LE 2- Cestodes

Question 1

What does the term “kestos” mean in Greek?

A) Anchor
B) Worm
C) Girdle or Ribbon
D) Segment

Answer 1

C) Girdle or Ribbon
Rationale: The term “kestos” is derived from Greek and means “girdle” or “ribbon”, which describes the appearance of Cestodes.

Question 2

Which of the following best describes Cestodes?

A) Single-segmented round worms
B) Multisegmented tape-like worms
C) Spiral worms
D) Hooked worms

Answer 2

B) Multisegmented tape-like worms
Rationale: Cestodes are multisegmented, dorsoventrally flattened tape-like worms.

Question 3

Where are adult Cestodes primarily found in humans?

A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Small intestines
D) Large intestines

Answer 3

C) Small intestines
Rationale: Adult worms of Cestodes predominantly inhabit the small intestines of humans.

Question 4

What are the egg-producing units in Cestodes called?

A) Ovules
B) Proglottids
C) Larvae
D) Cysts

Answer 4

B) Proglottids
Rationale: Cestodes consist of chains of egg-producing units termed “proglottids” or segments.

Question 5

Which part of the adult worm serves as an organ of attachment to the host’s intestinal mucosa?

A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Scolex
D) Proglottid

Answer 5

C) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, is the primary organ that latches onto the intestinal mucosa of the definitive host.

Question 6

Which segment of the Cestode contains both male and female reproductive organs?

A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

Answer 6

C) Mature segments
Rationale: Mature segments evolve from immature ones and boast fully developed internal and reproductive structures, containing both male and female reproductive organs.

Question 7

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for the continuous generation of proglottids?

A) Scolex
B) Neck
C) Strobila
D) Gravid segment

Answer 7

B) Neck
Rationale: The neck, located right after the scolex, is the growth region where proglottids are continuously produced.

Question 8

Which segment of the Cestode is predominantly occupied by a uterus filled with eggs?

A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) None of the above

Answer 8

C) Gravid segments
Rationale: Gravid segments are the segments following mature ones and are predominantly occupied by a uterus brimming with eggs.

Question 9

What function do the microtriches in Cestodes serve?

A) Reproduction
B) Movement
C) Absorption of nutrients
D) Excretion

Answer 9

C) Absorption of nutrients
Rationale: Nutrients are absorbed from the surroundings via the skin or integument of Cestodes equipped with microtriches, which operate similarly to intestinal villi.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a method of fertilization in Cestodes?
A) Intrasegmental
B) Intersegmental
C) Interworm
D) Interspecies

Answer 10

D) Interspecies
Rationale: Fertilization in cestodes can occur in three distinct manners: Intrasegmental, Intersegmental, and Interworm. Interspecies is not mentioned as a method of fertilization.

Question 11

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host?
A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Scolex
D) Proglottid

Answer 11

C) Scolex
Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, acts as an anchor and provides orientation.

Question 12

Which segment of the Cestode lacks well-developed reproductive organs?
A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

Answer 12

A) Immature segments
Rationale: Immature segments originate from the neck’s distal end and lack well-developed reproductive organs.

Question 13

Cestodes have an indirect life cycle. What does this mean?
A) They do not require a host to complete their life cycle.
B) They require only one host to complete their life cycle.
C) They require multiple hosts to complete their life cycle.
D) Their life cycle is not dependent on environmental factors.

Answer 13

C) They require multiple hosts to complete their life cycle.
Rationale: An indirect life cycle means that the parasites utilize an intermediate host in addition to the definitive host to complete their life cycle.

Question 14

Which part of the Cestode serves as the nervous system?
A) Microtriches
B) Proglottids
C) Ganglion cell
D) Solenocytes

Answer 14

C) Ganglion cell
Rationale: The ganglion cell acts as the nervous system for Cestodes and is situated in the scolex.

Question 15

Which cells in Cestodes are connected to capillaries and play a role in excretion?
A) Microtriches
B) Ganglion cells
C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
D) Proglottids

Answer 15

C) Solenocytes (flame cells)
Rationale: Solenocytes, also known as flame cells, are connected to capillaries and play a crucial role in the excretion process of Cestodes.

Question 16

How do Cestodes obtain their nutrients?
A) Through a specialized mouth
B) Through their reproductive organs
C) By absorbing food from the environment through their skin
D) Through specialized tentacles

Answer 16

C) By absorbing food from the environment through their skin
Rationale: Cestodes lack internal structures functioning as an intestinal tract. They absorb nutrients from the surroundings via their skin.

Question 17

Which of the following segments of Cestodes contains reproductive organs that are NOT well-developed?
A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) All of the above

Answer 17

A) Immature segments
Rationale: Immature segments of Cestodes develop from the distal end of the neck and have reproductive organs that are not well-developed.

Question 18

Which segment of the Cestode is completely occupied by the uterus filled with eggs?
A) Immature segments
B) Mature segments
C) Gravid segments
D) None of the above

Answer 18

C) Gravid segments
Rationale: Gravid segments are the segments following mature ones and are predominantly occupied by a uterus brimming with eggs.

Question 19

Which part of the Cestode is responsible for the continuous generation of proglottids?
A) Scolex
B) Neck
C) Strobila
D) Gravid segment

Answer 19

B) Neck
Rationale: The neck, located right after the scolex, is the growth region where proglottids are continuously produced.

Question 20

Which of the following structures in Cestodes function similarly to intestinal villi?
A) Ganglion cells
B) Solenocytes
C) Microtriches
D) Proglottids

Answer 20

C) Microtriches
Rationale: Microtriches in Cestodes operate similarly to intestinal villi, aiding in the absorption of nutrients from the surroundings.

Question 21

Which segment of the Cestode contains fully developed internal and reproductive structures?
A) Immature segments
B) Gravid segments
C) Mature segments
D) All of the above

Answer 21

C) Mature segments
Rationale: Mature segments evolve from immature ones and boast fully developed internal and reproductive structures.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Cestodes?
A) They are single-segmented.
B) They have an indirect life cycle.
C) They are dorsoventrally flattened.
D) They are tape-like worms.

Answer 22

A) They are single-segmented.
Rationale: Cestodes are multisegmented, dorsoventrally flattened tape-like worms.

Question 23

Which part of the Cestode is located immediately after the scolex?
A) Neck
B) Strobila
C) Proglottid
D) Gravid segment

Answer 23

A) Neck
Rationale: The neck is the part of the Cestode that is located immediately after the scolex.

Question 24

Which of the following structures in Cestodes serves as an absorptive structure?
A) Ganglion cell
B) Solenocytes
C) Entire skin
D) Proglottids

Answer 24

C) Entire skin
Rationale: The entire skin of Cestodes acts as an absorptive structure, allowing them to absorb nutrients from the surroundings.

Question 25

Which of the following segments of Cestodes is NOT well-differentiated in terms of internal structures? A) Immature segments B) Mature segments C) Gravid segments D) All of the above

Answer 25

A) Immature segments Rationale: Immature segments of Cestodes develop from the distal end of the neck and lack well-differentiated internal structures.

Question 26

Which cells in Cestodes are connected to capillaries? A) Microtriches B) Ganglion cells C) Solenocytes (flame cells) D) Proglottids

Answer 26

C) Solenocytes (flame cells) Rationale: Solenocytes, also known as flame cells, are connected to capillaries in Cestodes.

Question 27

Which of the following structures in Cestodes is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host? A) Neck B) Strobila C) Scolex D) Proglottid

Answer 27

C) Scolex Rationale: The scolex, or the head of the adult worm, is responsible for orientation and anchoring to the host's intestinal mucosa.

Question 28

Which of the following methods allows a Cestode segment to self-fertilize? A) Intrasegmental B) Intersegmental C) Interworm D) Interspecies

Answer 28

A) Intrasegmental Rationale: The intrasegmental method of fertilization allows a Cestode segment to self-fertilize, given that Cestodes are hermaphrodites.

Question 29

The suctorial groove in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is called? A. Scolex B. Bothria C. Uterus D. Coracidium

Answer 29

B. Bothria Rationale: The suctorial groove located at the mid-ventral part of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is called BOTHRIA.

Question 30

What is the function of the genital pore in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA? A. Passage for eggs B. Attachment to hosts C. Passage for sperm cells D. Digestion

Answer 30

C. Passage for sperm cells Rationale: The genital pore serves as the passage for sperm cells.

Question 31

What shape can the Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA be? A. Square B. Spindle-shaped C. Triangle D. Circle

Answer 31

B. Spindle-shaped Rationale: The Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA can be spindle-, almond-, spatulate- or spoon-shaped.

Question 32

The UTERUS of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA can be? A. Linear B. Coiled C. Straight D. Zigzag

Answer 32

B. Coiled Rationale: The UTERUS can be coiled, piled, or rosette in shape.

Question 33

How are the eggs of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA when laid? A. Mature B. Immature C. Non-existent D. Fully developed

Answer 33

B. Immature Rationale: The eggs are immature when laid.

Question 34

Where does the embryonation of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA eggs take place? A. In soil B. In air C. In water D. In fire

Answer 34

C. In water Rationale: Embryonation occurs in water.

Question 35

The embryo of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA is known as? A. Uterus B. Bothria C. Scolex D. Coracidium

Answer 35

D. Coracidium Rationale: The embryo is known as CORACIDIUM.

Question 36

How many hooklets does the CORACIDIUM have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

Answer 36

C. 6 Rationale: The CORACIDIUM is ciliated with 6 hooklets.

Question 37

Larval forms of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA are referred to as? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Plasma

Answer 37

A. Solid Rationale: Larval forms are referred to as SOLID (Bladder worms).

Question 38

How many intermediate hosts does PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer 38

B. 2 Rationale: There are 2 intermediate hosts.

Question 39

The eggs of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA are? A. Square B. Rectangular C. Oval ovoid D. Triangular

Answer 39

C. Oval ovoid Rationale: The eggs are oval ovoid in shape.

Question 40

Where is the uterine pore located in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA? A. Midline dorsal side B. Midline ventral side C. Lateral side D. Top side

Answer 40

B. Midline ventral side Rationale: The uterine pore is situated at the midline ventral side of each segment.

Question 41

What is the function of the uterine pore in PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA? A. Passage for food B. Passage for waste C. Passage for sperm cells D. Passage for eggs

Answer 41

D. Passage for eggs Rationale: The uterine pore serves as the passage for eggs.

Question 42

Which of the following is a feature of the Scolex of PSEUDOPHYLLIDEA? A. Contains two short sucking grooves B. Contains two long sucking grooves C. Contains no grooves D. Contains multiple grooves all over

Answer 42

B. Contains two long sucking grooves Rationale: The Scolex features two long sucking grooves.

Question 43

What shape is the Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA? A. Linear B. Globular C. Triangular D. Hexagonal

Answer 43

B. Globular Rationale: The Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA is described as globular or transversely quadrate.

Question 44

How many ACETABULA does the Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Answer 44

C. 4 Rationale: The Scolex of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA has 4 ACETABULA (cup-like suckers).

Question 45

What is the Rostellum in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA? A. A retractable lower part B. A fixed middle part C. A retractable upper part D. A fixed upper part

Answer 45

C. A retractable upper part Rationale: The Rostellum is described as a retractable upper part.

Question 46

Where is the Genital Pore located in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA? A. Midline ventral side B. Lateral margin C. Midline dorsal side D. Central part

Answer 46

B. Lateral margin Rationale: The Genital Pore is located at the lateral margin of each segment.

Question 47

What happens due to the accumulation of eggs in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA? A. Expansion of the segment's skin B. Color change of the segment's skin C. Progressive thinning leading to rupture D. Hardening of the segment's skin

Answer 47

C. Progressive thinning leading to rupture Rationale: The accumulation of eggs leads to progressive thinning of the segment's skin, resulting in rupture, a process known as apolysis.

Question 48

What is the shape of the UTERUS in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA? A. Circular B. Triangular C. Tubular D. Square

Answer 48

C. Tubular Rationale: The UTERUS in CYCLOPHYLLIDEA is described as tubular.

Question 49

How are the eggs of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA released? A. Via osmosis B. Via apolysis C. Via diffusion D. Via secretion

Answer 49

B. Via apolysis Rationale: The eggs are released via a process called apolysis.

Question 50

What is the covering of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA eggs? A. 1-layered B. Nonoperculate with a 2-layered covering C. Operculate D. 3-layered

Answer 50

B. Nonoperculate with a 2-layered covering Rationale: The eggs have a nonoperculate covering with 2 layers.

Question 51

What is the embryo of CYCLOPHYLLIDEA known as? A. Embryon B. Oncosphere C. Embryophore D. Both B and C

Answer 51

D. Both B and C Rationale: The embryo is known as EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE.

Question 52

How many hooklets does the EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE have? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

Answer 52

C. 6 Rationale: The EMBRYOPHORE or ONCOSPHERE is non-ciliated with 6 hooklets.

Question 53

Which larval stage develops from Coracidium? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Procercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 53

C) Procercoid Rationale: The Procercoid develops from Coracidium and further develops into the Plerocercoid stage.

Question 54

What is the shape of the Procercoid? A) Globular B) Elongate C) Both A and B D) None of the above

Answer 54

C) Both A and B Rationale: The Procercoid can be either globular or elongate in shape.

Question 55

Where is the Scolex of the Procercoid located? A) Outside its body B) Invaginated inside its solid body C) In the fluid-filled cavity D) At the caudal end

Answer 55

B) Invaginated inside its solid body Rationale: The Scolex of the Procercoid is invaginated inside its solid body.

Question 56

What is the spherical appendage at the caudal end of the Procercoid called? A) Bothria B) Cercomer C) Brood Capsule D) Protoscolex

Answer 56

B) Cercomer Rationale: The spherical appendage at the caudal end of the Procercoid is called a Cercomer.

Question 57

In which host is the Plerocercoid seen? A) 1st intermediate host B) 2nd intermediate host C) Definitive host D) None of the above

Answer 57

B) 2nd intermediate host Rationale: The Plerocercoid is seen in the 2nd intermediate host.

Question 58

Which larval stage is infective to humans? A) Procercoid B) Plerocercoid C) Cysticercus D) Cysticercoid

Answer 58

B) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Plerocercoid is the infective larval stage to humans.

Question 59

Which larval form has a Scolex invaginated in the proximal portion of a large bladder? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 59

A) Cysticercus Rationale: The Cysticercus, or the true bladder worm, has its Scolex invaginated in the proximal portion of the large bladder.

Question 60

Which larval form is also known as the "True bladder worm"? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 60

A) Cysticercus Rationale: The Cysticercus is also known as the "True bladder worm."

Question 61

Which larval form has a small vesicle at its anterior part? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 61

B) Cysticercoid Rationale: The Cysticercoid has a small vesicle at its anterior part.

Question 62

Which larval form can be as small as a grape or as big as a coke bottle? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 62

D) Coenurus Rationale: The Coenurus can vary in size from being as small as a grape to as big as a coke bottle.

Question 63

What gives rise to protoscolices in the Hydatid and Coenurus larvae? A) Bothria B) Cercomer C) Germinal Epithelium D) Brood Capsule

Answer 63

C) Germinal Epithelium Rationale: The Germinal Epithelium gives rise to smaller daughter cysts, which then produce protoscolices.

Question 64

Which larval form contains a potent anaphylatoxin? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 64

D) Coenurus Rationale: The Coenurus contains fluid which acts as a potent anaphylatoxin.

Question 65

Which larval stage follows the Procercoid stage? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 65

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Procercoid develops into the Plerocercoid stage.

Question 66

Which larval form has a Scolex that may be invaginated or free into the neck part? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 66

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Plerocercoid's Scolex can be invaginated or free into the neck part of the larvae.

Question 67

What is the Brood Capsule associated with? A) Producing embryonal hooklets B) Producing smaller cysts within C) Invaginating the Scolex D) Protecting the larva from the host's immune system

Answer 67

B) Producing smaller cysts within Rationale: The Brood Capsule is a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside, which become the protoscolices.

Question 68

Which larval form is associated with Echinococcus? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 68

D) Hydatid Rationale: The Hydatid larva is associated with Echinococcus.

Question 69

Which larval form has a Scolex equipped with bothria? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 69

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Plerocercoid's Scolex is provided with bothria.

Question 70

Which larval form resembles a miniature version of the adult worm? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 70

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Plerocercoid may look like a miniature of the adult worm with markings of the would-be segments.

Question 71

Which larval form has its Scolex invaginated within a cavity? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 71

B) Cysticercoid Rationale: The Cysticercoid has its Scolex invaginated within a cavity.

Question 72

Which larval form has a caudal portion that is solid and elongate? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 72

B) Cysticercoid Rationale: The Cysticercoid's caudal portion is solid and elongate.

Question 73

Which larval form has an inner germinal epithelium layer where protoscolices originate? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Coenurus

Answer 73

D) Coenurus Rationale: The Coenurus has an inner germinal epithelium layer where protoscolices arise and are projected into the fluid-filled cavity.

Question 74

Which of the following larval forms does the Oncosphere NOT develop into? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Procercoid

Answer 74

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Oncosphere develops only into one of the following larval forms, and Plerocercoid is not one of them.

Question 75

Which larval form is globular-shaped and can contain numerous protoscolices? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Hydatid D) Coenurus

Answer 75

D) Coenurus Rationale: The Coenurus is globular-shaped and can contain plenty of protoscolices.

Question 76

Which larval form has a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Coenurus

Answer 76

D) Coenurus Rationale: The Coenurus has a Brood Capsule, which is a detached daughter cyst that produces smaller cysts inside.

Question 77

Which larval form's Scolex is located in the neck part of the larvae? A) Cysticercus B) Cysticercoid C) Plerocercoid D) Hydatid

Answer 77

C) Plerocercoid Rationale: The Plerocercoid's Scolex may be invaginated or free into the neck part of the larvae.

Question 78

Which stage follows the egg in the developmental pattern of tapeworms? A) Pupa B) Nymph C) Larva D) Juvenile

Answer 78

C) Larva Rationale: The developmental pattern of tapeworms follows the sequence: egg → larva → adult worm.

Question 79

How many larval transformations do roundworms undergo before becoming adults? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Answer 79

D) 4 Rationale: Roundworms undergo four larval transformations before reaching adulthood.

Question 80

For most tapeworms, which species serves as the definitive host? A) Dogs B) Fish C) Humans D) Cyclops

Answer 80

C) Humans Rationale: For most tapeworms, humans are the definitive host.

Question 81

For Echinococcus granulosus, who is the definitive host? A) Humans B) Dogs C) Fish D) Cyclops

Answer 81

B) Dogs Rationale: For Echinococcus granulosus, dogs are the definitive host, while humans are the intermediate host.

Question 82

In the case of Taenia solium, where can the larval stages develop? A) Only in dogs B) Only in humans C) In both dogs and humans D) Neither in dogs nor humans

Answer 82

B) Only in humans Rationale: For Taenia solium, humans are the definitive host, but the larval stages can also develop within humans.

Question 83

How many hosts does Hymenolepis require for its life cycle? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

Answer 83

A) One Rationale: Hymenolepis requires only one host for its life cycle, which is humans.

Question 84

Which organism serves as the first intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium? A) Fish B) Dogs C) Cyclops D) Humans

Answer 84

C) Cyclops Rationale: For Diphyllobothrium, the first intermediate host is Cyclops.

Question 85

Who is the second intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium? A) Fish B) Dogs C) Cyclops D) Humans

Answer 85

A) Fish Rationale: The second intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium is fish.

Question 86

Which of the following tapeworms requires three hosts in its life cycle? A) Hymenolepis B) Taenia solium C) Echinococcus granulosus D) Diphyllobothrium

Answer 86

D) Diphyllobothrium Rationale: Diphyllobothrium requires three hosts in its life cycle: Cyclops, fish, and humans.

Question 87

What ability contributes to the indefinite lifespan of adult tapeworms? A) Rapid reproduction B) Ability to regenerate C) Resistance to host's immune system D) Ability to hibernate

Answer 87

B) Ability to regenerate Rationale: Adult tapeworms have an indefinite lifespan due to their ability to regenerate.

Question 88

Which stage directly follows the larva in the developmental pattern of tapeworms? A) Egg B) Pupa C) Nymph D) Adult worm

Answer 88

D) Adult worm Rationale: The developmental pattern of tapeworms is egg → larva → adult worm.

Question 89

Which tapeworm has humans as both the definitive and intermediate host? A) Hymenolepis B) Taenia solium C) Echinococcus granulosus D) Diphyllobothrium

Answer 89

B) Taenia solium Rationale: For Taenia solium, humans serve as both the definitive host and the location where larval stages can develop.

Question 90

Who serves as the definitive host for Diphyllobothrium? A) Fish B) Dogs C) Cyclops D) Humans

Answer 90

D) Humans Rationale: The definitive host for Diphyllobothrium is humans.

Question 91

Which tapeworm completes its life cycle in a single host? A) Hymenolepis B) Taenia solium C) Echinococcus granulosus D) Diphyllobothrium

Answer 91

A) Hymenolepis Rationale: Hymenolepis requires only one host, humans, to complete its life cycle.

Question 92

What is the typical symptom presentation of tapeworm infections? A) Symptomatic B) Asymptomatic C) Always fatal D) Always painful

Answer 92

B) Asymptomatic Rationale: Tapeworm infections are generally asymptomatic.

Question 93

Which worm infection can lead to Bothriocephalus Anemia? A) H. nana B) D. latum C) Cysticercosis D) Coenurus

Answer 93

B) D. latum Rationale: Bothriocephalus Anemia is seen in individuals infected by D. latum.

Question 94

What can patients with tapeworm infections complain about related to their anus? A) Bleeding B) Pain C) Passing out of meaty material D) Swelling

Answer 94

C) Passing out of meaty material Rationale: Patients might report passing proglottids (meaty material) from the anus.

Question 95

Which tapeworm infection typically resolves on its own within 6 weeks? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Dipylidiasis D) H. nana

Answer 95

C) Dipylidiasis Rationale: Dipylidiasis typically resolves spontaneously within 6 weeks.

Question 96

Which tapeworm infection can be mistaken for tumors due to the growth of large masses? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) H. nana D) Hydatid and coenurus larva

Answer 96

D) Hydatid and coenurus larva Rationale: The hydatid and coenurus larvae can grow into large masses and be mistaken for tumors.

Question 97

In which tapeworm infection can ruptured larvae lead to anaphylaxis? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae D) H. nana

Answer 97

C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae Rationale: Rupturing of coenurus and hydatid larvae can lead to anaphylaxis or toxicity.

Question 98

Which tapeworm infection can lead to cholecystitis? A) When segments enter the gall bladder B) When larvae lodge in the brain C) Due to Bothriocephalus Anemia D) When segments enter the appendix

Answer 98

A) When segments enter the gall bladder Rationale: Cholecystitis can occur when tapeworm segments enter the gall bladder.

Question 99

Which tapeworm infection can cause acute appendicitis? A) When segments enter the gall bladder B) When larvae lodge in the brain C) Due to Bothriocephalus Anemia D) When segments enter the appendix

Answer 99

D) When segments enter the appendix Rationale: Acute appendicitis can occur when tapeworm segments enter the appendix.

Question 100

Which tapeworm can lead to a heavy worm-load due to the possibility of autoinfection? A) D. latum B) Cysticercosis C) H. nana D) Coenurus

Answer 100

C) H. nana Rationale: H. nana infections can have a heavy worm-load due to the potential for autoinfection.

Question 101

Which tapeworm infection can manifest when the brain is affected? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Dipylidiasis D) H. nana

Answer 101

B) Cysticercosis Rationale: Cysticercosis can manifest when the brain is involved.

Question 102

What is a common symptom when tapeworm segments migrate? A) Fever B) Anal pruritus C) Nausea D) Headache

Answer 102

B) Anal pruritus Rationale: Anal pruritus can occur due to migrating tapeworm segments.

Question 103

Which tapeworm infection can lead to pruritus ani during the day? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Dipylidiasis D) Adult worm infections

Answer 103

D) Adult worm infections Rationale: Patients with adult worm infections may experience pruritus ani during the day.

Question 104

Which is a more serious problem? A) Adult worm infections B) Larval worm infections C) Both are equally serious D) Neither is serious

Answer 104

B) Larval worm infections Rationale: Larval worm infections pose a greater threat than adult worm infections.

Question 105

Which tapeworm infection can lead to Bothriocephalus Anemia but is not immediately fatal? A) H. nana B) D. latum C) Cysticercosis D) Coenurus

Answer 105

B) D. latum Rationale: Bothriocephalus Anemia is seen in 25% of individuals infected by D. latum but is not immediately fatal.

Question 106

Which tapeworm infection can cause mechanical effects when larvae lodge in critical areas? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Dipylidiasis D) H. nana

Answer 106

B) Cysticercosis Rationale: Cysticercosis can produce mechanical effects, especially when larvae lodge in critical areas like the brain or eyes.

Question 107

Which tapeworm infection is known to cause disturbances that are minimal? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Adult worm infections D) Larval worm infections

Answer 107

C) Adult worm infections Rationale: Adult worm infections cause only minimal disturbances.

Question 108

Which tapeworm infection can lead to intestinal obstruction? A) Rarely in any tapeworm infection B) Commonly in H. nana C) Commonly in D. latum D) Commonly in Cysticercosis

Answer 108

A) Rarely in any tapeworm infection Rationale: Intestinal obstruction due to tapeworm infections is very rare.

Question 109

Which tapeworm infection can be mistaken for a tumor? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Hydatid and coenurus larva D) H. nana

Answer 109

C) Hydatid and coenurus larva Rationale: The hydatid and coenurus larvae can grow into large masses and be mistaken for tumors.

Question 110

Which tapeworm infection can lead to anaphylaxis when ruptured? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae D) H. nana

Answer 110

C) Coenurus and hydatid larvae Rationale: Rupturing of coenurus and hydatid larvae can lead to anaphylaxis or toxicity.

Question 111

Which tapeworm infection can cause pruritus ani due to migrating segments? A) Bothriocephalus Anemia B) Cysticercosis C) Dipylidiasis D) Adult worm infections

Answer 111

D) Adult worm infections Rationale: Patients with adult worm infections may experience pruritus ani due to migrating segments.

Question 112

What is another name for Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Roundworm b) Hookworm c) Broad tapeworm d) Pinworm

Answer 112

c) Broad tapeworm Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum is also known as the broad or fish tapeworm.

Question 113

Which disease is caused by Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Ascariasis b) Diphyllobothriasis c) Trichinosis d) Schistosomiasis

Answer 113

b) Diphyllobothriasis Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum causes Diphyllobothriasis, also known as broad tapeworm infection or fish tapeworm infection.

Question 114

Where is Diphyllobothrium Latum most commonly found? a) Tropical regions b) Desert regions c) Northern temperate regions d) Equatorial regions

Answer 114

c) Northern temperate regions Rationale: This tapeworm is more common in northern temperate regions where pickled or undercooked freshwater fish are a dietary staple.

Question 115

In which part of the intestines does Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily reside? a) Duodenum b) Jejunum c) Ileum d) Colon

Answer 115

c) Ileum Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily resides in the walls of the ileum.

Question 116

How long can Diphyllobothrium Latum grow? a) 1-2 meters b) 3-10 meters c) 11-20 meters d) 21-30 meters

Answer 116

b) 3-10 meters Rationale: The length of Diphyllobothrium Latum typically ranges from 3-10 meters.

Question 117

Which shape best describes the scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Round b) Triangular c) Spoon-shaped d) Square

Answer 117

c) Spoon-shaped Rationale: The scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum is spatulate, which means it is spoon-shaped.

Question 118

How is Diphyllobothriasis primarily transmitted? a) Ingestion of undercooked beef b) Ingestion of contaminated water c) Ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva in fish d) Skin contact with infected soil

Answer 118

c) Ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva in fish Rationale: Transmission occurs through the ingestion of plerocercoid or sparganum larva found in improperly cooked freshwater fish.

Question 119

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Diphyllobothriasis? a) Weight loss b) Nausea c) Itchy skin rash d) Abdominal discomfort

Answer 119

c) Itchy skin rash Rationale: While weight loss, nausea, and abdominal discomfort are symptoms of Diphyllobothriasis, an itchy skin rash is not associated with this infection.

Question 120

What type of anemia can Diphyllobothrium Latum cause? a) Iron-deficiency anemia b) Hemolytic anemia c) Pernicious anemia d) Aplastic anemia

Answer 120

c) Pernicious anemia Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum can lead to Bothriocephalus anemia, which results in pernicious or megaloblastic anemia due to interference with vitamin B12 absorption.

Question 121

Which part of the egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum allows the coracidium to escape? a) Shell b) Yolk c) Operculum d) Knob

Answer 121

c) Operculum Rationale: The coracidium escapes from the egg through the operculum.

Question 122

Which of the following is the MOST COMMON 1st intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Diaptomus vulgaris b) Cyclops strenuous c) Aedes mosquito d) Anopheles mosquito

Answer 122

a) Diaptomus vulgaris Rationale: Diaptomus vulgaris is the most common 1st intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum.

Question 123

Which medication is NOT used for the treatment of Diphyllobothriasis? a) Niclosamide b) Praziquantel c) Mebendazole d) Ivermectin

Answer 123

d) Ivermectin Rationale: While Niclosamide, Praziquantel, and Mebendazole are used for treating Diphyllobothriasis, Ivermectin is not.

Question 124

Why is a laxative added during the treatment of Diphyllobothriasis? a) To relieve constipation b) To ensure the complete excretion of the parasite c) To enhance the effect of the medication d) To reduce side effects of the medication

Answer 124

b) To ensure the complete excretion of the parasite Rationale: A laxative is added to make sure that the parasite, including its scolex, is excreted intact.

Question 125

Which of the following is NOT a method of diagnosing Diphyllobothriasis? a) Direct fecal smear b) Blood test c) Endoscopy d) Stool exam

Answer 125

b) Blood test Rationale: While direct fecal smear, endoscopy, and stool exam can be used for diagnosis, a blood test is not a primary method for diagnosing Diphyllobothriasis.

Question 126

Which fish is NOT mentioned as a potential source of Diphyllobothriasis? a) Pike b) Salmon c) Tuna d) Trout

Answer 126

c) Tuna Rationale: Pike, salmon, and trout are mentioned as potential sources of Diphyllobothriasis, but tuna is not.

Question 127

Which part of the tapeworm contains both male and female reproductive organs? a) Scolex b) Neck c) Proglottid d) Bothria

Answer 127

c) Proglottid Rationale: The mature proglottid of the tapeworm contains both male and female reproductive organs.

Question 128

What is the shape of the scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Round b) Spatulate c) Triangular d) Rectangular

Answer 128

b) Spatulate Rationale: The scolex of Diphyllobothrium Latum is spatulate, or spoon-shaped.

Question 129

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Bothriocephalus anemia? a) Vitamin B12 deficiency b) Megaloblastic anemia c) High blood pressure d) Rapid dissociation of vitamin B12 with the intrinsic factor of Castle

Answer 129

c) High blood pressure Rationale: Bothriocephalus anemia is characterized by symptoms related to vitamin B12 deficiency and its effects, but it doesn't cause high blood pressure.

Question 130

Which part of the tapeworm is responsible for attachment to the host's intestine? a) Proglottid b) Bothria c) Scolex d) Neck

Answer 130

c) Scolex Rationale: The scolex of the tapeworm is responsible for attaching to the walls of the host's intestine.

Question 131

How many eggs can a single Diphyllobothrium Latum worm lay in a day? a) About a thousand b) About ten thousand c) About a hundred thousand d) About a million

Answer 131

d) About a million Rationale: A single Diphyllobothrium Latum worm can lay approximately a million eggs daily.

Question 132

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Broadly ovoid shape b) Light brown shell c) Contains a larva d) Has an operculum

Answer 132

c) Contains a larva Rationale: The egg of Diphyllobothrium Latum is broadly ovoid with a light brown shell and has an operculum, but it doesn't contain a larva.

Question 133

Which of the following fish is NOT a common source of Diphyllobothriasis? a) Pike b) Catfish c) Salmon d) Trout

Answer 133

b) Catfish Rationale: Pike, salmon, and trout are mentioned as potential sources of Diphyllobothriasis, but catfish is not.

Question 134

Which of the following is a common symptom of Diphyllobothriasis? a) Fever b) Cough c) Abdominal discomfort d) Shortness of breath

Answer 134

c) Abdominal discomfort Rationale: Abdominal discomfort is a common symptom of Diphyllobothriasis.

Question 135

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Copepods b) Freshwater fishes c) Mosquitoes d) Diaptomus vulgaris

Answer 135

c) Mosquitoes Rationale: Copepods and freshwater fishes are intermediate hosts for Diphyllobothrium Latum, but mosquitoes are not.

Question 136

What is the primary habitat of Diphyllobothrium Latum in humans? a) Stomach b) Liver c) Small intestines d) Large intestines

Answer 136

c) Small intestines Rationale: Diphyllobothrium Latum primarily resides in the small intestines of humans.

Question 137

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Diphyllobothriasis? a) Ingestion of undercooked freshwater fish b) Skin contact with contaminated water c) Drinking contaminated water d) Eating raw vegetables

Answer 137

d) Eating raw vegetables Rationale: The primary method of transmission for Diphyllobothriasis is through the ingestion of undercooked freshwater fish.

Question 138

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the adult Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Ivory-colored b) Contains hooks c) Very long d) Inhabits the small intestine

Answer 138

b) Contains hooks Rationale: The adult Diphyllobothrium Latum is ivory-colored, very long, and inhabits the small intestine, but it does not have hooks.

Question 139

Which of the following is a common 2nd intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum? a) Diaptomus vulgaris b) Cyclops strenuous c) Pike d) Aedes mosquito

Answer 139

c) Pike Rationale: Freshwater fishes like pike serve as the 2nd intermediate host for Diphyllobothrium Latum.

Question 140

Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat Diphyllobothriasis? a) Albendazole b) Niclosamide c) Ivermectin d) Metronidazole

Answer 140

b) Niclosamide Rationale: Niclosamide is one of the medications used for treating Diphyllobothriasis.

Question 141

Which of the following is also known as the Beef tapeworm? A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Taenia asiatica D) Taenia africana

Answer 141

B) Taenia saginata Rationale: Taenia saginata is commonly referred to as the Beef tapeworm.

Question 142

Which tapeworm causes CYSTICERCOSIS? A) Taenia saginata B) Taenia solium C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 142

B) Taenia solium Rationale: Only Taenia solium causes CYSTICERCOSIS.

Question 143

Where do the eggs of Taenia spp. mature? A) In water B) Inside the host C) In soil D) On plants

Answer 143

C) In soil Rationale: The eggs mature in the soil and become infective for the intermediate hosts.

Question 144

Which of the following is an intermediate host for Taenia saginata? A) Pig B) Sheep C) Cow D) Chicken

Answer 144

C) Cow Rationale: The cow is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata.

Question 145

What develops into Cysticercus bovis? A) Oncosphere of T. solium in pig tissue B) Oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue C) Oncosphere of T. saginata in pig tissue D) Oncosphere of T. solium in cow tissue

Answer 145

B) Oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue Rationale: The oncosphere of T. saginata in cow tissue develops into Cysticercus bovis.

Question 146

How does the definitive host acquire the cysticercus larva? A) Inhalation B) Skin contact C) Ingestion of raw beef/pork D) Blood transfusion

Answer 146

C) Ingestion of raw beef/pork Rationale: The definitive host acquires the cysticercus larva by eating raw beef or pork.

Question 147

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with TAENIASIS? A) Abdominal discomfort B) Diarrhea C) Fever D) Appetite loss

Answer 147

C) Fever Rationale: Fever is not a typical symptom of TAENIASIS.

Question 148

Which tapeworm can cause infection even without eating infected pork? A) Taenia saginata B) Taenia solium C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 148

B) Taenia solium Rationale: T. solium can cause infection by ingestion of embryonated eggs from contaminated soil.

Question 149

What is the most common manifestation of cerebral cysticercosis? A) Memory loss B) Convulsion C) Paralysis D) Migraine

Answer 149

B) Convulsion Rationale: The most common manifestation of cerebral cysticercosis is convulsion.

Question 150

Which diagnostic method is identical for both T. solium and T. saginata? A) Blood test B) Direct Fecal Smear C) Biopsy D) Urine test

Answer 150

B) Direct Fecal Smear Rationale: Direct Fecal Smear is a diagnostic method used for both T. solium and T. saginata.

Question 151

Which of the following is a symptom of ocular cysticercosis? A) Hearing loss B) Flashes of light C) Cough D) Joint pain

Answer 151

B) Flashes of light Rationale: Flashes of light are a symptom of ocular cysticercosis.

Question 152

Which tapeworm segment has 15-20 main lateral uterine branches? A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 152

B) Taenia saginata Rationale: T. saginata has 15-20 main lateral uterine branches.

Question 153

Which immunologic test can be used to diagnose CYSTICERCOSIS? A) ELISA B) Western Blot C) IHA D) All of the above

Answer 153

D) All of the above Rationale: ELISA, Western Blot, and IHA are all immunologic tests used for diagnosing CYSTICERCOSIS.

Question 154

Which of the following can lead to both Taeniasis solium and concomitant cysticercosis in an individual simultaneously? A) Ingestion of raw beef B) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil C) Skin contact with infected pork D) Inhalation of contaminated air

Answer 154

B) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil Rationale: Ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil can lead to both Taeniasis solium and concomitant cysticercosis.

Question 155

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of TAENIASIS? A) Vague abdominal discomfort B) Hunger pains C) High fever D) Chronic indigestion

Answer 155

C) High fever Rationale: High fever is not listed as a symptom of TAENIASIS.

Question 156

Which of the following tissues is NOT commonly affected by CYSTICERCOSIS? A) Subcutaneous tissue B) Intermuscular tissues C) Adipose tissue D) Eyes

Answer 156

C) Adipose tissue Rationale: Adipose tissue is not mentioned as a common location for CYSTICERCOSIS.

Question 157

Which of the following is a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae? A) Liver B) Kidneys C) Pancreas D) Spleen

Answer 157

A) Liver Rationale: The liver is mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

Question 158

Which of the following is a diagnostic method for ocular cysticercosis? A) Blood test B) Direct Fecal Smear C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber D) Urine test

Answer 158

C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber Rationale: Inspection of a whitish or grayish mass in the anterior vitreous chamber is a diagnostic method for ocular cysticercosis.

Question 159

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis? A) Convulsion B) Memory loss C) Palpitations D) Little disturbance during worm’s life

Answer 159

C) Palpitations Rationale: Palpitations are not listed as a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis.

Question 160

Which tapeworm segment has 7-12 main lateral uterine branches? A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

Answer 160

A) Taenia solium Rationale: T. solium has 7-12 main lateral uterine branches.

Question 161

Which of the following is a symptom of ocular cysticercosis? A) Blurring and loss of vision B) Hearing loss C) Joint pain D) Cough

Answer 161

A) Blurring and loss of vision Rationale: Blurring and loss of vision are symptoms of ocular cysticercosis.

Question 162

Which of the following is NOT a location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae? A) Brain ventricles B) Spinal cord C) Bones D) Heart

Answer 162

D) Heart Rationale: The heart is not mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

Question 163

Which of the following is a diagnostic method for CYSTICERCOSIS? A) ELISA B) Western Blot C) IHA D) All of the above

Answer 163

D) All of the above Rationale: ELISA, Western Blot, and IHA are all diagnostic methods for CYSTICERCOSIS.

Question 164

Which of the following is a symptom of TAENIASIS? A) Vague abdominal discomfort B) High fever C) Palpitations D) Chronic indigestion

Answer 164

A) Vague abdominal discomfort Rationale: Vague abdominal discomfort is a symptom of TAENIASIS.

Question 165

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of ocular cysticercosis? A) Flashes of light B) Blurring and loss of vision C) Palpitations D) Discomfort due to shadow cast by the larva

Answer 165

C) Palpitations Rationale: Palpitations are not a symptom of ocular cysticercosis.

Question 166

Which of the following is a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae? A) Eyes B) Kidneys C) Liver D) Spleen Answer: A) Eyes

Answer 166

A) Eyes Rationale: The eyes are mentioned as a common location for Cysticercus cellulosae larvae.

Question 167

Which of the following is a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis? A) Convulsion B) Memory loss C) Palpitations D) Little disturbance during worm’s life

Answer 167

A) Convulsion Rationale: Convulsion is a symptom of cerebral cysticercosis.

Question 168

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic method for TAENIASIS? A) Blood test B) Direct Fecal Smear C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber D) Urine test

Answer 168

C) Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber Rationale: Inspection of the anterior vitreous chamber is not a diagnostic method for TAENIASIS.

Question 169

Which of the following is a symptom of TAENIASIS? A) Vague abdominal discomfort B) High fever C) Palpitations D) Chronic indigestion

Answer 169

D) Chronic indigestion Rationale: Chronic indigestion is a symptom of TAENIASIS.

Question 170

1. What is the causative agent of Cysticercosis? a) T. saginata b) T. solium c) Enterobius vermicularis d) Hymenolepis nana

Answer 170

b) T. solium Rationale: Cysticercosis is exclusively caused by T. solium, and not by T. saginata or any other helminths.

Question 171

2. Which symptom is commonly associated with Cysticercosis? a) Neck lumps resembling lymph adenopathy b) Abdominal pain c) Diarrhea

Answer 171

a) Neck lumps resembling lymph adenopathy Rationale: Patients with Cysticercosis often report neck lumps that resemble lymph adenopathy.

Question 172

3. Where are Cysticercus cellulosae larvae NOT encysted? a) Liver b) Eyes c) Voluntary muscles d) Lungs

Answer 172

b) Eyes Rationale: The larva becomes encased within a fibrous capsule in tissues, but in the eyes, brain ventricles, spinal cord, and bones, the larva remains free-moving and is not encysted.

Question 173

4. Which cellular response is NOT associated with Cysticercus cellulosae larvae infection? a) Infiltration of neutrophils b) Fibrosis c) Production of mucus d) Infiltration of eosinophils

Answer 173

c) Production of mucus Rationale: The larva triggers cellular reactions including infiltration of neutrophils, eosinophils, and others, leading to fibrosis. Mucus production is not a typical response.

Question 174

5. In which tissue is Cysticercosis often asymptomatic? a) Brain b) Eyes c) Voluntary muscles d) Lungs

Answer 174

c) Voluntary muscles Rationale: The infection in subcutaneous and intermuscular tissues, especially voluntary muscles, is often asymptomatic.

Question 175

6. What can a biopsy of neck lumps in Cysticercosis reveal? a) Adult worm b) Eggs c) Cysticercus larva d) Fibrous tissue

Answer 175

c) Cysticercus larva Rationale: A biopsy of the neck lumps in Cysticercosis patients often reveals the presence of cysticercus larva.

Question 176

7. Which of the following is NOT a location where Cysticercus cellulosae larvae can be found? a) Bones b) Brain ventricles c) Blood d) Eyes

Answer 176

c) Blood Rationale: Cysticercus cellulosae larvae can be found in various organs and tissues, but not typically in the blood.

Question 177

8. Which cellular reaction leads to the necrosis of the capsule in Cysticercosis? a) Infiltration of lymphocytes b) Fibrosis c) Infiltration of neutrophils d) Calcification

Answer 177

b) Fibrosis Rationale: The cellular response to the larva leads to fibrosis, which subsequently results in the necrosis of the capsule.

Question 178

0. What happens to the Cysticercus cellulosae larvae in most tissues? a) They multiply rapidly b) They move freely without any barrier c) They become encased within a fibrous capsule d) They transform into adult worms

Answer 178

c) They become encased within a fibrous capsule Rationale: In most tissues, the Cysticercus cellulosae larvae become surrounded by a fibrous capsule and are encysted.

Question 179

What is another name for Hymenolepis Nana? A. Giant tapeworm B. Dwarf tapeworm C. Long tapeworm D. Thin tapeworm

Answer 179

B. Dwarf tapeworm Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is also known as the Dwarf tapeworm.

Question 180

Which disease is caused by Hymenolepis Nana? A. Ascariasis B. Trichinosis C. Hymenolepsiasis Nana D. Taeniasis

Answer 180

C. Hymenolepsiasis Nana Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana causes the disease Hymenolepsiasis Nana or Dwarf Tapeworm Infection.

Question 181

How long can Hymenolepis Nana measure up to? A. 20 mm B. 40 mm C. 60 mm D. 80 mm

Answer 181

B. 40 mm Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is the shortest cestode infecting humans and can measure up to 40 mm.

Question 182

Where is Hymenolepis Nana most commonly found in humans? A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Upper 2/3 of the ileum D. Lower 1/3 of the ileum

Answer 182

C. Upper 2/3 of the ileum Rationale: The habitat of Hymenolepis Nana is the upper 2/3 of the ileum.

Question 183

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate host for Hymenolepis Nana? A. Rats B. Pigs C. Cattle D. None of the above

Answer 183

D. None of the above Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is unique in that it does not require an intermediate host. Humans and rats can be definitive hosts.

Question 184

What feature makes it difficult for Hymenolepis Nana to detach from its attachment site? A. Smooth scolex B. Armed scolex with a single row of hooklets C. Long body D. Multiple rows of hooklets

Answer 184

B. Armed scolex with a single row of hooklets Rationale: The armed scolex with a single row of hooklets makes it harder for the parasite to detach.

Question 185

How is Hymenolepis Nana primarily transmitted? A. Skin contact B. Ingestion of embryonated eggs C. Inhalation D. Blood transfusion

Answer 185

B. Ingestion of embryonated eggs Rationale: The primary mode of transmission is through the ingestion of embryonated eggs that may contaminate food or drinks.

Question 186

Where do the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana typically hatch? A. Large intestine B. Stomach or small intestine C. Liver D. Bloodstream

Answer 186

B. Stomach or small intestine Rationale: The eggs hatch in the stomach or small intestine.

Question 187

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Hymenolepis Nana infection? A. Headache B. Jaundice C. Dizziness D. Abdominal pain

Answer 187

B. Jaundice Rationale: Jaundice is not listed as a symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection.

Question 188

Which diagnostic method is used to identify Hymenolepis Nana? A. Blood test B. Direct Fecal Smear C. Urine test D. X-ray

Answer 188

B. Direct Fecal Smear Rationale: Direct Fecal Smear is used to demonstrate the egg and differentiate it from other species.

Question 189

Which region has a higher prevalence of Hymenolepis Nana? A. Cold countries B. Warm countries C. Polar regions D. Desert regions

Answer 189

B. Warm countries Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is more common in warm countries than in cold ones.

Question 190

How long does it take for the larva of Hymenolepis Nana to develop into a worm that produces eggs? A. 1 week B. 2 weeks or more C. 1 month D. 2 months

Answer 190

B. 2 weeks or more Rationale: In about 2 weeks or more, the larva matures into a worm that produces eggs.

Question 191

Which of the following is a common symptom in children infected with Hymenolepis Nana? A. High fever B. Bluish skin discoloration C. Pruritus of nose and anus D. Joint pain

Answer 191

C. Pruritus of nose and anus Rationale: Pruritus of the nose and anus is a common symptom in children with the infection.

Question 192

Which of the following can serve as a definitive host for Hymenolepis Nana besides humans? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Rats D. Birds

Answer 192

C. Rats Rationale: Rats can also serve as a definitive host for the parasite.

Question 193

What is the lifespan of Hymenolepis Nana in the human body? A. Several days B. Several weeks C. Several months D. Several years

Answer 193

B. Several weeks Rationale: The parasite has a lifespan of about several weeks in the human body.

Question 194

Which part of the small intestine does the oncosphere of Hymenolepis Nana penetrate? A. Posterior part B. Middle part C. Anterior part D. None of the above

Answer 194

C. Anterior part Rationale: The oncosphere penetrates the submucosa of the anterior part of the small intestine.

Question 195

How are the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana released? A. Through digestion B. Through apolysis C. Through exocytosis D. Through osmosis

Answer 195

B. Through apolysis Rationale: The eggs are released through apolysis.

Question 196

Which of the following is a possible mode of transmission for Hymenolepis Nana? A. Contaminated food or water B. Airborne transmission C. Skin-to-skin contact D. Blood transfusion

Answer 196

A. Contaminated food or water Rationale: Contaminated food or water is a less frequent mode of transmission for the parasite.

Question 197

In which state is Hymenolepis Nana a common tapeworm in humans? A. Alaska B. Texas C. Hawaii D. New York

Answer 197

C. Hawaii Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is a common tapeworm of humans in Hawaii.

Question 198

Which of the following insects may serve as accidental intermediate hosts for Hymenolepis Nana? A. Mosquitoes B. Flies C. Cockroaches D. Bedbugs

Answer 198

B. Flies Rationale: Insects, such as flies, may serve as accidental intermediate hosts.

Question 199

What is the primary reason for the manifestation of symptoms in Hymenolepis Nana infection? A. Heavy worm load B. Allergic reactions C. Bacterial co-infection D. Viral co-infection

Answer 199

B. Allergic reactions Rationale: The infection is usually well-tolerated, but manifestations often arise due to allergic reactions.

Question 200

Which of the following is NOT a method of autoinfection for Hymenolepis Nana? A. External autoinfection B. Internal autoinfection C. Bloodborne autoinfection D. Respiratory autoinfection

Answer 200

C. Bloodborne autoinfection Rationale: Bloodborne autoinfection is not a method of autoinfection for Hymenolepis Nana.

Question 201

Where does the larva of Hymenolepis Nana attach its scolex? A. Mucosal wall of the small intestine B. Mucosal wall of the large intestine C. Stomach lining D. Liver

Answer 201

A. Mucosal wall of the small intestine Rationale: The larva attaches its scolex to the mucosal wall of the small intestine.

Question 202

Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in children with Hymenolepis Nana infection? A. Jaundice B. Periodic diarrhea C. High fever D. Joint pain

Answer 202

B. Periodic diarrhea Rationale: Periodic diarrhea is a common symptom in children with the infection.

Question 203

How does the oncosphere of Hymenolepis Nana develop after penetrating the submucosa? A. Into an adult worm B. Into a cysticercoid larva C. Into an egg D. Into a pupa

Answer 203

B. Into a cysticercoid larva Rationale: After penetrating the submucosa, the oncosphere develops into a cysticercoid larva.

Question 204

Which of the following is a common symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection? A. Bluish skin discoloration B. Anorexia C. High fever D. Joint pain

Answer 204

B. Anorexia Rationale: Anorexia is a common symptom of Hymenolepis Nana infection.

Question 205

What is the primary mode of transmission for Hymenolepis Nana among children? A. Insect bites B. Contaminated water C. Hands-to-mouth transfer D. Airborne transmission

Answer 205

C. Hands-to-mouth transfer Rationale: Hands-to-mouth transfer is a great possibility of external autoinfection, especially among children.

Question 206

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Hymenolepis Nana's scolex? A. Armed B. Smooth C. Single row of hooklets D. Attachment site

Answer 206

B. Smooth Rationale: The scolex of Hymenolepis Nana is armed with a single row of hooklets.

Question 207

Which of the following regions has the least prevalence of Hymenolepis Nana? A. Warm countries B. Cold countries C. Tropical rainforests D. Coastal regions

Answer 207

B. Cold countries Rationale: Hymenolepis Nana is more common in warm countries than in cold ones.

Question 208

How are the eggs of Hymenolepis Nana primarily released from the worm? A. Digestion B. Apolysis C. Exocytosis D. Osmosis

Answer 208

B. Apolysis Rationale: The eggs are primarily released from the worm through apolysis.

Question 209

Which of the following is an alternative name for Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Liver fluke b) Roundworm c) Hydatid worm d) Tapeworm

Answer 209

c) Hydatid worm Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is also known as the Hydatid worm.

Question 210

Echinococcus Granulosus causes which of the following diseases? a) Ascariasis b) Schistosomiasis c) Unilocular Echinococcosis d) Trichinosis

Answer 210

c) Unilocular Echinococcosis Rationale: This helminth causes Unilocular Echinococcosis, also known as Hydatid Disease.

Question 211

Which animal is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Sheep b) Dogs c) Wolves d) Jackals

Answer 211

a) Sheep Rationale: Sheep are intermediate hosts, while dogs, wolves, and jackals are definitive hosts.

Question 212

In which organ do humans typically NOT harbor the adult worms of Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Liver b) Lungs c) Small intestine d) Brain

Answer 212

c) Small intestine Rationale: Humans do not host the adult worms. The infection in humans is characterized by the presence of hydatid larvae in various tissues.

Question 213

How many segments does the Echinococcus Granulosus worm typically have? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five

Answer 213

b) Three Rationale: The worm comprises three segments in addition to the scolex: immature, mature, and gravid.

Question 214

Which of the following animals is NOT an intermediate host for Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Sheep b) Goats c) Dogs d) Camels

Answer 214

c) Dogs Rationale: Dogs are definitive hosts, while sheep, goats, and camels are intermediate hosts.

Question 215

Where does the hydatid larva mature into an adult worm? a) Duodenum b) Ileum of the dog c) Mesenteric venules d) Liver

Answer 215

b) Ileum of the dog Rationale: The hydatid larva matures into an adult worm in the dog's ileum.

Question 216

Which of the following cycles involves the formation of a hydatid cyst in wild ungulates like moose and reindeer? a) Pastoral Cycle b) Sylvatic Cycle c) Life Cycle d) Carnivore Cycle

Answer 216

b) Sylvatic Cycle Rationale: The Sylvatic Cycle involves the formation of hydatid cysts in wild ungulates.

Question 217

During which phase of life is a human typically infected with Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Infancy b) Adolescence c) Adulthood d) Childhood

Answer 217

d) Childhood Rationale: Infection in humans typically begins during childhood, a time often associated with unhygienic habits.

Question 218

Which diagnostic imaging technique is NOT used to detect Echinococcus Granulosus infection? a) X-ray b) CT scan c) MRI d) PET scan

Answer 218

d) PET scan Rationale: Common diagnostic imaging techniques include X-ray, CT scan, and MRI. PET scan is not typically used for this purpos

Question 219

What is often referred to as "hydatid sand"? a) Brood capsules b) Daughter cysts c) Protoscolices d) Hydatid fluid

Answer 219

c) Protoscolices Rationale: Protoscolices, when viewed under a microscope after staining, are often described as "hydatid sand".

Question 220

Which test detects host antibodies against the hydatid cyst but is rarely used today due to the risk of inducing an anaphylactic reaction? a) ELISA b) PCR c) Casoni's Skin Test d) Blood culture

Answer 220

c) Casoni's Skin Test Rationale: Casoni's Skin Test detects host antibodies against the hydatid cyst. However, it's rarely used today because of the associated risks.

Question 221

Which serologic test is commonly used for the diagnosis of Echinococcus Granulosus infection? a) Western Blot b) PCR c) Blood culture d) ELISA

Answer 221

d) ELISA Rationale: ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a common serologic test used for diagnosis.

Question 222

In which organ can a cyst persist for up to 30 years without showing noticeable symptoms? a) Brain b) Lungs c) Liver d) Kidneys

Answer 222

c) Liver Rationale: A cyst located at the liver's dome can grow slowly and persist for up to 30 years without noticeable symptoms.

Question 223

Which of the following is NOT an early symptom of a lung cyst caused by Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Slight hemoptysis b) Cough c) Dyspnea d) Jaundice

Answer 223

d) Jaundice Rationale: Jaundice is a symptom associated with liver cysts, not lung cysts.

Question 224

On an X-ray, a larva of Echinococcus Granulosus might be mistaken for which of the following conditions? a) Pneumonia b) Malignancy c) Asthma d) Bronchitis

Answer 224

b) Malignancy Rationale: On X-ray, the larva might appear as a solitary lesion, which can be mistaken for malignancy.

Question 225

Which test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm? a) ELISA b) PCR c) Casoni's Skin Test d) Blood culture

Answer 225

c) Casoni's Skin Test Rationale: Casoni's Skin Test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm.

Question 226

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic symptom of liver cyst obstruction caused by Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Intermittent jaundice b) Fever c) Eosinophilia d) Hemoptysis

Answer 226

d) Hemoptysis Rationale: Hemoptysis is an early symptom of a lung cyst, not a liver cyst.

Question 227

Which of the following animals is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus in the Sylvatic Cycle? a) Moose b) Reindeer c) Wolves d) Sheep

Answer 227

d) Sheep Rationale: In the Sylvatic Cycle, sheep are intermediate hosts, not definitive hosts.

Question 228

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Echinococcus Granulosus in humans? a) Ingestion of eggs b) Hand-to-mouth transfer c) Inhalation of spores d) Contamination from infected dog fur

Answer 228

c) Inhalation of spores Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is transmitted mainly through ingestion of eggs, often transferred from hand to mouth, and not through inhalation of spores.

Question 229

Which diagnostic method involves staining and observing under a microscope to identify "hydatid sand"? a) X-ray b) CT scan c) Laboratory examination of hydatid cyst fluid d) MRI

Answer 229

c) Laboratory examination of hydatid cyst fluid Rationale: Protoscolices, when viewed under a microscope after staining, are often described as "hydatid sand".

Question 230

Which of the following is NOT a location where humans can harbor the hydatid larvae of Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Liver b) Lungs c) Brain d) Heart

Answer 230

d) Heart Rationale: While the liver, lungs, and brain are common locations for hydatid larvae, the heart is not typically a location where humans harbor the larvae.

Question 231

Which of the following cycles involves the formation of a hydatid cyst in sheep? a) Pastoral Cycle b) Sylvatic Cycle c) Life Cycle d) Carnivore Cycle

Answer 231

a) Pastoral Cycle Rationale: The Pastoral Cycle involves the formation of hydatid cysts in herbivores like sheep.

Question 232

Which of the following is NOT a definitive host for Echinococcus Granulosus in the Pastoral Cycle? a) Dogs b) Wolves c) Sheep d) Jackals

Answer 232

c) Sheep Rationale: In the Pastoral Cycle, sheep are intermediate hosts, not definitive hosts.

Question 233

Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT typically used for detecting Echinococcus Granulosus infection? a) X-ray b) Blood culture c) CT scan d) MRI

Answer 233

b) Blood culture Rationale: While X-ray, CT scan, and MRI are common diagnostic methods, blood culture is not typically used for this purpose.

Question 234

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of a lung cyst caused by Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Cough b) Dyspnea c) Hemoptysis d) Jaundice

Answer 234

d) Jaundice Rationale: Jaundice is a symptom associated with liver cysts, not lung cysts.

Question 235

Which of the following is NOT a method of transmission for Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Ingestion of embryonated eggs from the soil b) Consumption of undercooked infected meat c) Hand-to-mouth transfer d) Contamination from infected dog fur

Answer 235

b) Consumption of undercooked infected meat Rationale: Echinococcus Granulosus is not typically transmitted through the consumption of undercooked infected meat.

Question 236

Which of the following diagnostic methods involves the use of hydatid fluid that's been lyophilized (freeze-dried)? a) ELISA b) PCR c) Casoni's Skin Test d) Blood culture

Answer 236

c) Casoni's Skin Test Rationale: Casoni's Skin Test involves the intradermal injection of lyophilized hydatid fluid into the forearm.

Question 237

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Echinococcus Granulosus? a) Causes Unilocular Echinococcosis b) Resides in the small intestines of carnivores c) Humans host the adult worms d) Has three segments in addition to the scolex

Answer 237

c) Humans host the adult worms Rationale: Humans do not host the adult worms of Echinococcus Granulosus. The infection in humans is characterized by the presence of hydatid larvae in various tissues.

Question 238

What does the Casoni's Skin Test detect? a) Presence of bacterial infection b) Host antibodies against the hydatid cyst c) Level of glucose in the blood d) Presence of fungal infection

Answer 238

b) Host antibodies against the hydatid cyst Rationale: The Casoni's Skin Test is designed to detect host antibodies against the hydatid cyst.

Question 239

What is injected intradermally in the Casoni's Skin Test? a) Live bacteria b) Lyophilized hydatid fluid c) Saline solution d) Blood plasma

Answer 239

b) Lyophilized hydatid fluid Rationale: The test involves using hydatid fluid (either from animals or humans) that's been lyophilized (freeze-dried) and then injected intradermally.

Question 240

What is the typical result of a positive Casoni's Skin Test after 1-2 days? a) Red rash b) Wheal formation c) Blistering d) No visible change

Answer 240

b) Wheal formation Rationale: A positive result in the Casoni's Skin Test is indicated by the formation of a wheal after 1-2 days.

Question 241

1. Which of the following cestodes causes Hydatid disease in humans? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 241

D) Echinococcus granulosus Rationale: Echinococcus granulosus is responsible for Hydatid disease, where humans can develop cysts in various organs due to the larval stage of the parasite.

Question 242

2. Which cestode is acquired by humans through the ingestion of improperly cooked freshwater fishes? A) Taenia solium B) Diphyllobothrium latum C) Hymenolepis nana D) Dipyllidium caninum

Answer 242

B) Diphyllobothrium latum Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum infection occurs when humans consume plerocercoid larvae present in improperly cooked freshwater fishes.

Question 243

3. Which of the following cestodes has an armed scolex? A) Taenia saginata B) Echinococcus granulosus C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Both A and B

Answer 243

D) Both A and B Rationale: Both Taenia solium and Echinococcus granulosus have an armed scolex.

Question 244

4. Which cestode infection can result from consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis diminuta C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 244

B) Hymenolepis diminuta Rationale: Hymenolepis diminuta infection in humans occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.

Question 245

5. Which cestode is known for potential autoinfection in humans? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 245

B) Hymenolepis nana Rationale: Hymenolepis nana can cause autoinfection, where a person can get re-infected without being exposed to external sources of contamination.

Question 246

6. Visceral Larva Migrans is associated with which cestode? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 246

D) Echinococcus granulosus Rationale: In the context provided, Echinococcus granulosus is associated with Visceral Larva Migrans, where the infection in humans is limited to the larval stage.

Question 247

7. Which cestode is NOT acquired via ingestion of larval stages? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 247

D) Echinococcus granulosus Rationale: Echinococcus granulosus is acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs, not larval stages.

Question 248

8. Which cestode is associated with cysticercus larva in infected pork? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 248

A) Taenia solium Rationale: Taenia solium infection occurs by consuming cysticercus larvae present in infected pork.

Question 249

9. Which of the following cestodes is acquired by humans through the ingestion of embryonated eggs from contaminated food or drinks? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 249

B) Hymenolepis nana Rationale: Hymenolepis nana infection can occur from consuming embryonated eggs from contaminated food or drinks.

Question 250

10. Which cestode is NOT known to have an armed scolex? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 250

C) Diphyllobothrium latum Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum does not have an armed scolex, unlike the other options listed.

Question 251

11. Which cestode is associated with cysticercoid larva in fleas? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis diminuta C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Dipyllidium caninum

Answer 251

D) Dipyllidium caninum Rationale: Dipyllidium caninum infection occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.

Question 252

12. Which cestode infection is NOT acquired via ingestion of larval stages? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 252

B) Hymenolepis nana Rationale: Hymenolepis nana is acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs, not larval stages.

Question 253

13. Which cestode is associated with plerocercoid larvae? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 253

C) Diphyllobothrium latum Rationale: Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with plerocercoid larvae, which are present in the flesh of improperly cooked freshwater fishes.

Question 254

14. Which cestode is NOT acquired via ingestion of embryonated eggs? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis nana C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Echinococcus granulosus

Answer 254

A) Taenia solium Rationale: Taenia solium is acquired via ingestion of cysticercus larva in infected pork, not embryonated eggs.

Question 255

15. Which of the following cestodes is known for causing infection in humans through the ingestion of cysticercoid larvae present in fleas? A) Taenia solium B) Hymenolepis diminuta C) Diphyllobothrium latum D) Dipyllidium caninum

Answer 255

B) Hymenolepis diminuta Rationale: Hymenolepis diminuta infection in humans occurs by consuming cysticercoid larvae present in fleas.