Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSRA > Paeds > Flashcards

Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

laryngomalacia presents at

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fever, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading, mac/pap –> vesicular

A

Chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which children get varicella IGs

A

immune comp
peripartum exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prodrome (irritable, conjunctivitis, fever)
Koplik spots in mouth
Rash starting behind ears (discrete mac pap rash that becomes confluent on whole body)

A

measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what if child exposed to measles but not vaxxed

A

give vax within 72h (MMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mumps management

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

macpap rash on face spreads to whole body, fades 3-5 days
lymphadenopathy

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

erythema infectiosum (slapped cheek) pathogen

A

parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

slapped cheek can cause what in adults

A

acute arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Group A strep disease

A

scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

scarlet fever rx

A

oral pen v 10 days (azithro if allergy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hand food and mouth pathogen

A

coxsackie A16 virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what rash has a strawberry tongue and sandpaper rash

A

scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Projectile non bilious vomiting at 4-6 weeks

A

pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blood gas result in pyloric stenosis

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how to diagnose pyloric stenosis

A

test feed
USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Colicky pain, diarrhoea and vomiting, sausage shaped mass, red jelly stool 6-9 months

A

intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

intussusception rx

A

air insufflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Scaphoid abdomen with bilious vomiting

A

malrotation (with volvulus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Delayed meconium and abdo distension

A

Hirschsprung’s disease OR CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hirschsprung’s diagnosis?

A

Full thickness rectal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hirschsprung’s Rx

A

rectal washouts

then anorectal pullthrough procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration

May be associated with VACTERL

A

oesophageal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

biliary atresia rx

A

Kasai procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

biliary atresia is an increase in which bili

A

conjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Premature baby with abdo distention and bloody stools
Free air on XR

A

necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis rx

A

complete gut rest (TPN)
Laparotomy if perf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Commonest cause of acute abdo in children

A

appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

intususseption age range

A

6-9months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pyloric stenosis age range

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

appendicitis age range

A

> 5y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

abdo pain following URTI/LRTI/gastroenteritis

A

mesenteric adenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Basis of asthma diagnosis

A

response to bronchodilator rx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Child over 5 asthma inhaler regime

A

SABA

+ICS

+LABA/LTRA

SABA + MART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Child under 5 inhaler regime

A

SABA

+ICS

+LTRA

(refer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is APGAR used for

A

the infant’s condition after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Many cafe au lait spots and axillary freckling indicates

A

neurofibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

port wine stain localised to trigeminal area could be

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome (underlying meningeal haemangioma and IC calcification - associated with fits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How to differentiate between reflex anoxic seizures and epilepsy

A

no post ictal drowsiness
RAS is post minor injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Are reflex anoxic seizures dangerous?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Murmur that is systolic, musical, does not radiate, varies with position

A

Innocent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

7 Ss of a reassuring murmur

A

Sensitive (moves with positional changes)
Short duration
Single (no click, gallop or extra HS)
Small (doesn’t radiate)
Sweet (not harsh)
Systolic (diastolic are typically bad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Machinery murmur L subclavicular suggests

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Harsh pan systolic murmur at lower left sternal edge with parasternal thrill

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

PResentation soon after birth with cyanosis/murmur

A

ToF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ToF XR finding

A

boot shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment for PDA

A

prostaglandin inhin (ibuprofen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

shock and poor perfusion in first days of life with weak femoral pulses

A

Coarctation of the aorta (as the duct closes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Severe cyanosis and acidosis after birth

A

Transposition of great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Transposition of great arteries rx

A

Keep duct open with prostaglandin E2 and atrial septostomy to allow blood to mix until surgical switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When is heel prick test done

A

5-9th day of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When is jaundice pathological

A

first 24h and after 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

causes of jaundice in first 24h

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Partial seizures at night in children

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Referral points (3) for dev delay

A

No smiling at 10 weeks
Cannot sit unsupported at 12 months
Cannot walk at 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CXR findings of transient tachypnoea of the newborn

A

hyperinflation, fluid in horizontal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Teenage girl with anterior knee pain on stairs and getting out of a chair

A

Chondromalacia patellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sporty teen with pain, tenderness and swelling over tibial tubercle

A

osgood schlatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Knee pain after exercise with intermittent swelling and locking in absence of trauma

A

osteochondritis dissecans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Medial knee pain and giving way

A

patellar subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Chronic anterior knee pain in an athletic teenage boy that worsens after running, o/e tender below patella

A

patellar tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Soft, fluctuant swelling on head soon after birth that doesn’t cross suture lines of skull

