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MSRA > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

cause of haemolytic anaemia that can be triggered by broad beans, henna, illness and drugs

A

G6PD

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2
Q

what causes bite and blister cells on blood film

A

G6PD

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3
Q

haemosiderin urine (very dark) suggests intra or extravascular cause of haemolytic anaemia

A

intravascular

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4
Q

Reed sternberg cells in what

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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5
Q

Which lymphoma is mostly curable, which is lower grade but not normally curable

A

Hodgkins mostly curable
NH med survival 10y but not normally curable in advanced stages

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6
Q

Which type of lymphoma presents with a solitary enlarged lymph node

A

hodgkins

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7
Q

Which type of lymphoma presents with alcohol induced pain

A

hodgkins

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8
Q

which lymphoma is more common

A

non hodgkin

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9
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with painless, slowly progressive peripheral lymphadenoapthy

A

Low grade non hodgkins

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10
Q

What blood test helps prognosticate in hodgkins lymphoma

A

ESR

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11
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with rapidly growing bulky lymphadenoma

A

high grade non hodgkins

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12
Q

What type of lymphoma presents with abdominal mass

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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13
Q

what happens to ferritin in pregnancy

A

falls in the last 2/3 irrespective of iron stores

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14
Q

when to recheck fbc after rx oral iron

A

2-4 weeks

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15
Q

Action if IDA not responded to oral iron

A

refer to haem

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16
Q

How long to continue iron supplement and monitoring

A

3 months after normal FBC
Then bloods 3 monthly for a year

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17
Q

what is pernicious anaemia

A

autoimmune
affects gastric mucosa
leads to B12 deficiency

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18
Q

severe b12/folate defic can lead to

A

pancytopenia
SACDC

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19
Q

If you don’t know the B12 AND folate status, giving folate in isolation can do what?

A

worsen b12 deficiency

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20
Q

pernicious anaemia rx

A

B12 monthly for life

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21
Q

what is coombs test for

A

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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22
Q

acute medical treatment of ABO incompatibility

A

hydrocort IV
chlorphenamine IV

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23
Q

when after transfusion can you test FBC

A

6-12h

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24
Q

In which transfusion reactions do you stop the transfusion

A

TRALI
Anaphylaxis
Haemolytic (ABO) reaction

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25
Q

What is post transfusion purpura

A

plt destruction 5-12 days later- potentially fatal

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26
Q

Myeloma is a malignancy of which cells in the BM

A

plasma

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27
Q

Features of myeloma

A

CRAB
hypercalcaemia
Renal failure
Anaemia
Bone (lytic lesions)

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28
Q

what antibodies are produced in myeloma

A

paraproteins- light chains
IgA and IgG

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29
Q

skull XR finding myeloma

A

rain drop skull

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30
Q

1st line imaging in suspected myeloma

A

whole body MRI for bone lesions

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31
Q

Treatment of myeloma

A

symptomatic
Chemo and RT of bone where neoplastic plasma cells are
Stem cell transplant

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32
Q

abdominal and neuropsych sx in 20-40 yo female

A

acute intermittent porphyria

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33
Q

acute intermittent porphyria genetics

A

autosomal dominant

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34
Q

Urine turns deep red on standing

A

acute intermittent porphyria

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35
Q

most common type of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

36
Q

most common childhood malignancy

37
Q

G6pd inheritance

38
Q

drugs that precipitate g6pd

A

anti-malarials: primaquine
ciprofloxacin
sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas

39
Q

Amyloid AA is due to

A

chronic long term inflammatory conditions eg crohns

40
Q

Amyloid AL type is due to

A

myeloma, NH lymphoma, waldenstrom

41
Q

Amyloid ATTR type is due to what

A

genetic, autosomal dominant

42
Q

How is amyloid diagnosed

A

biopsy (traditionally rectal)

43
Q

Do you give oral iron in beta thalassaemia

A

only if ferritin low

44
Q

CLL is more likely in which patient group

45
Q

Philadelphia chromosome linked with what

46
Q

CML rx

A

tyrosine kinase inhibs (imatinib)

47
Q

Haemophilia A clotting factor

48
Q

Haemophilia B clotting factor

49
Q

Haemophilia C clotting factor

50
Q

coag findings in haemophilia

A

prolonged APTT
normal PT

51
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis rx

A

folate supplements
splenectomy if severe

52
Q

ITP rx

A

pred
occasionally IV Igs
2nd line splenectomy

53
Q

TTP enzyme

54
Q

coag screen in TTP

A

usually normal as opposed to DIC which presents similarly

55
Q

TTP rx

A

plasma exchange

56
Q

myelodysplastic syndrome can progress to what

57
Q

What presents with massive splenomegaly

A

myelofibrosis
chronic myeloid leukaemia
Malaria

58
Q

what can myelofibrosis progress to

59
Q

Sickle cell prophylaxis of acute events

A

hydroxyurea

60
Q

commonest inherited coag disorder

A

von willebrand

61
Q

von willebrand fbc and coag might show

A

quite normal

62
Q

VW treatment

A

desmopressin
prophylactic TXA prior to surgery

63
Q

Waldenstroms macroglobulinaemia is related to what molecule

A

IgM paraprotein

64
Q

2 features of Waldenstroms

A

reynauds
hyperviscosity features eg visual loss

65
Q

heinz bodies are seen in

66
Q

Rouleaux formation

67
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

hyposplenic or asplenic disorders such as post splenectomy or megalobastic anaemia

68
Q

Schistocytes

A

metallic heart valves or haemolytic anaemia.

69
Q

Raised haemoglobin, plethoric appearance, aquagenic pruritus, splenomegaly, hypertension →

A

polycythaemia vera

70
Q

Polycythaemia vera mutation

A

JAK2 mutation

71
Q

Heparin prolongs

72
Q

warfarin prolongs

73
Q

increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation on blood film

74
Q

What are the few cells that have lymphoid lineage

A

NK cells
Lymphocytes
Plasma cells

75
Q

sickle cell inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

76
Q

first line in polycythaemia vera

A

venesection

77
Q

History of DVT and
painful, heavy calves
pruritus
swelling
varicose veins
venous ulceration

A

Post thrombotic syndrome

78
Q

Most common inherited thrombophilia

A

Factor V leiden

79
Q

microcytosis disproportionate to the anaemia suggets

A

beta thalassaemia trait

80
Q

what happens to transferrin saturation in IDA

81
Q

what type of transfusion has highest risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products

82
Q

Length of treatment in VTE

A

provoked (e.g. recent surgery): 3 months
unprovoked: 6 month

83
Q

Treatment of choice for cancer patients with VTE

84
Q

DOAC reversal agents

A

Rivaroxaban and apixaban- Andexanet

Dabigatran - Idarucizumab

Edoxaban - nil

MSRA (21 decks)

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