
D) Sporozoite

A

C) Oocyst

27
Q

Where does Cryptosporidium parvum primarily infect humans?

A) Liver cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Microvilli of the intestinal epithelial cells
D) Lung tissue

A

C) Microvilli of the intestinal epithelial cells

28
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts are characterized by:

A) Staining with iodine
B) Being acid-fast
C) Being destroyed easily by stomach acid
D) Having a single sporozoite

A

B) Being acid-fast

29
Q

What percentage of Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts have thin walls leading to autoinfection?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%

A

C) 20%

30
Q

Which method is effective in eliminating Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts?

A) Boiling at 100°C
B) Freezing at -20°C
C) Sequential application of ozone and chlorine
D) Standard water filtration

A

C) Sequential application of ozone and chlorine

31
Q

What is the diameter of Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts?

A) 1 um
B) 3 um
C) 5 um
D) 10 um

A

C) 5 um

32
Q

How many crescent-shaped sporozoites does each Cryptosporidium parvum oocyst contain?

A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight

A

B) Four

33
Q
A

MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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