A

Cephalohaematoma

63
Q

Cephalohaematoma mx

A

generally just observe
Don’t aspirate

64
Q

Soft, fluctuant swelling on head soon after birth that crosses suture lines of skull

A

Subgaleal haemorrhage
OR
Caput succedaneum if pitting

65
Q

Rx for chlamydial opthalmia neonatorum

A

oral erythro or topical tetracycline

66
Q

Rx for gonococcal opthalmia neonatorum

A

IV cephalosporin

67
Q

How to differentiate between chlamydial, gonococcal and viral neonatal conjunctivitis

A

gonococcal more severe (lid swelling, copious discharge)
Viral may have subconj haemorrage and lymphadenopathy.

68
Q

Definitive diagnosis for coeliac

A

jejunal biopsy - shows subtotal villous atrophy, intraepithelial lymphocytes and crypt hyperplasia

69
Q

Toddler’s diarrhoea can only be diagnosed if

A

the child is thriving

70
Q

‘Ribbon stools’ indicates?

A

Hirschprungs

71
Q

Treatment for mild impetigo

A

fuscidic acid cream

72
Q

Treatment for more severe/bullous impetigo

A

PO fluclox/erythro

73
Q

Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

74
Q

90% congenital adrenal hyperplasia have what deficiency

A

21-hydroxylase

75
Q

What would the general chemical/hormonal cause of small testes be

A

An adrenal cause

76
Q

Cafe au lait spots, precocious puberty suggests

A

McCune Albright syndrome

77
Q

Age of precocious puberty

A

<8 girls, <9 boys

78
Q

Age of delayed puberty

A

13+ in girls
14+ in boys

79
Q

Delayed puberty with no sense of smell

A

Kallman’s

80
Q

Delayed puberty and tall
What are the chromosones

A

Klinefelter 47XXY

81
Q

Short, webbed neck, shield chest, primary amenorrhoea, short fourth metacarpals, high arched palate

A

Turner’s Syndrome 45X

82
Q

Most common metabolic disease

A

phenylketonuria

83
Q

Thumb print sign on lateral neck XR

A

Epiglottitis

84
Q

Main pathogen viral gastroenteritis

85
Q

Management of GORD

A

Feed little and often
Thickener
Gaviscon
PPI/ranitidine

86
Q

Wide set eyes, hooded eyelids, tubular nose, broad nose tip. small mouth

A

Di George syndrome

87
Q

Cocktail party speech, blue eyes, sunken nasal bridge, small teeth (elfin)

A

William’s syndrome

88
Q

Ptosis, wide set eyes, webbed neck, sternal deformity, deeply grooved philtrum

89
Q

Long philtrum, monobrow, thin lips, low ears

A

Cornelia De Lange syndrome

90
Q

White forelock, bright blue eyes, deafness

A

Waardenberg

91
Q

large testicles,
Learning difficulty
Dev delay
High forehead,
hyperextendible joints

92
Q

Central hypotonia that improves with age
Excessive appetite and weight gain
Sleep apnoea
Global dev delay

A

Prader-Willi

93
Q

Prader Willi chromosome

94
Q

Micrognathia, microcephaly, rocker bottom feet, overlapping fingers

A

Trisomy-18 (Edwards)

95
Q

polydactyly
Scalp lesions
Midline facial defect
Neural tube defects
Microcephaly,
Rocker bottom feet

A

Trisomy 13- Pataus

96
Q

Kawasaki disease rx

A

Igs and aspirin

97
Q

Complication of kawasaki

A

coronary artery aneurysm

98
Q

Inguinal hernia in children rx

A

elective surgery unless strangulated

99
Q

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia causes

A

haemolysis
sickle cell
spherocytosis
Premature (immature liver enzymes)
Infection
Bruising
Hypothyroid
Breast milk jaundice

100
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia causes

A

Hepatitis
CF
Cirrhosis
Biliary atresia

101
Q

Complication of unconj bili being high

A

kernicterus (acute encephalopathy) can cause athetoid cerebral palsy and deafness

102
Q

Hip pain following illness, refusal to wt bear but ok at rest. otherwise well, toddler

A

Transient synovitis

103
Q

Painful swelling and restricted movement of large and small joints
Systemically ok, some mild anaemia
Morning stiffness
RF -ve, ANA +

A

Poly articular juvenile idiopathic arthritis

104
Q

3yo girl with elbow (or knee or ankle) swelling and pain. Otherwise well. RF -ve, ANA +.

