PAPER 1- 2018- specimen Flashcards

1
Q

1 Identify which one of the following statements defines expiratory reserve volume. (1)

A The amount of air breathed in or out per breath
B The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration
has occurred
C The amount of air that can be forcibly expelled after a
normal breath
D The amount of air that can be forcibly inspired at the end of a
breath

A

C- B The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration
has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

0 2 Identify two functions of the fast component of Excess Post-Exercise Oxygen
Consumption (EPOC) (1)

A

D Restore phosphocreatine (PC) and resaturate myoglobin with

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

0 3 . 1 Figure 1 shows a gymnast in a crucifix position on the rings.
Figure 1
Complete Table 1 to identify the type of joint, the main agonist and the joint action at
the gymnast’s shoulder when in the crucifix position.
[3 marks]

A

Ball and socket (1) Deltoid (1) Abduction (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 . 2 Explain how wave summation allows a gymnast to gain the required height in a floor
routine.
[3 marks]

A

Wave summation will allow the gymnast to produce a more powerful contraction (1)

because the
muscle is stimulated again before it is relaxed (1)

therefore the gymnast will be able to apply greater
force to adjust the height achieved to match the requirements of the technique performed (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

0 4 . 1 Fast twitch glycolytic muscle fibres (type IIx) are used to produce powerful
contractions.
Identify two characteristics of fast twitch glycolytic muscle fibres (type IIx).
[2 marks]

A
  • Fast motor neurone conduction velocity (1).
  • Large muscle fibre diameter (1).
  • More sarcoplasmic reticulum development (1).
  • High PC stores (1).
  • High glycogen stores (1).
  • High myosin ATPase/glycolytic enzyme activity (1).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

0 4 . 2 Explain how the characteristics of fast twitch glycolytic muscle fibres (type IIx) you
identified in question 04.1 are suited to producing ATP anaerobically during powerful
contractions.
[2 marks]

A

• High PC stores – increased energy source for ATP production via the ATP-PC system (1).
• High glycogen stores – increased energy source for ATP production via the lactate anaerobic
system (1).
• High myosin ATPase activity – increased enzyme activity for ATP production within the
ATP-PC system (1).
• High glycolytic enzyme activity – increased enzyme activity or ATP production within the lactate
anaerobic system (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

0 5 In relation to energy transfer, evaluate the use of altitude training to increase fitness
for performance in a 1500m running event.
[8 marks]

A

AO1- g altitude training involves working above
5000 feet. Altitude training is used to develop aerobic energy system. It can cause altitude sickness.

AO2- eg at first, the 1500m runner will be
unable to train as hard as normal due to lack of oxygen resulting in detraining. After time, altitude training
develops aerobic energy system and so aerobic power because there is an increase in red blood cells at
altitude due to an increase in EPO. This is needed by a 1500m runner because the 1500m run
predominantly uses aerobic system to create ATP.

eg due to altitude sickness
some athletes may be unable to train therefore decreasing aerobic energy transfer. However, if
successful, altitude training develops aerobic energy system. A 1500m runner predominantly uses
aerobic system to create ATP. A 1500m runner requires good levels of aerobic endurance to perform
well in this event. However, due to the fact that a 1500m runner will use anaerobic systems (get a good
start or overtake other runners) in potentially large sections of the race then altitude training might be
more suited to a marathon runner/10 000m runner which would be classed as more of an endurance
event. Alternatively, the 1500m could also combine altitude training with HIIT training to also develop the
anaerobic energy systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

0 6 Table 2 shows the times of an elite athlete for a 100m, 400m and 3000m race.
Figure 2 shows the relative contribution of the energy systems on the energy
continuum.
Table 2
Event 100m 400m 3000m
Time 10.49 secs 47.40 secs 8:06.11
Figure 2
Using Figure 2, analyse and evaluate the contribution of each energy system for each
event identified in Table 2.
[15 marks]

A

AO1 – Knowledge
Identified and described the energy systems, eg ATP-PC system involves the breakdown of PC to
form ATP. The aerobic system uses oxygen to release energy. The aerobic system has a higher ATP
yield than the other systems. (No reference to times from table is required).
AO2 – Application
Identified and explained the contribution of each system in the three events, eg in the 100m event,
the athlete will predominantly use the ATP PC system to create ATP. There is also some contribution
from the lactate anaerobic system. This is because the ATP-PC system can create ATP for
8–10 seconds and the race only takes 10.49 seconds to complete. This involves the breakdown of
glucose anaerobically to form pyruvic acid and then lactic acid which is also known as anaerobic
glycolysis.
AO3 – Analysis/Evaluation
Linked the contribution of each energy system to the demands of the event, eg 100m uses
ATP-PC system which is an anaerobic system to create ATP as it is a sprint event and the performer
runs as fast as they can and so intensity is maximal. When ATP is made through the breakdown of PC in
the ATP-PC system, ATP is produced very quickly explaining, the 100% capacity in Figure 2.
Credit other relevant analysis and evaluation points in relation to the contribution of each energy system
for each event identified in the data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

0 7 Which one of the following classifications accurately describes the skills of a dive at
the start of a swimming race?

A Closed, externally-paced, complex and discrete
B Closed, externally-paced, simple and discrete
C Closed, self-paced, complex and discrete
D Closed, self-paced, simple and discrete

A

D- Closed, self-paced, simple and discrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

0 8 Which one of the following statements describes the term ‘response time’? (1)

A The time taken from the onset of the stimulus to the end of
the movement
B The time taken from the onset of the stimulus to the start of
the movement
C The time taken from the start of the movement to the end of
the movement
D The time taken from the start of the movement to the onset of
the stimulus

A

A The time taken from the onset of the stimulus to the end of
the movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

0 9 Figure 3 shows Whiting’s information processing model.
Figure 3
State the function of each of the central mechanisms during a game situation.
[3 marks]

A

• (Perceptual mechanism) interprets information from the environment/display (1).
• (Translatory mechanism) uses gathered information to make a decision (1).
• (Effector mechanism) transfers decision via nervous system to the muscles to complete the
action (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1 0 Selective attention allows the performer to detect relevant cues from the display.
Suggest three strategies that can be used to improve selective attention.
[3 marks]

A

• Increase the intensity of the stimulus by making the ball brighter, shouting louder or equivalent
(1).
• Increase the time to react/slow the stimulus down by bouncing the ball lower, bowling the ball
slower or equivalent (1).
• Analysis of the strengths and weakness of the opposition/identify the opposition’s patterns of
behaviour to increase ability to focus attention (1).
• Increase fitness levels/reduce fatigue to lengthen attention span (1).
• Practice with distractions to increase ability to block out distractions (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1 Effective decision making is an important factor in the execution of skills.
Outline the terms chunking and chaining and explain how they can improve the
decision making process. Use examples to support your answer.
[4 marks]

A

• Chunking involves storing information in larger units (1),
• Chaining involves linking together pieces of information (1)
• Chunking/Chaining improves decision making because there are fewer single pieces of
information to be processed (1) which improves short term/working memory/makes recalling
information from long-term memory faster (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1 2 A coach may use different approaches to improve the team’s performance.
Explain the principles of insight learning and discuss its effectiveness when
developing skills.
[8 marks]

A

Principles of insight learning are identified and described, eg the theory aims to develop a
performer’s learning by understanding the relationship between the sub-routines or different factors
that may influence the whole problem rather than learning specific movement patterns.

AO2 – Application
Key principles and terms are explained with their impact on learning, eg practices will involve
the use of techniques designed to allow the performer to think about their response and modify
their actions based on previous experience and the situation at the time. For example, a games
player will evaluate the situation and decide on a specific pass depending on the position of team
mates, the opposition etc. rather than simply complete a pass because they have been conditioned
or trained to do so.
AO3 – Analysis
Linked factors evaluating the effectiveness of operant conditioning (developed statements),
eg it is effective because the performer is able to modify their actions without the need for specific
input from the coach because it allows performers to develop their own tactics/strategies rather
than rely on the coach.
It can be considered ineffective because the performers/team may not have the ability to think for
themselves to develop a solution or because it may be too time consuming when developing skills.
Credit other relevant points explaining the principles of insight learning and its effectiveness when
developing skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 Explain different types of feedback and evaluate their effect on information
processing.
[15 marks]

A

AO1 – Knowledge
Knowledge of types of feedback with an explanation of each term, eg intrinsic/kinaesthetic
feedback comes from within, information from the proprioception allowing the performer to evaluate
their own actions. Other forms of feedback include extrinsic, concurrent, terminal, positive, negative,
knowledge of results (KR) and knowledge of performance (KP).
AO2 – Application
Use of feedback to improve performance, eg KP can be used to help group correct skilled actions.
KR can help build confidence if the result was successful, therefore can provide motivation. Positive
feedback can provide reinforcement of correct action. Extrinsic feedback can help with correction of
movement errors. Answer should be supported by suitable examples.
AO3 – Analysis/Evaluation
Evaluation of the effect of feedback on information processing.
Information processing relies on feedback as part of a self-correcting or improvement system. In order
for information processing to be efficient the feedback given needs to be appropriate to the skills level
of the performer otherwise they would be unable to detect errors or adjust their movement, eg those
at the cognitive stage would be less likely to attend to relevant cues from the display and would rely
more heavily on extrinsic feedback than intrinsic therefore the coach/teacher would need to select the
most appropriate form of feedback for the individuals to bring about the required improvement so that
the correct movement could be reinforced when the skills were practised again the correct decision
can be made by the individual.
Credit other relevant explanations of the different types of feedback.
Credit other relevant evaluation points on the effect of feedback on information processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1 4 Which one of the following definitions best describes the term socialisation?
A A collection of people living in a defined geographical area
B Studying how the social groups people belong to influence
their actions and beliefs
C The learning of cultural values in society
D The learning of society’s social norms and values
[1 mark]

A

C The learning of cultural values in society

17
Q

1 5 Which one of the following terms best describes a professional performer?

A

C One who receives direct payment for their participation in

sporting activities

18
Q

1 6 Explain two characteristics of nineteenth century lawn tennis.
[4 marks]

A

• Played regularly (1) because the players had more time to play (1).
• Middle class development (1) due to involvement in creation of clubs/NGB (1).
• Highly structured/skills/tactics (1) due to the rationalisation of tennis (1).
• Equipment and facilities available to play (1) for example played in suburban
gardens/manufacturing of equipment for purchase (1).
• Social game (1) meant that both sexes could play together as it was considered a suitable activity
for females

19
Q

1 7 Using an example from sport, describe the term ‘social change’.
[3 marks]

A

significant changes in social behaviours and/or cultural values (1) over time,
leading to long-term effects (1) for example ‘kick 4 life’ (K4L) using football to bring about social
change in deprived areas (1).

20
Q

1 8 ‘Kick it out’ was established as a campaign with the brand name ‘Lets Kick Racism
Out of Football’.
Explain the impact of this type of campaign on society.
[3 marks]

A

This type of campaign raises awareness of issues within society through the use of high profile
sports (1) the campaign educates/re-educates reinforcing appropriate/acceptable social behaviours
(1) to bring about a positive social change, in this case reducing racism in society (1).

21
Q

1 9 The Church encouraged the post-industrial game of football.
Explain how they achieved this and their reasons for encouraging the development
of football.
[8 marks]

A

AO1 – Knowledge
Identified reasons for how and why the Church encouraged the post-industrial game of football –
simple statement, eg [How] the Church gave its approval by creating Sunday school teams. The
Church teams were organised by the clergy for parishioners to play, they also provided facilities to play,
eg land. [Why] the Church encouraged the game because it was a form of rational recreation and
because it was a better form of the sport than mob games. It promoted muscular Christianity

AO2 – Application
Applied explanation for how and why the Church encouraged the post-industrial game of
football, eg in order to attract more people to Church, the Church created and encouraged Sunday
school football teams. They organised football matches to counter the vices that were reported in towns
and cities. It gave an opportunity for the clergy to come into contact with the wider community

AO3 – Analysis
Linked explanation of reasons for how and why the Church encouraged the post-industrial game
of football, eg the Church encouraged the rational form of football because it had been given rules; by
encouraging playing to the rules this would improve the morals of the working classes and act as a form
of social control. Meaning that less time was spent drinking, promoting muscular Christianity amongst
the working classes.
Credit other relevant points explaining how the church encouraged the post-industrial game of football
and their reasons for encouraging the development

22
Q

2 0 Raising participation in physical activity should deliver both individual health benefits
and a positive impact on society.
Analyse and evaluate this statement.
[15 marks]

A

AO1 – Knowledge of the potential individual and societal benefits of raising participation
Individual benefits – Eg Increase in physical activity can lead to increased personal physical health
(eg CHD reduced, hypertension, less chance of becoming obese, less sedentary), increased mental
health, increased fitness, skill development
Societal benefits of more active nation – Eg reduced crime rates, constructive use of time of the
masses, community spirit, legacy projects, more/improved facilities, reduced NHS costs.
AO2 – Application of individual health benefits and impact on society
Eg increased health of the individual, eg less risk of CHD, therefore increased health of nation.
Improved mental health due to increased self-confidence as a result of participating with others/
improving health and fitness. Greater opportunity to develop social cohesion through increased
participation in team activities/games. With increased access to opportunities to participate,
individuals can use time more constructively, therefore, less likely to become bored/commit petty
offences.
AO3 – Analysis/Evaluation of relationship between raising participation and the health benefits
to individual and the impact on society
Eg Due to increased health of nation, less funding required for NHS/health care and increased
productivity as fewer days absent from work. An increase in physical activity is a positive lifestyle
change, which could lead to further positive lifestyle choices, eg quitting smoking, which would mean
further reduction in costs across society for health care. Increased social cohesion could lead to
improved community cohesiveness, with members of the community taking greater pride in their
environment. In addition, as time is used constructively, vandalism and other anti-social behaviour is
less likely to occur, improving the quality of the neighbourhood.
Credit other relevant points on the relationship between raising participation in physical activity and
the health benefits to the individual and the impact on society.