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MICRO/PARA > LE 2- Cestodes > Flashcards

LE 2- Cestodes Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term “kestos” mean in Greek?

A) Anchor
B) Worm
C) Girdle or Ribbon
D) Segment

A

C) Girdle or Ribbon
Rationale: The term “kestos” is derived from Greek and means “girdle” or “ribbon”, which describes the appearance of Cestodes.

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes Cestodes?

A) Single-segmented round worms
B) Multisegmented tape-like worms
C) Spiral worms
D) Hooked worms

A

B) Multisegmented tape-like worms
Rationale: Cestodes are multisegmented, dorsoventrally flattened tape-like worms.

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3
Q

Where are adult Cestodes primarily found in humans?

A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Small intestines
D) Large intestines

A

C) Small intestines
Rationale: Adult worms of Cestodes predominantly inhabit the small intestines of humans.

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4
Q

What are the egg-producing units in Cestodes called?

A) Ovules
B) Proglottids
C) Larvae
D) Cysts

A

B) Proglottids
Rationale: Cestodes consist of chains of egg-producing units termed “proglottids” or segments.

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5
Q

Which part of the adult worm serves as an organ of attachment to the host’s intestinal mucosa?

A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Scolex
D) Proglottid

A

C) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, is the primary organ that latches onto the intestinal mucosa of the definitive host.

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6
Q

Which segment of the Cestode contains both male and female reproductive organs?

A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

A

C) Mature segments
Rationale: Mature segments evolve from immature ones and boast fully developed internal and reproductive structures, containing both male and female reproductive organs.

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7
Q

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for the continuous generation of proglottids?

A) Scolex
B) Neck
C) Strobila
D) Gravid segment

A

B) Neck
Rationale: The neck, located right after the scolex, is the growth region where proglottids are continuously produced.

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8
Q

Which segment of the Cestode is predominantly occupied by a uterus filled with eggs?

A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) None of the above

A

C) Gravid segments
Rationale: Gravid segments are the segments following mature ones and are predominantly occupied by a uterus brimming with eggs.

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9
Q

What function do the microtriches in Cestodes serve?

A) Reproduction
B) Movement
C) Absorption of nutrients
D) Excretion

A

C) Absorption of nutrients
Rationale: Nutrients are absorbed from the surroundings via the skin or integument of Cestodes equipped with microtriches, which operate similarly to intestinal villi.

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of fertilization in Cestodes?
A) Intrasegmental
B) Intersegmental
C) Interworm
D) Interspecies

A

D) Interspecies
Rationale: Fertilization in cestodes can occur in three distinct manners: Intrasegmental, Intersegmental, and Interworm. Interspecies is not mentioned as a method of fertilization.

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11
Q

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host?
A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Scolex
D) Proglottid

A

C) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, acts as an anchor and provides orientation.

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12
Q

Which segment of the Cestode lacks well-developed reproductive organs?
A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

A

A) Immature segments
Rationale: Immature segments originate from the neck’s distal end and lack well-developed reproductive organs.

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13
Q

Cestodes have an indirect life cycle. What does this mean?
A) They do not require a host to complete their life cycle.
B) They require only one host to complete their life cycle.
C) They require multiple hosts to complete their life cycle.
D) Their life cycle is not dependent on environmental factors.

A

C) They require multiple hosts to complete their life cycle.
Rationale: An indirect life cycle means that the parasites utilize an intermediate host in addition to the definitive host to complete their life cycle.

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14
Q

Which part of the Cestode serves as the nervous system?
A) Microtriches
B) Proglottids
C) Ganglion cell
D) Solenocytes

A

C) Ganglion cell
Rationale: The ganglion cell acts as the nervous system for Cestodes and is situated in the scolex.

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15
Q

Which cells in Cestodes are connected to capillaries and play a role in excretion?
A) Microtriches
B) Ganglion cells
C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
D) Proglottids

A

C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
Rationale: Solenocytes, also known as flame cells, are connected to capillaries and play a crucial role in the excretion process of Cestodes.

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16
Q

How do Cestodes obtain their nutrients?
A) Through a specialized mouth
B) Through their reproductive organs
C) By absorbing food from the environment through their skin
D) Through specialized tentacles

A

C) By absorbing food from the environment through their skin
Rationale: Cestodes lack internal structures functioning as an intestinal tract. They absorb nutrients from the surroundings via their skin.

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17
Q

Which of the following segments of Cestodes contains reproductive organs that are NOT well-developed?
A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) All of the above

A

A) Immature segments
Rationale: Immature segments of Cestodes develop from the distal end of the neck and have reproductive organs that are not well-developed.

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18
Q

Which segment of the Cestode is completely occupied by the uterus filled with eggs?
A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) None of the above

A

C) Gravid segments
Rationale: Gravid segments are the segments following mature ones and are predominantly occupied by a uterus brimming with eggs.

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19
Q

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for the continuous generation of proglottids?
A) Scolex
B) Neck
C) Strobila
D) Gravid segment

A

B) Neck
Rationale: The neck, located right after the scolex, is the growth region where proglottids are continuously produced.

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20
Q

Which of the following structures in Cestodes function similarly to intestinal villi?
A) Ganglion cells
B) Solenocytes
C) Microtriches
D) Proglottids

A

C) Microtriches
Rationale: Microtriches in Cestodes operate similarly to intestinal villi, aiding in the absorption of nutrients from the surroundings.

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21
Q

Which segment of the Cestode contains fully developed internal and reproductive structures?
A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

A

C) Mature segments
Rationale: Mature segments evolve from immature ones and boast fully developed internal and reproductive structures.

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Cestodes?
A) They are single-segmented.
B) They have an indirect life cycle.
C) They are dorsoventrally flattened.
D) They are tape-like worms.

A

A) They are single-segmented.
Rationale: Cestodes are multisegmented, dorsoventrally flattened tape-like worms.

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23
Q

Which part of the Cestode is located immediately after the scolex?
A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Proglottid
D) Gravid segment

A

A) Neck
Rationale: The neck is the part of the Cestode that is located immediately after the scolex.

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24
Q

Which of the following structures in Cestodes serves as an absorptive structure?
A) Ganglion cell
B) Solenocytes
C) Entire skin
D) Proglottids

A

C) Entire skin
Rationale: The entire skin of Cestodes acts as an absorptive structure, allowing them to absorb nutrients from the surroundings.

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25
Q

Which of the following segments of Cestodes is NOT well-differentiated in terms of internal structures?
A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) All of the above

A

A) Immature segments
Rationale: Immature segments of Cestodes develop from the distal end of the neck and lack well-differentiated internal structures.

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26
Q

Which cells in Cestodes are connected to capillaries?
A) Microtriches
B) Ganglion cells
C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
D) Proglottids

A

C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
Rationale: Solenocytes, also known as flame cells, are connected to capillaries in Cestodes.

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27
Q

Which of the following structures in Cestodes is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host?
A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Scolex
D) Proglottid

A

C) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host’s intestinal mucosa.

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28
Q

Which of the following methods allows a Cestode segment to self-fertilize?
A) Intrasegmental
B) Intersegmental
C) Interworm
D) Interspecies

A

A) Intrasegmental
Rationale: The intrasegmental method of fertilization allows a Cestode segment to self-fertilize, given that Cestodes are hermaphrodites.

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29
Q

The suctorial groove in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is called?

A. Scolex
B. Bothria
C. Uterus
D. Coracidium

A

B. Bothria
Rationale: The suctorial groove located at the mid-ventral part of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is called BOTHRIA.

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30
Q

What is the function of the genital pore in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA?

A. Passage for eggs
B. Attachment to hosts
C. Passage for sperm cells
D. Digestion

A

C. Passage for sperm cells
Rationale: The genital pore serves as the passage for sperm cells.

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31
Q

What shape can the Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA be?

A. Square
B. Spindle-shaped
C. Triangle
D. Circle

A

B. Spindle-shaped
Rationale: The Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA can be spindle-, almond-, spatulate- or spoon-shaped.

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32
Q

The UTERUS of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA can be?

A. Linear
B. Coiled
C. Straight
D. Zigzag

A

B. Coiled
Rationale: The UTERUS can be coiled, piled, or rosette in shape.

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33
Q

How are the eggs of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA when laid?

A. Mature
B. Immature
C. Non-existent
D. Fully developed

A

B. Immature
Rationale: The eggs are immature when laid.

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34
Q

Where does the embryonation of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA eggs take place?

A. In soil
B. In air
C. In water
D. In fire

A

C. In water
Rationale: Embryonation occurs in water.

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35
Q

The embryo of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is known as?

A. Uterus
B. Bothria
C. Scolex
D. Coracidium

A

D. Coracidium
Rationale: The embryo is known as CORACIDIUM.

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36
Q

How many hooklets does the CORACIDIUM have?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

C. 6
Rationale: The CORACIDIUM is ciliated with 6 hooklets.

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37
Q

Larval forms of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA are referred to as?

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Plasma

A

A. Solid
Rationale: Larval forms are referred to as SOLID (Bladder worms).

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38
Q

How many intermediate hosts does PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA have?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2
Rationale: There are 2 intermediate hosts.

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39
Q

The eggs of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA are?
A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Oval ovoid
D. Triangular

A

C. Oval ovoid
Rationale: The eggs are oval ovoid in shape.

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40
Q

Where is the uterine pore located in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA?
A. Midline dorsal side
B. Midline ventral side
C. Lateral side
D. Top side

A

B. Midline ventral side
Rationale: The uterine pore is situated at the midline ventral side of each segment.

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41
Q

What is the function of the uterine pore in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA?
A. Passage for food
B. Passage for waste
C. Passage for sperm cells
D. Passage for eggs

A

D. Passage for eggs
Rationale: The uterine pore serves as the passage for eggs.

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42
Q

Which of the following is a feature of the Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA?
A. Contains two short sucking grooves
B. Contains two long sucking grooves
C. Contains no grooves
D. Contains multiple grooves all over

A

B. Contains two long sucking grooves
Rationale: The Scolex features two long sucking grooves.

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43
Q

What shape is the Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA?

A. Linear
B. Globular
C. Triangular
D. Hexagonal

A

B. Globular
Rationale: The Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA is described as globular or transversely quadrate.

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44
Q

How many ACETABULA does the Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA have?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4
Rationale: The Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA has 4 ACETABULA (cup-like suckers).

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45
Q

What is the Rostellum in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA?

A. A retractable lower part
B. A fixed middle part
C. A retractable upper part
D. A fixed upper part

A

C. A retractable upper part
Rationale: The Rostellum is described as a retractable upper part.

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46
Q

Where is the Genital Pore located in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA?

A. Midline ventral side
B. Lateral margin
C. Midline dorsal side
D. Central part

A

B. Lateral margin
Rationale: The Genital Pore is located at the lateral margin of each segment.

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47
Q

What happens due to the accumulation of eggs in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA?

A. Expansion of the segment’s skin
B. Color change of the segment’s skin
C. Progressive thinning leading to rupture
D. Hardening of the segment’s skin

A

C. Progressive thinning leading to rupture
Rationale: The accumulation of eggs leads to progressive thinning of the segment’s skin, resulting in rupture, a process known as apolysis.

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48
Q

What is the shape of the UTERUS in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA?

A. Circular
B. Triangular
C. Tubular
D. Square

A

C. Tubular
Rationale: The UTERUS in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA is described as tubular.

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49
Q

How are the eggs of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA released?

A. Via osmosis
B. Via apolysis
C. Via diffusion
D. Via secretion

A

B. Via apolysis
Rationale: The eggs are released via a process called apolysis.

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50
Q

What is the covering of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA eggs?

A. 1-layered
B. Nonoperculate with a 2-layered covering
C. Operculate
D. 3-layered

A

B. Nonoperculate with a 2-layered covering
Rationale: The eggs have a nonoperculate covering with 2 layers.

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51
Q

What is the embryo of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA known as?

A. Embryon
B. Oncosphere
C. Embryophore
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C
Rationale: The embryo is known as EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE.

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52
Q

How many hooklets does the EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE have?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

C. 6
Rationale: The EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE is non-ciliated with 6 hooklets.

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53
Q

Which larval stage develops from Coracidium?

A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Procercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Procercoid
Rationale: The Procercoid develops from Coracidium and further develops into the Plerocercoid stage.

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54
Q

What is the shape of the Procercoid?

A) Globular
B) Elongate
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

A

C) Both A and B
Rationale: The Procercoid can be either globular or elongate in shape.

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55
Q

Where is the Scolex of the Procercoid located?

A) Outside its body
B) Invaginated inside its solid body
C) In the fluid-filled cavity
D) At the caudal end

A

B) Invaginated inside its solid body
Rationale: The Scolex of the Procercoid is invaginated inside its solid body.

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56
Q

What is the spherical appendage at the caudal end of the Procercoid called?

A) Bothria
B) Cercomer
C) Brood Capsule
D) Protoscolex

A

B) Cercomer
Rationale: The spherical appendage at the caudal end of the Procercoid is called a Cercomer.

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57
Q

In which host is the Plerocercoid seen?

A) 1st intermediate host
B) 2nd intermediate host
C) Definitive host
D) None of the above

A

B) 2nd intermediate host
Rationale: The Plerocercoid is seen in the 2nd intermediate host.

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58
Q

Which larval stage is infective to humans?

A) Procercoid
B) Plerocercoid
C) Cysticercus
D) Cysticercoid

A

B) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Plerocercoid is the infective larval stage to humans.

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59
Q

Which larval form has a Scolex invaginated in the proximal portion of a large bladder?

A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

A) Cysticercus
Rationale: The Cysticercus, or the true bladder worm, has its Scolex invaginated in the proximal portion of the large bladder.

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60
Q

Which larval form is also known as the “True bladder worm”?

A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

A) Cysticercus
Rationale: The Cysticercus is also known as the “True bladder worm.”

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61
Q

Which larval form has a small vesicle at its anterior part?

A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

B) Cysticercoid
Rationale: The Cysticercoid has a small vesicle at its anterior part.

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62
Q

Which larval form can be as small as a grape or as big as a coke bottle?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

D) Coenurus
Rationale: The Coenurus can vary in size from being as small as a grape to as big as a coke bottle.

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63
Q

What gives rise to protoscolices in the Hydatid and Coenurus larvae?
A) Bothria
B) Cercomer
C) Germinal Epithelium
D) Brood Capsule

A

C) Germinal Epithelium
Rationale: The Germinal Epithelium gives rise to smaller daughter cysts, which then produce protoscolices.

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64
Q

Which larval form contains a potent anaphylatoxin?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

D) Coenurus
Rationale: The Coenurus contains fluid which acts as a potent anaphylatoxin.

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65
Q

Which larval stage follows the Procercoid stage?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Procercoid develops into the Plerocercoid stage.

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66
Q

Which larval form has a Scolex that may be invaginated or free into the neck part?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Plerocercoid’s Scolex can be invaginated or free into the neck part of the larvae.

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67
Q

What is the Brood Capsule associated with?
A) Producing embryonal hooklets
B) Producing smaller cysts within
C) Invaginating the Scolex
D) Protecting the larva from the host’s immune system

A

B) Producing smaller cysts within
Rationale: The Brood Capsule is a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside, which become the protoscolices.

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68
Q

Which larval form is associated with Echinococcus?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

D) Hydatid
Rationale: The Hydatid larva is associated with Echinococcus.

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69
Q

Which larval form has a Scolex equipped with bothria?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Plerocercoid’s Scolex is provided with bothria.

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70
Q

Which larval form resembles a miniature version of the adult worm?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Plerocercoid may look like a miniature of the adult worm with markings of the would-be segments.

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71
Q

Which larval form has its Scolex invaginated within a cavity?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

B) Cysticercoid
Rationale: The Cysticercoid has its Scolex invaginated within a cavity.

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72
Q

Which larval form has a caudal portion that is solid and elongate?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

B) Cysticercoid
Rationale: The Cysticercoid’s caudal portion is solid and elongate.

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73
Q

Which larval form has an inner germinal epithelium layer where protoscolices originate?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Coenurus

A

D) Coenurus
Rationale: The Coenurus has an inner germinal epithelium layer where protoscolices arise and are projected into the fluid-filled cavity.

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74
Q

Which of the following larval forms does the Oncosphere NOT develop into?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Procercoid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Oncosphere develops only into one of the following larval forms, and Plerocercoid is not one of them.

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75
Q

Which larval form is globular-shaped and can contain numerous protoscolices?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid
D) Coenurus

A

D) Coenurus
Rationale: The Coenurus is globular-shaped and can contain plenty of protoscolices.

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76
Q

Which larval form has a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Coenurus

A

D) Coenurus
Rationale: The Coenurus has a Brood Capsule, which is a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside.

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77
Q

Which larval form’s Scolex is located in the neck part of the larvae?
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Plerocercoid
D) Hydatid

A

C) Plerocercoid
Rationale: The Plerocercoid’s Scolex may be invaginated or free into the neck part of the larvae.

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78
Q

Which stage follows the egg in the developmental pattern of tapeworms?

A) Pupa
B) Nymph
C) Larva
D) Juvenile

A

C) Larva
Rationale: The developmental pattern of tapeworms follows the sequence: egg → larva → adult worm.

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79
Q

How many larval transformations do roundworms undergo before becoming adults?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

D) 4
Rationale: Roundworms undergo four larval transformations before reaching adulthood.

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80
Q

For most tapeworms, which species serves as the definitive host?

A) Dogs
B) Fish
C) Humans
D) Cyclops

A

C) Humans
Rationale: For most tapeworms, humans are the definitive host.

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81
Q

For Echinococcus granulosus, who is the definitive host?

A) Humans
B) Dogs
C) Fish
D) Cyclops

A

B) Dogs
Rationale: For Echinococcus granulosus, dogs are the definitive host, while humans are the intermediate host.

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82
Q

In the case of Taenia solium, where can the larval stages develop?

A) Only in dogs
B) Only in humans
C) In both dogs and humans
D) Neither in dogs nor humans

A

B) Only in humans
Rationale: For Taenia solium, humans are the definitive host, but the larval stages can also develop within humans.

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83
Q

How many hosts does Hymenolepis require for its life cycle?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

A

A) One
Rationale: Hymenolepis requires only one host for its life cycle, which is humans.

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84
Q

Which organism serves as the first intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium?

A) Fish
B) Dogs
C) Cyclops
D) Humans

A

C) Cyclops
Rationale: For Diphyllobothrium, the first intermediate host is Cyclops.

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85
Q

Who is the second intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium?

A) Fish
B) Dogs
C) Cyclops
D) Humans

A

A) Fish
Rationale: The second intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium is fish.

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86
Q

Which of the following tapeworms requires three hosts in its life cycle?
A) Hymenolepis
B) Taenia solium
C) Echinococcus granulosus
D) Diphyllobothrium

A

D) Diphyllobothrium
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium requires three hosts in its life cycle: Cyclops, fish, and humans.

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87
Q

What ability contributes to the indefinite lifespan of adult tapeworms?
A) Rapid reproduction
B) Ability to regenerate
C) Resistance to host’s immune system
D) Ability to hibernate

A

B) Ability to regenerate
Rationale: Adult tapeworms have an indefinite lifespan due to their ability to regenerate.

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88
Q

Which stage directly follows the larva in the developmental pattern of tapeworms?
A) Egg
B) Pupa
C) Nymph
D) Adult worm

A

D) Adult worm
Rationale: The developmental pattern of tapeworms is egg → larva → adult worm.

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89
Q

Which tapeworm has humans as both the definitive and intermediate host?
A) Hymenolepis
B) Taenia solium
C) Echinococcus granulosus
D) Diphyllobothrium

A

B) Taenia solium
Rationale: For Taenia solium, humans serve as both the definitive host and the location where larval stages can develop.

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90
Q

Who serves as the definitive host for Diphyllobothrium?
A) Fish
B) Dogs
C) Cyclops
D) Humans

A

D) Humans
Rationale: The definitive host for Diphyllobothrium is humans.

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91
Q

Which tapeworm completes its life cycle in a single host?
A) Hymenolepis
B) Taenia solium
C) Echinococcus granulosus
D) Diphyllobothrium

A

A) Hymenolepis
Rationale: Hymenolepis requires only one host, humans, to complete its life cycle.

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92
Q

What is the typical symptom presentation of tapeworm infections?

A) Symptomatic
B) Asymptomatic
C) Always fatal
D) Always painful

A

B) Asymptomatic
Rationale: Tapeworm infections are generally asymptomatic.

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93
Q

Which worm infection can lead to Bothriocephalus Anemia?

A) H. nana
B) D. latum
C) Cysticercosis
D) Coenurus

A

B) D. latum
Rationale: Bothriocephalus Anemia is seen in individuals infected by D. latum.

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94
Q

What can patients with tapeworm infections complain about related to their anus?

A) Bleeding
B) Pain
C) Passing out of meaty material
D) Swelling

A

C) Passing out of meaty material
Rationale: Patients might report passing proglottids (meaty material) from the anus.

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95
Q

Which tapeworm infection typically resolves on its own within 6 weeks?

A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Dipylidiasis
D) H. nana

A

C) Dipylidiasis
Rationale: Dipylidiasis typically resolves spontaneously within 6 weeks.

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96
Q

Which tapeworm infection can be mistaken for tumors due to the growth of large masses?

A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) H. nana
D) Hydatid and coenurus larva

A

D) Hydatid and coenurus larva
Rationale: The hydatid and coenurus larvae can grow into large masses and be mistaken for tumors.

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97
Q

In which tapeworm infection can ruptured larvae lead to anaphylaxis?

A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae
D) H. nana

A

C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae
Rationale: Rupturing of coenurus and hydatid larvae can lead to anaphylaxis or toxicity.

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98
Q

Which tapeworm infection can lead to cholecystitis?

A) When segments enter the gall bladder
B) When larvae lodge in the brain
C) Due to Bothriocephalus Anemia
D) When segments enter the appendix

A

A) When segments enter the gall bladder
Rationale: Cholecystitis can occur when tapeworm segments enter the gall bladder.

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99
Q

Which tapeworm infection can cause acute appendicitis?

A) When segments enter the gall bladder
B) When larvae lodge in the brain
C) Due to Bothriocephalus Anemia
D) When segments enter the appendix

A

D) When segments enter the appendix
Rationale: Acute appendicitis can occur when tapeworm segments enter the appendix.

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100
Q

Which tapeworm can lead to a heavy worm-load due to the possibility of autoinfection?

A) D. latum
B) Cysticercosis
C) H. nana
D) Coenurus

A

C) H. nana
Rationale: H. nana infections can have a heavy worm-load due to the potential for autoinfection.

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101
Q

Which tapeworm infection can manifest when the brain is affected?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Dipylidiasis
D) H. nana

A

B) Cysticercosis
Rationale: Cysticercosis can manifest when the brain is involved.

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102
Q

What is a common symptom when tapeworm segments migrate?
A) Fever
B) Anal pruritus
C) Nausea
D) Headache

A

B) Anal pruritus
Rationale: Anal pruritus can occur due to migrating tapeworm segments.

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103
Q

Which tapeworm infection can lead to pruritus ani during the day?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Dipylidiasis
D) Adult worm infections

A

D) Adult worm infections
Rationale: Patients with adult worm infections may experience pruritus ani during the day.

104
Q

Which is a more serious problem?
A) Adult worm infections
B) Larval worm infections
C) Both are equally serious
D) Neither is serious

A

B) Larval worm infections
Rationale: Larval worm infections pose a greater threat than adult worm infections.

105
Q

Which tapeworm infection can lead to Bothriocephalus Anemia but is not immediately fatal?
A) H. nana
B) D. latum
C) Cysticercosis
D) Coenurus

A

B) D. latum
Rationale: Bothriocephalus Anemia is seen in 25% of individuals infected by D. latum but is not immediately fatal.

106
Q

Which tapeworm infection can cause mechanical effects when larvae lodge in critical areas?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Dipylidiasis
D) H. nana

A

B) Cysticercosis
Rationale: Cysticercosis can produce mechanical effects, especially when larvae lodge in critical areas like the brain or eyes.

107
Q

Which tapeworm infection is known to cause disturbances that are minimal?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Adult worm infections
D) Larval worm infections

A

C) Adult worm infections
Rationale: Adult worm infections cause only minimal disturbances.

108
Q

Which tapeworm infection can lead to intestinal obstruction?
A) Rarely in any tapeworm infection
B) Commonly in H. nana
C) Commonly in D. latum
D) Commonly in Cysticercosis

A

A) Rarely in any tapeworm infection
Rationale: Intestinal obstruction due to tapeworm infections is very rare.

109
Q

Which tapeworm infection can be mistaken for a tumor?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Hydatid and coenurus larva
D) H. nana

A

C) Hydatid and coenurus larva
Rationale: The hydatid and coenurus larvae can grow into large masses and be mistaken for tumors.

110
Q

Which tapeworm infection can lead to anaphylaxis when ruptured?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae
D) H. nana

A

C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae
Rationale: Rupturing of coenurus and hydatid larvae can lead to anaphylaxis or toxicity.

111
Q

Which tapeworm infection can cause pruritus ani due to migrating segments?
A) Bothriocephalus Anemia
B) Cysticercosis
C) Dipylidiasis
D) Adult worm infections

A

D) Adult worm infections
Rationale: Patients with adult worm infections may experience pruritus ani due to migrating segments.

112
Q

What is another name for Diphyllobothrium Latum?

a) Roundworm
b) Hookworm
c) Broad tapeworm
d) Pinworm

A

c) Broad tapeworm
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum is also known as the broad or fish tapeworm.

113
Q

Which disease is caused by Diphyllobothrium Latum?

a) Ascariasis
b) Diphyllobothriasis
c) Trichinosis
d) Schistosomiasis

A

b) Diphyllobothriasis
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum causes Diphyllobothriasis, also known as broad tapeworm infection or fish tapeworm infection.

114
Q

Where is Diphyllobothrium Latum most commonly found?

a) Tropical regions
b) Desert regions
c) Northern temperate regions
d) Equatorial regions

A

c) Northern temperate regions
Rationale: This tapeworm is more common in northern temperate regions where pickled or undercooked freshwater fish are a dietary staple.

115
Q

In which part of the intestines does Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily reside?

a) Duodenum
b) Jejunum
c) Ileum
d) Colon

A

c) Ileum
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily resides in the walls of the ileum.

116
Q

How long can Diphyllobothrium Latum grow?

a) 1-2 meters
b) 3-10 meters
c) 11-20 meters
d) 21-30 meters

A

b) 3-10 meters
Rationale: The length of Diphyllobothrium Latum typically ranges from 3-10 meters.

117
Q

Which shape best describes the scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum?

a) Round
b) Triangular
c) Spoon-shaped
d) Square

A

c) Spoon-shaped
Rationale: The scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum is spatulate, which means it is spoon-shaped.

118
Q

How is Diphyllobothriasis primarily transmitted?

a) Ingestion of undercooked beef
b) Ingestion of contaminated water
c) Ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva in fish
d) Skin contact with infected soil

A

c) Ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva in fish
Rationale: Transmission occurs through the ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva found in improperly cooked freshwater fish.

119
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Diphyllobothriasis?

a) Weight loss
b) Nausea
c) Itchy skin rash
d) Abdominal discomfort

A

c) Itchy skin rash
Rationale: While weight loss, nausea, and abdominal discomfort are symptoms of Diphyllobothriasis, an itchy skin rash is not associated with this infection.

120
Q

What type of anemia can Diphyllobothrium Latum cause?

a) Iron-deficiency anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Aplastic anemia

A

c) Pernicious anemia
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum can lead to Bothriocephalus anemia, which results in pernicious or megaloblastic anemia due to interference with vitamin B12 absorption.

121
Q

Which part of the egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum allows the coracidium to escape?
a) Shell
b) Yolk
c) Operculum
d) Knob

A

c) Operculum
Rationale: The coracidium escapes from the egg through the operculum.

122
Q

Which of the following is the MOST COMMON 1st intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Diaptomus vulgaris
b) Cyclops strenuous
c) Aedes mosquito
d) Anopheles mosquito

A

a) Diaptomus vulgaris
Rationale: Diaptomus vulgaris is the most common 1st intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum.

123
Q

Which medication is NOT used for the treatment of Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Niclosamide
b) Praziquantel
c) Mebendazole
d) Ivermectin

A

d) Ivermectin
Rationale: While Niclosamide, Praziquantel, and Mebendazole are used for treating Diphyllobothriasis, Ivermectin is not.

124
Q

Why is a laxative added during the treatment of Diphyllobothriasis?
a) To relieve constipation
b) To ensure the complete excretion of the parasite
c) To enhance the effect of the medication
d) To reduce side effects of the medication

A

b) To ensure the complete excretion of the parasite
Rationale: A laxative is added to make sure that the parasite, including its scolex, is excreted intact.

125
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of diagnosing Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Direct fecal smear
b) Blood test
c) Endoscopy
d) Stool exam

A

b) Blood test
Rationale: While direct fecal smear, endoscopy, and stool exam can be used for diagnosis, a blood test is not a primary method for diagnosing Diphyllobothriasis.

126
Q

Which fish is NOT mentioned as a potential source of Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Pike
b) Salmon
c) Tuna
d) Trout

A

c) Tuna
Rationale: Pike, salmon, and trout are mentioned as potential sources of Diphyllobothriasis, but tuna is not.

127
Q

Which part of the tapeworm contains both male and female reproductive organs?
a) Scolex
b) Neck
c) Proglottid
d) Bothria

A

c) Proglottid
Rationale: The mature proglottid of the tapeworm contains both male and female reproductive organs.

128
Q

What is the shape of the scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Round
b) Spatulate
c) Triangular
d) Rectangular

A

b) Spatulate
Rationale: The scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum is spatulate, or spoon-shaped.

129
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Bothriocephalus anemia?
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Megaloblastic anemia
c) High blood pressure
d) Rapid dissociation of vitamin B12 with the intrinsic factor of Castle

A

c) High blood pressure
Rationale: Bothriocephalus anemia is characterized by symptoms related to vitamin B12 deficiency and its effects, but it doesn’t cause high blood pressure.

130
Q

Which part of the tapeworm is responsible for attachment to the host’s intestine?
a) Proglottid
b) Bothria
c) Scolex
d) Neck

A

c) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex of the tapeworm is responsible for attaching to the walls of the host’s intestine.

131
Q

How many eggs can a single Diphyllobothrium Latum worm lay in a day?
a) About a thousand
b) About ten thousand
c) About a hundred thousand
d) About a million

A

d) About a million
Rationale: A single Diphyllobothrium Latum worm can lay approximately a million eggs daily.

132
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Broadly ovoid shape
b) Light brown shell
c) Contains a larva
d) Has an operculum

A

c) Contains a larva
Rationale: The egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum is broadly ovoid with a light brown shell and has an operculum, but it doesn’t contain a larva.

133
Q

Which of the following fish is NOT a common source of Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Pike
b) Catfish
c) Salmon
d) Trout

A

b) Catfish
Rationale: Pike, salmon, and trout are mentioned as potential sources of Diphyllobothriasis, but catfish is not.

134
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Fever
b) Cough
c) Abdominal discomfort
d) Shortness of breath

A

c) Abdominal discomfort
Rationale: Abdominal discomfort is a common symptom of Diphyllobothriasis.

135
Q

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Copepods
b) Freshwater fishes
c) Mosquitoes
d) Diaptomus vulgaris

A

c) Mosquitoes
Rationale: Copepods and freshwater fishes are intermediate hosts for Diphyllobothrium Latum, but mosquitoes are not.

136
Q

What is the primary habitat of Diphyllobothrium Latum in humans?
a) Stomach
b) Liver
c) Small intestines
d) Large intestines

A

c) Small intestines
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily resides in the small intestines of humans.

137
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Ingestion of undercooked freshwater fish
b) Skin contact with contaminated water
c) Drinking contaminated water
d) Eating raw vegetables

A

d) Eating raw vegetables
Rationale: The primary method of transmission for Diphyllobothriasis is through the ingestion of undercooked freshwater fish.

138
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the adult Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Ivory-colored
b) Contains hooks
c) Very long
d) Inhabits the small intestine

A

b) Contains hooks
Rationale: The adult Diphyllobothrium Latum is ivory-colored, very long, and inhabits the small intestine, but it does not have hooks.

139
Q

Which of the following is a common 2nd intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum?
a) Diaptomus vulgaris
b) Cyclops strenuous
c) Pike
d) Aedes mosquito

A

c) Pike
Rationale: Freshwater fishes like pike serve as the 2nd intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum.

140
Q

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat Diphyllobothriasis?
a) Albendazole
b) Niclosamide
c) Ivermectin
d) Metronidazole

A

b) Niclosamide
Rationale: Niclosamide is one of the medications used for treating Diphyllobothriasis.

141
Q

Which of the following is also known as the Beef tapeworm?

A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Taenia asiatica
D) Taenia africana

A

B) Taenia saginata
Rationale: Taenia saginata is commonly referred to as the Beef tapeworm.

142
Q

Which tapeworm causes CYSTICERCOSIS?

A) Taenia saginata
B) Taenia solium
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

B) Taenia solium
Rationale: Only Taenia solium causes CYSTICERCOSIS.

143
Q

Where do the eggs of Taenia spp. mature?

A) In water
B) Inside the host
C) In soil
D) On plants

A

C) In soil
Rationale: The eggs mature in the soil and become infective for the intermediate hosts.

144
Q

Which of the following is an intermediate host for Taenia saginata?

A) Pig
B) Sheep
C) Cow
D) Chicken

A

C) Cow
Rationale: The cow is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata.

145
Q

What develops into Cysticercus bovis?

A) Oncosphere of T. solium in pig tissue
B) Oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue
C) Oncosphere of T. saginata in pig tissue
D) Oncosphere of T. solium in cow tissue

A

B) Oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue
Rationale: The oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue develops into Cysticercus bovis.

146
Q

How does the definitive host acquire the cysticercus larva?

A) Inhalation
B) Skin contact
C) Ingestion of raw beef/pork
D) Blood transfusion

A

C) Ingestion of raw beef/pork
Rationale: The definitive host acquires the cysticercus larva by eating raw beef or pork.

147
Q

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with TAENIASIS?

A) Abdominal discomfort
B) Diarrhea
C) Fever
D) Appetite loss

A

C) Fever
Rationale: Fever is not a typical symptom of TAENIASIS.

148
Q

Which tapeworm can cause infection even without eating infected pork?

A) Taenia saginata
B) Taenia solium
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

B) Taenia solium
Rationale: T. solium can cause infection by ingestion of embryonated eggs from contaminated soil.

149
Q

What is the most common manifestation of cerebral cysticercosis?

A) Memory loss
B) Convulsion
C) Paralysis
D) Migraine

A

B) Convulsion
Rationale: The most common manifestation of cerebral cysticercosis is convulsion.

150
Q

Which diagnostic method is identical for both T. solium and T. saginata?

A) Blood test
B) Direct Fecal Smear
C) Biopsy
D) Urine test

A

B) Direct Fecal Smear
Rationale: Direct Fecal Smear is a diagnostic method used for both T. solium and T. saginata.

151
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of ocular cysticercosis?
A) Hearing loss
B) Flashes of light
C) Cough
D) Joint pain

A

B) Flashes of light
Rationale: Flashes of light are a symptom of ocular cysticercosis.

152
Q

Which tapeworm segment has 15-20 main lateral uterine branches?
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

B) Taenia saginata
Rationale: T. saginata has 15-20 main lateral uterine branches.

153
Q

Which immunologic test can be used to diagnose CYSTICERCOSIS?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) IHA
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
Rationale: ELISA, Western Blot, and IHA are all immunologic tests used for diagnosing CYSTICERCOSIS.

154
Q

Which of the following can lead to both Taeniasis solium and concomitant cysticercosis in an individual simultaneously?
A) Ingestion of raw beef
B) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil
C) Skin contact with infected pork
D) Inhalation of contaminated air

A

B) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil
Rationale: Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil can lead to both Taeniasis solium and concomitant cysticercosis.

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of TAENIASIS?
A) Vague abdominal discomfort
B) Hunger pains
C) High fever
D) Chronic indigestion

A

C) High fever
Rationale: High fever is not listed as a symptom of TAENIASIS.

156
Q

Which of the following tissues is NOT commonly affected by CYSTICERCOSIS?
A) Subcutaneous tissue
B) Intermuscular tissues
C) Adipose tissue
D) Eyes

A

C) Adipose tissue
Rationale: Adipose tissue is not mentioned as a common location for CYSTICERCOSIS.

157
Q

Which of the following is a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen

A

A) Liver
Rationale: The liver is mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

158
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic method for ocular cysticercosis?
A) Blood test
B) Direct Fecal Smear
C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber
D) Urine test

A

C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber
Rationale: Inspection of a whitish or grayish mass in the anterior vitreous chamber is a diagnostic method for ocular cysticercosis.

159
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis?
A) Convulsion
B) Memory loss
C) Palpitations
D) Little disturbance during worm’s life

A

C) Palpitations
Rationale: Palpitations are not listed as a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis.

160
Q

Which tapeworm segment has 7-12 main lateral uterine branches?
A) Taenia solium
B) Taenia saginata
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

A

A) Taenia solium
Rationale: T. solium has 7-12 main lateral uterine branches.

161
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of ocular cysticercosis?
A) Blurring and loss of vision
B) Hearing loss
C) Joint pain
D) Cough

A

A) Blurring and loss of vision
Rationale: Blurring and loss of vision are symptoms of ocular cysticercosis.

162
Q

Which of the following is NOT a location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae?
A) Brain ventricles
B) Spinal cord
C) Bones
D) Heart

A

D) Heart
Rationale: The heart is not mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

163
Q

Which of the following is a diagnostic method for CYSTICERCOSIS?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) IHA
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above
Rationale: ELISA, Western Blot, and IHA are all diagnostic methods for CYSTICERCOSIS.

164
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of TAENIASIS?
A) Vague abdominal discomfort
B) High fever
C) Palpitations
D) Chronic indigestion

A

A) Vague abdominal discomfort
Rationale: Vague abdominal discomfort is a symptom of TAENIASIS.

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of ocular cysticercosis?
A) Flashes of light
B) Blurring and loss of vision
C) Palpitations
D) Discomfort due to shadow cast by the larva

A

C) Palpitations
Rationale: Palpitations are not a symptom of ocular cysticercosis.

166
Q

Which of the following is a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae?
A) Eyes
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Spleen
Answer: A) Eyes

A

A) Eyes
Rationale: The eyes are mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

167
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis?
A) Convulsion
B) Memory loss
C) Palpitations
D) Little disturbance during worm’s life

A

A) Convulsion
Rationale: Convulsion is a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis.

168
Q

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic method for TAENIASIS?
A) Blood test
B) Direct Fecal Smear
C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber
D) Urine test

A

C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber
Rationale: Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber is not a diagnostic method for TAENIASIS.

169
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of TAENIASIS?
A) Vague abdominal discomfort
B) High fever
C) Palpitations
D) Chronic indigestion

A

D) Chronic indigestion
Rationale: Chronic indigestion is a symptom of TAENIASIS.

170
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Cysticercosis?
    a) T. saginata
    b) T. solium
    c) Enterobius vermicularis
    d) Hymenolepis nana
A

b) T. solium
Rationale: Cysticercosis is exclusively caused by T. solium, and not by T. saginata or any other helminths.

171
Q
  1. Which symptom is commonly associated with Cysticercosis?
    a) Neck lumps resembling lymph adenopathy
    b) Abdominal pain
    c) Diarrhea
A

a) Neck lumps resembling lymph adenopathy
Rationale: Patients with Cysticercosis often report neck lumps that resemble lymph adenopathy.

172
Q
  1. Where are Cysticercus cellulosae larvae NOT encysted?
    a) Liver
    b) Eyes
    c) Voluntary muscles
    d) Lungs
A

b) Eyes
Rationale: The larva becomes encased within a fibrous capsule in tissues, but in the eyes, brain ventricles, spinal cord, and bones, the larva remains free-moving and is not encysted.

173
Q
  1. Which cellular response is NOT associated with Cysticercus cellulosae larvae infection?
    a) Infiltration of neutrophils
    b) Fibrosis
    c) Production of mucus
    d) Infiltration of eosinophils
A

c) Production of mucus
Rationale: The larva triggers cellular reactions including infiltration of neutrophils, eosinophils, and others, leading to fibrosis. Mucus production is not a typical response.

174
Q
  1. In which tissue is Cysticercosis often asymptomatic?
    a) Brain
    b) Eyes
    c) Voluntary muscles
    d) Lungs
A

c) Voluntary muscles
Rationale: The infection in subcutaneous and intermuscular tissues, especially voluntary muscles, is often asymptomatic.

175
Q
  1. What can a biopsy of neck lumps in Cysticercosis reveal?
    a) Adult worm
    b) Eggs
    c) Cysticercus larva
    d) Fibrous tissue
A

c) Cysticercus larva
Rationale: A biopsy of the neck lumps in Cysticercosis patients often reveals the presence of cysticercus larva.

176
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a location where Cysticercus cellulosae larvae can be found?
    a) Bones
    b) Brain ventricles
    c) Blood
    d) Eyes
A

c) Blood
Rationale: Cysticercus cellulosae larvae can be found in various organs and tissues, but not typically in the blood.

177
Q
  1. Which cellular reaction leads to the necrosis of the capsule in Cysticercosis?
    a) Infiltration of lymphocytes
    b) Fibrosis
    c) Infiltration of neutrophils
    d) Calcification
A

b) Fibrosis
Rationale: The cellular response to the larva leads to fibrosis, which subsequently results in the necrosis of the capsule.

178
Q
  1. What happens to the Cysticercus cellulosae larvae in most tissues?
    a) They multiply rapidly
    b) They move freely without any barrier
    c) They become encased within a fibrous capsule
    d) They transform into adult worms
A

c) They become encased within a fibrous capsule
Rationale: In most tissues, the Cysticercus cellulosae larvae become surrounded by a fibrous capsule and are encysted.

179
Q

What is another name for Hymenolepis Nana?

A. Giant tapeworm
B. Dwarf tapeworm
C. Long tapeworm
D. Thin tapeworm

A

B. Dwarf tapeworm
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is also known as the Dwarf tapeworm.

180
Q

Which disease is caused by Hymenolepis Nana?

A. Ascariasis
B. Trichinosis
C. Hymenolepsiasis Nana
D. Taeniasis

A

C. Hymenolepsiasis Nana
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana causes the disease Hymenolepsiasis Nana or Dwarf Tapeworm Infection.

181
Q

How long can Hymenolepis Nana measure up to?

A. 20 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 60 mm
D. 80 mm

A

B. 40 mm
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is the shortest cestode infecting humans and can measure up to 40 mm.

182
Q

Where is Hymenolepis Nana most commonly found in humans?

A. Stomach
B. Large intestine
C. Upper 2/3 of the ileum
D. Lower 1/3 of the ileum

A

C. Upper 2/3 of the ileum
Rationale: The habitat of Hymenolepis Nana is the upper 2/3 of the ileum.

183
Q

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate host for Hymenolepis Nana?

A. Rats
B. Pigs
C. Cattle
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is unique in that it does not require an intermediate host. Humans and rats can be definitive hosts.

184
Q

What feature makes it difficult for Hymenolepis Nana to detach from its attachment site?

A. Smooth scolex
B. Armed scolex with a single row of hooklets
C. Long body
D. Multiple rows of hooklets

A

B. Armed scolex with a single row of hooklets
Rationale: The armed scolex with a single row of hooklets makes it harder for the parasite to detach.

185
Q

How is Hymenolepis Nana primarily transmitted?

A. Skin contact
B. Ingestion of embryonated eggs
C. Inhalation
D. Blood transfusion

A

B. Ingestion of embryonated eggs
Rationale: The primary mode of transmission is through the ingestion of embryonated eggs that may contaminate food or drinks.

186
Q

Where do the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana typically hatch?

A. Large intestine
B. Stomach or small intestine
C. Liver
D. Bloodstream

A

B. Stomach or small intestine
Rationale: The eggs hatch in the stomach or small intestine.

187
Q

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Hymenolepis Nana infection?

A. Headache
B. Jaundice
C. Dizziness
D. Abdominal pain

A

B. Jaundice
Rationale: Jaundice is not listed as a symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection.

188
Q

Which diagnostic method is used to identify Hymenolepis Nana?

A. Blood test
B. Direct Fecal Smear
C. Urine test
D. X-ray

A

B. Direct Fecal Smear
Rationale: Direct Fecal Smear is used to demonstrate the egg and differentiate it from other species.

189
Q

Which region has a higher prevalence of Hymenolepis Nana?
A. Cold countries
B. Warm countries
C. Polar regions
D. Desert regions

A

B. Warm countries
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is more common in warm countries than in cold ones.

190
Q

How long does it take for the larva of Hymenolepis Nana to develop into a worm that produces eggs?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks or more
C. 1 month
D. 2 months

A

B. 2 weeks or more
Rationale: In about 2 weeks or more, the larva matures into a worm that produces eggs.

191
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom in children infected with Hymenolepis Nana?
A. High fever
B. Bluish skin discoloration
C. Pruritus of nose and anus
D. Joint pain

A

C. Pruritus of nose and anus
Rationale: Pruritus of the nose and anus is a common symptom in children with the infection.

192
Q

Which of the following can serve as a definitive host for Hymenolepis Nana besides humans?
A. Dogs
B. Cats
C. Rats
D. Birds

A

C. Rats
Rationale: Rats can also serve as a definitive host for the parasite.

193
Q

What is the lifespan of Hymenolepis Nana in the human body?
A. Several days
B. Several weeks
C. Several months
D. Several years

A

B. Several weeks
Rationale: The parasite has a lifespan of about several weeks in the human body.

194
Q

Which part of the small intestine does the oncosphere of Hymenolepis Nana penetrate?
A. Posterior part
B. Middle part
C. Anterior part
D. None of the above

A

C. Anterior part
Rationale: The oncosphere penetrates the submucosa of the anterior part of the small intestine.

195
Q

How are the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana released?
A. Through digestion
B. Through apolysis
C. Through exocytosis
D. Through osmosis

A

B. Through apolysis
Rationale: The eggs are released through apolysis.

196
Q

Which of the following is a possible mode of transmission for Hymenolepis Nana?
A. Contaminated food or water
B. Airborne transmission
C. Skin-to-skin contact
D. Blood transfusion

A

A. Contaminated food or water
Rationale: Contaminated food or water is a less frequent mode of transmission for the parasite.

197
Q

In which state is Hymenolepis Nana a common tapeworm in humans?
A. Alaska
B. Texas
C. Hawaii
D. New York

A

C. Hawaii
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is a common tapeworm of humans in Hawaii.

198
Q

Which of the following insects may serve as accidental intermediate hosts for Hymenolepis Nana?
A. Mosquitoes
B. Flies
C. Cockroaches
D. Bedbugs

A

B. Flies
Rationale: Insects, such as flies, may serve as accidental intermediate hosts.

199
Q

What is the primary reason for the manifestation of symptoms in Hymenolepis Nana infection?
A. Heavy worm load
B. Allergic reactions
C. Bacterial co-infection
D. Viral co-infection

A

B. Allergic reactions
Rationale: The infection is usually well-tolerated, but manifestations often arise due to allergic reactions.

200
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of autoinfection for Hymenolepis Nana?
A. External autoinfection
B. Internal autoinfection
C. Bloodborne autoinfection
D. Respiratory autoinfection

A

C. Bloodborne autoinfection
Rationale: Bloodborne autoinfection is not a method of autoinfection for Hymenolepis Nana.

201
Q

Where does the larva of Hymenolepis Nana attach its scolex?
A. Mucosal wall of the small intestine
B. Mucosal wall of the large intestine
C. Stomach lining
D. Liver

A

A. Mucosal wall of the small intestine
Rationale: The larva attaches its scolex to the mucosal wall of the small intestine.

202
Q

Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in children with Hymenolepis Nana infection?
A. Jaundice
B. Periodic diarrhea
C. High fever
D. Joint pain

A

B. Periodic diarrhea
Rationale: Periodic diarrhea is a common symptom in children with the infection.

203
Q

How does the oncosphere of Hymenolepis Nana develop after penetrating the submucosa?
A. Into an adult worm
B. Into a cysticercoid larva
C. Into an egg
D. Into a pupa

A

B. Into a cysticercoid larva
Rationale: After penetrating the submucosa, the oncosphere develops into a cysticercoid larva.

204
Q

Which of the following is a common symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection?
A. Bluish skin discoloration
B. Anorexia
C. High fever
D. Joint pain

A

B. Anorexia
Rationale: Anorexia is a common symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection.

205
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for Hymenolepis Nana among children?
A. Insect bites
B. Contaminated water
C. Hands-to-mouth transfer
D. Airborne transmission

A

C. Hands-to-mouth transfer
Rationale: Hands-to-mouth transfer is a great possibility of external autoinfection, especially among children.

206
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Hymenolepis Nana’s scolex?
A. Armed
B. Smooth
C. Single row of hooklets
D. Attachment site

A

B. Smooth
Rationale: The scolex of Hymenolepis Nana is armed with a single row of hooklets.

207
Q

Which of the following regions has the least prevalence of Hymenolepis Nana?
A. Warm countries
B. Cold countries
C. Tropical rainforests
D. Coastal regions

A

B. Cold countries
Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is more common in warm countries than in cold ones.

208
Q

How are the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana primarily released from the worm?
A. Digestion
B. Apolysis
C. Exocytosis
D. Osmosis

A

B. Apolysis
Rationale: The eggs are primarily released from the worm through apolysis.

209
Q

Which of the following is an alternative name for Echinococcus Granulosus?

a) Liver fluke
b) Roundworm
c) Hydatid worm
d) Tapeworm

A

c) Hydatid worm
Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is also known as the Hydatid worm.

210
Q

Echinococcus Granulosus causes which of the following diseases?

a) Ascariasis
b) Schistosomiasis
c) Unilocular Echinococcosis
d) Trichinosis

A

c) Unilocular Echinococcosis
Rationale: This helminth causes Unilocular Echinococcosis, also known as Hydatid Disease.

211
Q

Which animal is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus?

a) Sheep
b) Dogs
c) Wolves
d) Jackals

A

a) Sheep
Rationale: Sheep are intermediate hosts, while dogs, wolves, and jackals are definitive hosts.

212
Q

In which organ do humans typically NOT harbor the adult worms of Echinococcus Granulosus?

a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Small intestine
d) Brain

A

c) Small intestine
Rationale: Humans do not host the adult worms. The infection in humans is characterized by the presence of hydatid larvae in various tissues.

213
Q

How many segments does the Echinococcus Granulosus worm typically have?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

A

b) Three
Rationale: The worm comprises three segments in addition to the scolex: immature, mature, and gravid.

214
Q

Which of the following animals is NOT an intermediate host for Echinococcus Granulosus?

a) Sheep
b) Goats
c) Dogs
d) Camels

A

c) Dogs
Rationale: Dogs are definitive hosts, while sheep, goats, and camels are intermediate hosts.

215
Q

Where does the hydatid larva mature into an adult worm?

a) Duodenum
b) Ileum of the dog
c) Mesenteric venules
d) Liver

A

b) Ileum of the dog
Rationale: The hydatid larva matures into an adult worm in the dog’s ileum.

216
Q

Which of the following cycles involves the formation of a hydatid cyst in wild ungulates like moose and reindeer?

a) Pastoral Cycle
b) Sylvatic Cycle
c) Life Cycle
d) Carnivore Cycle

A

b) Sylvatic Cycle
Rationale: The Sylvatic Cycle involves the formation of hydatid cysts in wild ungulates.

217
Q

During which phase of life is a human typically infected with Echinococcus Granulosus?

a) Infancy
b) Adolescence
c) Adulthood
d) Childhood

A

d) Childhood
Rationale: Infection in humans typically begins during childhood, a time often associated with unhygienic habits.

218
Q

Which diagnostic imaging technique is NOT used to detect Echinococcus Granulosus infection?

a) X-ray
b) CT scan
c) MRI
d) PET scan

A

d) PET scan
Rationale: Common diagnostic imaging techniques include X-ray, CT scan, and MRI. PET scan is not typically used for this purpos

219
Q

What is often referred to as “hydatid sand”?
a) Brood capsules
b) Daughter cysts
c) Protoscolices
d) Hydatid fluid

A

c) Protoscolices
Rationale: Protoscolices, when viewed under a microscope after staining, are often described as “hydatid sand”.

220
Q

Which test detects host antibodies against the hydatid cyst but is rarely used today due to the risk of inducing an anaphylactic reaction?
a) ELISA
b) PCR
c) Casoni’s Skin Test
d) Blood culture

A

c) Casoni’s Skin Test
Rationale: Casoni’s Skin Test detects host antibodies against the hydatid cyst. However, it’s rarely used today because of the associated risks.

221
Q

Which serologic test is commonly used for the diagnosis of Echinococcus Granulosus infection?
a) Western Blot
b) PCR
c) Blood culture
d) ELISA

A

d) ELISA
Rationale: ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a common serologic test used for diagnosis.

222
Q

In which organ can a cyst persist for up to 30 years without showing noticeable symptoms?
a) Brain
b) Lungs
c) Liver
d) Kidneys

A

c) Liver
Rationale: A cyst located at the liver’s dome can grow slowly and persist for up to 30 years without noticeable symptoms.

223
Q

Which of the following is NOT an early symptom of a lung cyst caused by Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Slight hemoptysis
b) Cough
c) Dyspnea
d) Jaundice

A

d) Jaundice
Rationale: Jaundice is a symptom associated with liver cysts, not lung cysts.

224
Q

On an X-ray, a larva of Echinococcus Granulosus might be mistaken for which of the following conditions?
a) Pneumonia
b) Malignancy
c) Asthma
d) Bronchitis

A

b) Malignancy
Rationale: On X-ray, the larva might appear as a solitary lesion, which can be mistaken for malignancy.

225
Q

Which test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm?
a) ELISA
b) PCR
c) Casoni’s Skin Test
d) Blood culture

A

c) Casoni’s Skin Test
Rationale: Casoni’s Skin Test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm.

226
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic symptom of liver cyst obstruction caused by Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Intermittent jaundice
b) Fever
c) Eosinophilia
d) Hemoptysis

A

d) Hemoptysis
Rationale: Hemoptysis is an early symptom of a lung cyst, not a liver cyst.

227
Q

Which of the following animals is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus in the Sylvatic Cycle?
a) Moose
b) Reindeer
c) Wolves
d) Sheep

A

d) Sheep
Rationale: In the Sylvatic Cycle, sheep are intermediate hosts, not definitive hosts.

228
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Echinococcus Granulosus in humans?
a) Ingestion of eggs
b) Hand-to-mouth transfer
c) Inhalation of spores
d) Contamination from infected dog fur

A

c) Inhalation of spores
Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is transmitted mainly through ingestion of eggs, often transferred from hand to mouth, and not through inhalation of spores.

229
Q

Which diagnostic method involves staining and observing under a microscope to identify “hydatid sand”?
a) X-ray
b) CT scan
c) Laboratory examination of hydatid cyst fluid
d) MRI

A

c) Laboratory examination of hydatid cyst fluid
Rationale: Protoscolices, when viewed under a microscope after staining, are often described as “hydatid sand”.

230
Q

Which of the following is NOT a location where humans can harbor the hydatid larvae of Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
c) Brain
d) Heart

A

d) Heart
Rationale: While the liver, lungs, and brain are common locations for hydatid larvae, the heart is not typically a location where humans harbor the larvae.

231
Q

Which of the following cycles involves the formation of a hydatid cyst in sheep?
a) Pastoral Cycle
b) Sylvatic Cycle
c) Life Cycle
d) Carnivore Cycle

A

a) Pastoral Cycle
Rationale: The Pastoral Cycle involves the formation of hydatid cysts in herbivores like sheep.

232
Q

Which of the following is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus in the Pastoral Cycle?
a) Dogs
b) Wolves
c) Sheep
d) Jackals

A

c) Sheep
Rationale: In the Pastoral Cycle, sheep are intermediate hosts, not definitive hosts.

233
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT typically used for detecting Echinococcus Granulosus infection?
a) X-ray
b) Blood culture
c) CT scan
d) MRI

A

b) Blood culture
Rationale: While X-ray, CT scan, and MRI are common diagnostic methods, blood culture is not typically used for this purpose.

234
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of a lung cyst caused by Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Cough
b) Dyspnea
c) Hemoptysis
d) Jaundice

A

d) Jaundice
Rationale: Jaundice is a symptom associated with liver cysts, not lung cysts.

235
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from the soil
b) Consumption of undercooked infected meat
c) Hand-to-mouth transfer
d) Contamination from infected dog fur

A

b) Consumption of undercooked infected meat
Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is not typically transmitted through the consumption of undercooked infected meat.

236
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods involves the use of hydatid fluid that’s been lyophilized (freeze-dried)?
a) ELISA
b) PCR
c) Casoni’s Skin Test
d) Blood culture

A

c) Casoni’s Skin Test
Rationale: Casoni’s Skin Test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm.

237
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Echinococcus Granulosus?
a) Causes Unilocular Echinococcosis
b) Resides in the small intestines of carnivores
c) Humans host the adult worms
d) Has three segments in addition to the scolex

A

c) Humans host the adult worms
Rationale: Humans do not host the adult worms of Echinococcus Granulosus. The infection in humans is characterized by the presence of hydatid larvae in various tissues.

238
Q

What does the Casoni’s Skin Test detect?

a) Presence of bacterial infection
b) Host antibodies against the hydatid cyst
c) Level of glucose in the blood
d) Presence of fungal infection

A

b) Host antibodies against the hydatid cyst
Rationale: The Casoni’s Skin Test is designed to detect host antibodies against the hydatid cyst.

239
Q

What is injected intradermally in the Casoni’s Skin Test?

a) Live bacteria
b) Lyophilized hydatid fluid
c) Saline solution
d) Blood plasma

A

b) Lyophilized hydatid fluid
Rationale: The test involves using hydatid fluid (either from animals or humans) that’s been lyophilized (freeze-dried) and then injected intradermally.

240
Q

What is the typical result of a positive Casoni’s Skin Test after 1-2 days?

a) Red rash
b) Wheal formation
c) Blistering
d) No visible change

A

b) Wheal formation
Rationale: A positive result in the Casoni’s Skin Test is indicated by the formation of a wheal after 1-2 days.

241
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes causes Hydatid disease in humans?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

D) Echinococcus granulosus
Rationale: Echinococcus granulosus is responsible for Hydatid disease, where humans can develop cysts in various organs due to the larval stage of the parasite.

242
Q
  1. Which cestode is acquired by humans through the ingestion of improperly cooked freshwater fishes?

A) Taenia solium
B) Diphyllobothrium latum
C) Hymenolepis nana
D) Dipyllidium caninum

A

B) Diphyllobothrium latum
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum infection occurs when humans consume plerocercoid larvae present in improperly cooked freshwater fishes.

243
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes has an armed scolex?

A) Taenia saginata
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B
Rationale: Both Taenia solium and Echinococcus granulosus have an armed scolex.

244
Q
  1. Which cestode infection can result from consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis diminuta
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

B) Hymenolepis diminuta
Rationale: Hymenolepis diminuta infection in humans occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.

245
Q
  1. Which cestode is known for potential autoinfection in humans?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

B) Hymenolepis nana
Rationale: Hymenolepis nana can cause autoinfection, where a person can get re-infected without being exposed to external sources of contamination.

246
Q
  1. Visceral Larva Migrans is associated with which cestode?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

D) Echinococcus granulosus
Rationale: In the context provided, Echinococcus granulosus is associated with Visceral Larva Migrans, where the infection in humans is limited to the larval stage.

247
Q
  1. Which cestode is NOT acquired via ingestion of larval stages?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

D) Echinococcus granulosus
Rationale: Echinococcus granulosus is acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs, not larval stages.

248
Q
  1. Which cestode is associated with cysticercus larva in infected pork?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

A) Taenia solium
Rationale: Taenia solium infection occurs by consuming cysticercus larvae present in infected pork.

249
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes is acquired by humans through the ingestion of embryonated eggs from contaminated food or drinks?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

B) Hymenolepis nana
Rationale: Hymenolepis nana infection can occur from consuming embryonated eggs from contaminated food or drinks.

250
Q
  1. Which cestode is NOT known to have an armed scolex?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

C) Diphyllobothrium latum
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum does not have an armed scolex, unlike the other options listed.

251
Q
  1. Which cestode is associated with cysticercoid larva in fleas?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis diminuta
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Dipyllidium caninum

A

D) Dipyllidium caninum
Rationale: Dipyllidium caninum infection occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.

252
Q
  1. Which cestode infection is NOT acquired via ingestion of larval stages?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

B) Hymenolepis nana
Rationale: Hymenolepis nana is acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs, not larval stages.

253
Q
  1. Which cestode is associated with plerocercoid larvae?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

C) Diphyllobothrium latum
Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with plerocercoid larvae, which are present in the flesh of improperly cooked freshwater fishes.

254
Q
  1. Which cestode is NOT acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Echinococcus granulosus

A

A) Taenia solium
Rationale: Taenia solium is acquired via ingestion of cysticercus larva in infected pork, not embryonated eggs.

255
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes is known for causing infection in humans through the ingestion of cysticercoid larvae present in fleas?

A) Taenia solium
B) Hymenolepis diminuta
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Dipyllidium caninum

A

B) Hymenolepis diminuta
Rationale: Hymenolepis diminuta infection in humans occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.

MICRO/PARA (15 decks)

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