A

Pauci articular JIA

105
Q

Complication of pauci articular JIA

A

chronic iridocyclitis

106
Q

What is the other type of JIA

A

Still’s disease (systemic)

107
Q

JIA management

A

NSAIDs
Corticosteroids/immunesuppresants in severe
PT/OT

108
Q

What types of white cells are seen in CSF in bacterial vs viral meningitis

A

polymorphs in bac
lymphocytes in viral

109
Q

What does fibrin web indicate in CSF

110
Q

What is waterhouse friderichsen syndrome

A

Complication of meningococcal meningitis

coagulopathy –> haemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenals.

-DIC
-Acute adrenal failure
-Resp failure

111
Q

genetics of duchennes

A

x linked recessive

112
Q

What blood result would you find in duchennes

113
Q

Difference between duchennes and beckers

A

Beckers is rarer
Milder, later age and better prognosis
Also X linked recessive

114
Q

What is anencephaly

A

type of spina bifida - cranial part of neural tube doesn’t develop, infant dies soon after birth

115
Q

What is myelomeningocele

A

type of spina bifida -

open lesion
SC covered by meninges
Severe weakness of lower limbs
bladder and anal denervation
Hydrocephalus

116
Q

What is meningocele

A

type of spina bifida -
SC intact but sac of meninges exposed- risk rupture and meningitis

117
Q

What is spina bifida occulta

A

type of spina bifida - vertebral bodies fail to fuse properly. Will have a sign on their lower back eg tuft of hair, pit, naevus.

118
Q

What investigation is indicated in spina bifida occulta

A

spinal USS

119
Q

What do cold agglutins in serum indicate

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (will get haemolytic anaemia)

120
Q

CXR sign in respiratory distress syndrome of preterm infants

A

Ground glass appearance, air bronchograms

121
Q

Mx resp distress syndrom

A

surfactant replacement via ETT

122
Q

Way to avoid resp distress syndrom

A

maternal steroids 48h prior to delivery

123
Q

‘honey comb lung’ and hyper expanded on cxr in pre term infant

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

124
Q

HSP needs what follow up

125
Q

commonest cause of thrombocytopenia in children

126
Q

ITP antibody

127
Q

ITP normally follows what

A

viral infection

128
Q

ITP mx

A

treatment not normally required, 6-8 week disease course
Ensure to differentiate from leukaemia/aplastic anaemia

If bleeding- pred PO but needs BM examination before this as could mask diagnosis of leukaemia.
IV anti D
IV IG

Avoid contact sports while plts low

129
Q

Most common cause of AKI in children

130
Q

HUS mx

A

generally supportive

131
Q

Commonest type of childhood leukaemia

132
Q

pancytopenia in child could be

A

Aplastic anaemia

133
Q

Aplastic anaemia mx

A

immune suppressant
Stem cell transplant

134
Q

what age does squint need referral

A

> 5-6months

135
Q

commonest type of thalassaemia

136
Q

does thalassaemia trait need treatment

137
Q

beta thalassaemia features

A

Frontal bossing
Dental abnormalities
Severe haemolytic anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly (increased production to compensate for no HbA being produced)

138
Q

Beta thalassaemia mx

A

regular blood transfusions

139
Q

80% nephrotic syndrome is due to

A

minimal change glomerulopephritis

140
Q

Bilateral undescended testes could indicate

A

hypopituitarism

141
Q

cryptorchidism mx

A

orchidopexy before 2 yrs

142
Q

Double bubble sign on AXR

A

duodenal atresia
OR
volvulus

Both will have distended stomach and duodenumd

143
Q

Eczema herpeticum mx

A

aciclovir systemic and urgent derm rv

144
Q

umbilical hernia mx

A

usually self resolve by 3yrs

145
Q

order of puberty in girls

A

boobs, pubes, grow, flow

146
Q

Turners is associated with what heart issue

A

bicuspid valve

147
Q

How long off school for mumps

A

5 days from the onset of swollen glands

148
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome symptoms

A

sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities and congenital heart disease

149
Q

labial adhesions and recurrent utis

A

oestrogen cream

150
Q

What category of babies require USS for DDH (regardless of ortolani etc)

A

All breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation require USS for DDH screening at 6 weeks regardless of mode of delivery

151
Q

Bow legs in a child < 3 is..?

A

a normal variant and usually resolves by the age of 4 years

152
Q

Concave abdo at birth and dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

153
Q

Risk factors for SIDS

A

prone sleeping

parental smoking

bed sharing

hyperthermia and head covering

prematurity

154
Q

William’s syndrome murmur

A

aortic stenosis

MSRA (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions