PAEDIATRICS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Rathke Cleft Cysts?

AKA?

Where is it found?

T1 and T2 features?

Pathognomic sign?

A
  • AKA: Pars intermedia Cysts (if small and asymptomatic)
  • non-neoplastic
  • sellar or supra sellar epithelium-line cysts arising from the embryologic remant
  • well defined non-enhacing midline cyst within the sella arising between the anterior and intermediate lobes of the pituitary.
  • 40% are purely intrasellar
  • 60% have supra sella extension.
  • Purely suprasellar location, although reported, is rare.
  • T1 = 50% hyper (secondary to high protein content), 50% hypo
  • T2 = 70% are hyperintense, 30% are iso or hypointense.
  • T1 C+ = no contrast enhancement of the cyst is seen.
  • 75% of cases a small non-enhancning intracystic nodule can be identified which is virtually pathognomoic of a Rathke cleft cyst.
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2
Q

What is the dx?

What are 5 causes?

A

Hydraencephaly

Hydranencephaly is a rare encephalopathy that occurs in-utero. It is characterised by destruction of the cerebral hemispheres which are transformed into a membranous sac containing cerebrospinal fluid and the remnants of cortex and white matter 1. Porencephaly is considered a less severe degree of the same pathology 10

Five aetiologies have been described:

  1. infarction: bilateral occlusion of the supraclinoid segment of the internal carotid arteries or of the middle cerebral arteries 3
  2. leukomalacia: an extreme form of leukomalacia formed by confluence of multiple cystic cavities 4
  3. diffuse hypoxic-ischaemic brain necrosis: fetal hypoxia due to maternal exposure to carbon monoxide or butane gas may result in massive tissue necrosis with cavitation and resorption of necrotised tissue 1
  4. infection: necrotising vasculitis or local destruction of the brain tissue secondary to intrauterine infection, e.g. congenital toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex(HSV) infections 1,8
  5. thromboplastic material from a deceased co-twin monochorionic twins have presented with a variety of cerebral lesions. lesions in the recipient twin result from emboli or thromboplastic material originating from the macerated co-twin 4

Case Discussion

There is marked enlargement of fluid spaces with little if any overlying cerebral parenchyma except for the posterior fossa and para medial location along the falx.

The posterior fossa structures are inferiorly displaced and the fourth ventricle is not well seen. Higher cuts demonstrate marked cerebral destruction of both cerebral hemispheres predominately in the distribution mid cerebral arteries with minimal residual tissue identified both anteriorly and posteriorly. The anterior fontanelle is bulging.

This case demonstrates typical CT and ultrasound appearances of hydranencephaly, which is in almost all cases not compatible with significant post natal survival.

https://radiopaedia.org/cases/hydranencephaly-1?lang=us

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3
Q

What is this?

A

Uterus

What are US prepubertal features of the Uterus

The prepubertal uterus has a tubular configuration (AP cervix equal to AP fundus) or sometimes a spade shape (AP cervix larger than AP fundus).

The endometrium is normally not apparent; however, high-frequency transducers can demonstrate the central lining.

The length is 2.5–4 cm; the thickness does not exceed 10 mm.

https: //pubs.rsna.org/doi/pdf/10.1148/radiographics.21.6.g01nv041393
* Figure 2. Prepubertal uterus. (a) Longitudinal US scan obtained in a 5-year-old girl shows a tubular uterus; the anteroposterior diameter is 6 mm. (b) Longitudinal US scan obtained in a 6-year-old girl shows the endometrial lin- ing as a thin echogenic line (arrow).*

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4
Q
  • LUL colapse causes in kids
A
  • FB
  • endobronchia lesion -> carcinoid
  • mucous plug
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5
Q

Three facts about Crossed Renal Ectopia

A
  • 1/1000
  • M:F 2:1
  • 90% are fused.
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6
Q

What is the incidence of Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)?

What is the mortality rate?

What is the most reliable predictor of post natal survival?

What are the clinical symptoms?

What are 3 associated anomalies?

A
  • Incidence: 1/2000-3000 births.
  • Mortality rate: isolated hernias is 60%.
    • Higher when other abnormalities are present.
  • Most reliable predictor of postnatal survival is absence of liver herniation.
  • Respiratory distress occurs in neonatal period.
  • Associated abnormalities include:
      • Pulmonary Hypoplasia
      • CNS abnormalities.
      • NTDs
      • Anencephaly.
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7
Q

What is this?

What sequence should you ask for?

What is it associated with clinically?

A

Band Heterotopia

Ask for:

  • Inversion Recovery Sequence
  • A/W seizures

Case courtesy of Dr Ian Craven, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 78613

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8
Q

What is the modality of choice for DDH and why?

A
  • USS is the modality of choice prior to the ossification of the proximal femoral epiphysis.
  • Once there is a significant ossificaiton then an xray is required.
  • USS is the test of choice in <6 months as the proximal femoral epiphysis has not yet signficantlly ossified.
  • Real time dynamic examinatio allowing the stability of the hip to the assessed with stress views.
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9
Q

3 types of Pulmonary Hypoplasia

A
    • agenesis:
      • complete absence of one or both lungs.
    • Aplasia:
      • abscence of lung except for a rudimentary bronchus that ends in a blind pouch.
  • -Hypoplasia:
    • decrease in the number and size of airways and alveoli: hypoplastic PA.
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10
Q

What is the rule for assessing Splenomegally in paediatric patients?

A

Max splenic size (cm)

  • 1/2 Pts age +6
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11
Q

What is the Hilgenreiner line?

A
  • Drawn horizontally through the superior aspect of both triradiate cartilages.
  • It should be horizontal but is mainly used as a reference for the Perkin line
  • Measurment of the acetabular angle

The Perkins line and Shenton arc on radiography. Anteroposterior radiograph in a 2-year-old girl with left developmental dysplasia of the hip. The Perkins line is drawn perpendicular to the Hilgenreiner line (H line) and intersects the lateral acetabular rim. The Shenton arc is formed by the medial cortex of the femoral neck and the inferior cortex of the superior pubic ramus (dotted lines). The normal right hip shows the femoral head confined to the inferomedial quadrant and a continuous Shenton arc. The abnormal left hip shows the dislocated femoral head within the superolateral quadrant and a discontinuous Shenton arc

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/The-Perkins-line-and-Shenton-arc-on-radiography-Anteroposterior-radiograph-in-a_fig10_337009090

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12
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

Clinical symptoms?

When does it occur?

How do you diagnose it?

A
  • Common cause of stridor in the first year of life.
  • Immature laryngeal cartilage leads to supraglottic collapse during inspiration.
  • Stridor improves with activity and is relieved by propositions or neck extension.
  • Self-limited course.
  • diagnosis is established by fluoroscopy where there is laryngeal collapse with inspiration.

Etiology: congenital cartilage abnormality in larynx

Imaging: dynamic partial supraglottic collapse of the larynx during breathing

https://pediatricimaging.org/diseases/laryngomalacia/

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13
Q

Which has normal Pulmonary Blood flow on CXR?

  • VSD
  • TOF
  • AP window
  • PDA
  • Coarctation
A

(Paeds tute 10.9.20)

Co-arctation

  • PDA > L-> R Shunt -> Plethoric
  • VSD > L-> R Shunt -> Plethoric
  • TOF -> oligaemic
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14
Q

What is a Craniopharyngioma?

A
  • intro
    • relatively benign neoplasms that typically arise in the sellar/suprasellar region.
    • 1-5% of primary brain tumors and can occur anywhere along the infundibulum, from the floor of the 3rd ventricle to the pituitary gland.
    • bimodal distribution 5-15years (adamantinomatous)
    • 40 years (both papillary and adamantinomatous)
    • no gender predilection.
  • Subtypes
    • adamantinomatous (more common)
    • papillary
    • mixed/transitional (imaging and prognosis similar to adamantinomatous).
  • Ddx
    • Intracranial teratoma
      • presence of fat is helpful but requires fat sat sequences or CT to confirm
    • Pituitary macroadenoma
      • can look very similar
      • usually has intrasellar epicenter with pituitary fossa enlargement rather than the suprasellar epicenter
      • don’t usually calcify
    • Rathke cleft cyst
      • no solid or enhancing component
      • calcification is rare
      • unilocular
      • the majority are completely or mostly intrasellar.
    • https://www.facebook.com/watch/?v=557576101663321
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15
Q

Wolffian Duct

A
  • anlage for vas deference, seminal vesicles, epididymis
  • guides ureteral migration to the bladder.
  • induces kidney development and ascent
  • induces Mullerian duct development in females.
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16
Q

Name the following vascular rings.

A
  • Double aortic arch
  • Innominate artery compression
  • Left arch with aberrant right subclavian artery. or right arch with abberant left subclavian artery.
  • Aberrant lefft pulmonary artery (pulmonary sling)
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17
Q

LCH Extraskeleta manifestations

A

Pulmonary Involvement

alveolar disease (exudate of histiocytes)

interstitial pattern (upper lobe pred)

CNS

meningeal involvement

pituitary

RES organs

Liver, spleen, LNS

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18
Q

12 Paediatric Soft tissue tumours

A
  1. Rhabdomyosarcoma
  2. Ewings Sarcoma
  3. Synovial Sarcoma
  4. MPNST
  5. Liposarcoma
  6. Kaposi Sarcoma
  7. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma
  8. Leiomyosarcoma
  9. Epitheliod Sarcoma
  10. GIST
  11. Angiosarcoma
  12. Dermatofibrosarcoma Proteuberans
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19
Q

CHARGE SYNDROME

Which gene?

What are the main characteristics?

A

CHARGE syndrome is a phenotype associated with CHD7 gene mutation originally defined by a constellation of congenital anomalies:

  • C: coloboma
  • H: heart defects
  • A: atresia choanae
  • R: retarded growth and development
  • G: genital hypoplasia
  • E: ear abnormalities and/or deafness

According to updated diagnostic criteria, the most defining features are the 4 C’s:

  • coloboma
  • choanal atresia
  • cranial nerve anomalies (especially olfactory pathway absence)
  • characteristic ear anomalies (especially semicircular canal dysplasia/aplasia)
  • Epidemiology
    • The incidence is 1-12 per 100,000 births 6.
  • Clinical presentation
    • CHARGE syndrome is usually suspected at birth once multiple congenital abnormalities are identified.
  • Diagnosis
    • The diagnosis of CHARGE syndrome can be made on clinical grounds 6,11:
    • definite CHARGE syndrome: 4 major characteristics or 3 major plus 3 minor characteristics
    • possible/probable CHARGE syndrome: one-to-two major characteristics and several minor characteristics
  • Major criteria
    • coloboma (80%): ranges from defect of iris, retina, choroid, or disc, to microphthalmia or anophthalmia
    • choanal atresia/stenosis (45%) or cleft palate (25-50%)
    • cranial nerve anomaly/dysfunction
      • olfactory (90%): hyposmia/anosmia
      • facial (40%): facial palsy
      • vestibulocochlear (95-100%): sensorineural deafness
      • glossopharyngeal or vagal (60-80%): velopharyngeal incoordination for suck/swallow
    • characteristic ear anomalies (some or all of the following) (90%)
      • abnormal auricle: short and wide (lop/cup shaped), absent lobule, truncated helix, prominent antihelix
    • ossicular malformations
      • Mondini malformation
        • absent/hypoplastic semicircular canals
  • Minor criteria
    • urogenital abnormalities
      • kidney
      • duplex kidney
      • renal hypoplasia/solitary kidney
    • penis
      • hypospadias
      • penile agenesis
    • scrotum/testes
      • bifid scrotum
      • cryptorchidism
    • vaginal atresia
    • uterine atresia
    • congenital heart disease
      • tetralogy of Fallot
      • atrioventricular canal defect
      • double outlet right ventricle
    • short stature
    • cleft palate +/- lip
    • esophageal atresia / tracheo-esophageal fistula (~15%) 2
    • characteristic facies
    • developmental delay
  • Pathology
    • CHARGE syndrome is thought to occur due to a disturbance in embryonic differentiation ~35th to 45th day of gestation.

CHARGE syndrome. Axial CT image in a 6-day-old boy (a) shows bilateral bony and membranous choanal atresia with a thickened vomer and medial deviation of the lateral nasal walls at the level of the choanae (black arrows). There are secretions layering within the nasal cavities (*). Axial T2-weighted MRI at 4 days of age (same patient) (b) shows bilateral colobomas (arrowheads). Coronal T2weighted MRI (c) shows that the olfactory apparatus is absent on the right, but intact on the left (curved arrow). Axial CISS (constructive interference in steady state) image (c) shows bilateral absent semicircular canals and hypoplastic vestibules (white arrows). There is also bilateral cochlear nerve aperture and internal auditory canal stenosis

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/CHARGE-syndrome-Axial-CT-image-in-a-6-day-old-boy-a-shows-bilateral-bony-and_fig8_270650182

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20
Q

Causes of nephrocalcinosis

A

Cortical: “COAG”

  • Renal cortical necrosis
  • Oxalosis
  • Alport syndrome
  • (chronic) glomerulonephritis

Medullary:

  • deposition of calcium salts in the medulla of the kidney.
  • Causes “HAM HOP”
    • hyperparathyroidism
    • renal tubular Acidosis
    • Medullary sponge kidney
    • Hyper or hypo thyroidism
    • Oxalosis
    • papillary necrosis
    • Hypervitaminosis D.
    • Milk alkali syndrome
    • Sarcoid
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21
Q

-year-old male presents with hematuria. An MRI scan was performed. Axial and coronal T2-weighted images are shown.

A

There is a polypoid mass in the bladder. The grape-like appearance is characteristic of the botryoid type of rhabdomyosarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcomas are the most common malignant bladder masses in the pediatric population.

Paragangliomas of the bladder may have a similar appearance with a macrolobulated appearance and T2-hyperintense signal, but they are more often seen in patients ages 30 to 60. Hemangiomas are often seen in the setting of other vascular malformations and are similar in appearance to hemangiomas seen elsewhere. Cystitis glandularis may present as nodules on a background of diffuse bladder wall thickening. Bladder neurofibromas are rare and may demonstrate a target appearance on T2-weighted imaging, with central low signal and peripheral high signal.

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22
Q

Epiglottitis

A
  • bacterial infection of the upper airway by H influenza
  • 3-6 years old
  • Rtx with prophylactic intubation for 24-48 hours and antibiotics
  • fever, dysphasia, drooling, sore throat
  • X-ray: thickened aryepiglottic folds, lateral view: thickened epiglottis, subglottic narrowing because of edema
  • 25% indistinguishable from croup on AP view.
  • Distension of hypopharynx.
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23
Q

Tracheal stenosis

A

Three types:

  • diffuse Hypoplasia (30%)
  • Focal ring like stenosis (50%)
  • Funnel like stenosis (20%)
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24
Q

Rathke Cleft Cysts

A
  • AKA: Pars intermedia Cysts (if small and asymptomatic)
  • non-neoplastic
  • sellar or supra sellar epithelium-line cysts arising from the embryologic remants
  • well defined non-enhacing midline cyst within the sella arising between the anterior and intermediate lobes of the pituitary. 40% are purely intrasellar and 60% have supra sella extension. Purely suprasellar location, although reported, is rare.
  • T1 = 50% hyper (secondary to high protein content), 50% hypo
  • T2 = 70% are hyperintense, 30% are iso or hypointense.
  • T1 C+ = nocontrast enhancement of the cyst is seen.
  • 75% of cases a small non-enhacning intracystic nodule can be identified which is virtually pathognomoic of a rathke cleft cyst.
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25
Q

Types of CPAM/CCAM

A
  • Congenital Pulmonary airway Malformation or Congenital Cystic adenomatoid malformation
  • Definition:
    • multi-cystic masses of segmental lung tissue with abnormal bronchial proliferation.
    • Part of the spectrum of bronchopulmonary foregut malformations.
      • Type 0: rare and fatal
      • Type 1: Most common, large Cysts (2-10cm) unilateral
      • Type 2: Common, multiple small cysts (0.5-2cm), associated with other congenital abnormalities.
      • Type 3: Uncommon, large, solid
      • Type 4: uncommon, thin walled, often multifocal, high association with malignancy, specifically pleuropulmonary blastoma.
  • Type 1 and 4 are difficult to differentiate and carry the risk of malignancy (especially type 4).
  • Treatment is resection.
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26
Q

Common mediastinal tumours 2/3 MIDDLE

A
  • Adenopathy
    • leukaemia,
    • lymphoma,
    • tuberculosis
  • BFM
  • Vascular malformations
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27
Q

Uterus

A

The

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28
Q

Osteochondroma DDX

A
  • Hands:
    • bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (BPOP)
    • arises from the bone cortex and lacks medullary continuity.
    • Case courtesy of Dr Matt Skalski, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 30785
  • Humerus:
    • supracondylar spur: projects towards the elbow joint.
  • Malunited fracture.
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29
Q

CHARGE SYNDROME

A
  • Coloboma
  • Heart defects
  • choanal Atresia/Cranial nerve defects (facial nerve palsy), Dysphagia.
  • Retardation of growth and development
  • Gential +/- urinary abnormalities
  • Ear abnormalities

Dx:

  • Definate CHARGE:
    • 4 major characteristics
    • 3 major + 3 minors.
  • POSSIBLE CHARGE:
    • 1 or 2 major characteristics and several minor characteristics
  • https://radiopaedia.org/articles/charge-syndrome
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30
Q

Common orbital lesions

A
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31
Q
  • OSA
A
  • 3% of children
  • Morbidities
    • poor performance in school
    • ADD
    • Excessive daytime sleepiness
    • FTT.
  • Secondary to enlargement of the adenoids and palatine tonsils.
  • Palatine tonsils can be evaluated clinically
  • imaging is limited to a lateral Xray of the airway to evaluate the adenoids which appear as a soft tissue mass in the posterior nasopharynx.
  • criteria for enlargement
    • >12mm and a convex outward anterior border.
    • complete obstruction of the posterior nasopharynx.
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32
Q

Abusive head trauma

A
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33
Q

Subglottic stenosis

A
  • Fixed narrowing at the level of the cricoid. - Failure of laryngeal recanalisation in utero
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34
Q

Common mediastinal tumours 2/3 MIDDLE

A

Adenopathy (leukaemia, lymphoma, tuberculosis) BFM Vascular malformations

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35
Q

VSD

A
  • left to right shunt 1/400 births
  • 40% of CHD
  • more common in neonates
  • right atrial enlargement
  • LVH
  • Plethora
  • Cant see AP window secondary to PAH
  • cx
    • aneurysm to PA
    • eisenmegners -> early oligaemia to apices
  • A/w T21, T18, T13
  • Holt oram syndrome
  • TOF
  • TA
  • coarctation
  • AR
  • PS
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36
Q

Causes of nephrocalcinosis

A

Cortical: “COAG”

  • Renal cortical necrosis
  • Oxalosis
  • Alport syndrome
  • (chronic) glomerulonephritis

Medullary:

  • deposition of calcium salts in the medulla of the kidney.
  • Causes “HAM HOP”
    • hyperparathyroidism
    • renal tubular Acidosis
    • Medullary sponge kidney
    • Hyper or hypo thyroidism
    • Oxalosis
    • papillary necrosis
    • Hypervitaminosis D.
    • Milk alkali syndrome
    • Sarcoid
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37
Q

Uterus

A

The

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38
Q

Ddx High bowel obstruction term neonate

A
  • Gastric atresia
    • single bubble
  • duodenal atresia
    • Double bubble
    • UGIS is performed in those patients with a double bubble
      and distal gas as these findings will inform the diagnosis.
  • duodenal stenosis (including annular pancreas, web, jejunal atresia)
  • Jenunal atresisa
    • tripple bubble
  • malrotation with volvulus
    • The presence of distal gas, alongside a
      history of bilious vomiting, is very important as it may
      represent intestinal malrotation with volvulus, which constitutes
      an emergency, requiring confirmation through an
      urgent UGIS (or other appropriate diagnostic test).
    • UGIS is performed in those patients with a double bubble
      and distal gas as these findings will inform the diagnosis.
    • there is a “corkscrew” of the duodenum and jejunum (Fig 4),
      then the diagnosis of malrotation with volvulus is made.17
      Identification of a “corkscrew” requires notification of the
      on-call surgeon immediately as this patient requires urgent
      surgery.17
    • If there is no corkscrew, but the duodenojejunal (DJ)
      flexure is malpositioned (inferior to the first part of the
      duodenum or to the right of the spine) then malrotation
      without volvulus is diagnosed2 (Fig 5).
    • An incomplete narrowing
      of the duodenum with a “windsock” expansion of
      the duodenum indicates a duodenal web18 (Fig 6).
  • Hypertrophic pylorus (usually slighlty older infants)

Questions to ask self when looking at AXR

  1. Is there distal gas? no - complete, yes - incomplete (duodenal web/stenosis/recent malrotation with volvulus)
  2. single, double or tripple bubble?
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39
Q

Germinal Matrix Haemorrage

A
  • GM is a fetal structure that is a stem source for NEUROBLASTS.
  • Tupically involutes by term but is still present in prem infants within the Caudothalamic groove.
  • Highly vascular and subject to hemorrhage with fluctuation in cerebra blood pressure.
  • Hx most commonly occues in premature infants during the first days after birth.
  • Complications include
    • destruction of the precursor cells within the geminal matrix
    • hydrocephalus
    • hemorrhagic inffection of the surrounding periventricular tissues
40
Q

A 17-year-old male was playing football and fell on his right shoulder and had pain that persisted for several days

A

There is an expansile lesion in the proximal humerus at the metadiaphysis. No pathologic fracture is seen. There are no findings of osteoid or chondroid matrix. The most likely diagnosis is an aneurysmal bone cyst, which is typically found in patients younger than 20 years of age in the long bones at the metadiaphysis. As in this case, radiographs will demonstrate a sharply defined expansile lesion with sclerotic margins.

This MRI demonstrates a T1-bright, multicystic structure in the proximal humerus with multiple fluid-fluid levels and no enhancing soft-tissue components, confirming the diagnosis of an aneurysmal bone cyst. cHONDROBLASTOM, gIANT CELL TUMOUR, OSTEO BLASTOMA AND FIBROUIS DYSPLASIA can be seen with aneurysmal bone cysts except intraosseous lipomas. Intraosseous lipoma does not have ABC formation

41
Q
A
42
Q

RE Dysgenesis of the corpus callosum,

Incidence

Types

Risk factor

Syndromes A/W

CNS abnormalities a/w

A
  • May be PARTIAL or COMPLETE
  • May be PRIMARY AGENESIS or SECONDARY DYSGENESIS
  • Epidemiology
    • 1:20000
    • M:F 2:1.
    • maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy has been recognised as a risk factor
  • Associations
    • Aneuploidys
      • T18, T13, T8
    • Non-aneuploidy syndromes
      • Aicardi
      • Apert
      • Bickers adams Edwards
      • Coffin Siris
      • Fetal alcholo
      • Fryns
      • Gorlin
      • Hydrolethalus
      • Lowe
      • Zellweger
    • Other CNS associations:
      • Chiari II
      • Dandy walker
      • Grey matter heterotopia
      • Holoprosencephaly
      • Hydrocephalus
      • Interhemispheric cysts
      • Intracranial lipoma
      • Polymicrogyria
      • Proencephaly
      • Schizencephaly.
    • Inborn errors of metabolism
      • non-ketotic hyperglycemia
      • pyruvate metabolism disorders.
      • Congeitial lactic acidosis
      • mucopolysaccharidoses
      • Muolipidoses
    • Pathology:
      • insult occuring at approximately 8-12 weeks gestation. The white matter tracts which usually cross the midline, instead are orientated vertically, separating the lateral ventricles widely in a racing car sign configuration. These bundles of white matter PROBST BUNDLES
43
Q

Encephaloceoeleholoprosencephaly

A
44
Q

Pulmonary sequestration: Pathology

A

Nonfunctional pulmonary tissue (nearly always posteromedial segments of the lower lobes). Systemic arterial supply; anomalous arteries from the aorta (or celiac artery). No connection to bronchial tree.

45
Q

TORCH infections

A
  1. Toxoplasmosis,
  2. Rubella,
  3. Cytomegalovirus,
  4. Herpes simplex virus
46
Q

Corner fractures Classic metaphyseal lesions

A

classical metaphyseal lesions

47
Q

middle mediastinal masses

A
  • Foregut Duplication Cysts
  • Nodes
48
Q

Ddx High bowel obstruction term neonate

A
  • Gastric atresia
    • single bubble
  • duodenal atresia
    • Double bubble
    • UGIS is performed in those patients with a double bubble
      and distal gas as these findings will inform the diagnosis.
  • duodenal stenosis (including annular pancreas, web, jejunal atresia)
  • Jenunal atresisa
    • tripple bubble
  • malrotation with volvulus
    • The presence of distal gas, alongside a
      history of bilious vomiting, is very important as it may
      represent intestinal malrotation with volvulus, which constitutes
      an emergency, requiring confirmation through an
      urgent UGIS (or other appropriate diagnostic test).
    • UGIS is performed in those patients with a double bubble
      and distal gas as these findings will inform the diagnosis.
    • there is a “corkscrew” of the duodenum and jejunum (Fig 4),
      then the diagnosis of malrotation with volvulus is made.17
      Identification of a “corkscrew” requires notification of the
      on-call surgeon immediately as this patient requires urgent
      surgery.17
    • If there is no corkscrew, but the duodenojejunal (DJ)
      flexure is malpositioned (inferior to the first part of the
      duodenum or to the right of the spine) then malrotation
      without volvulus is diagnosed2 (Fig 5).
    • An incomplete narrowing
      of the duodenum with a “windsock” expansion of
      the duodenum indicates a duodenal web18 (Fig 6).
  • Hypertrophic pylorus (usually slighlty older infants)

Questions to ask self when looking at AXR

  1. Is there distal gas? no - complete, yes - incomplete (duodenal web/stenosis/recent malrotation with volvulus)
  2. single, double or tripple bubble?
49
Q

-year-old male presents with hematuria. An MRI scan was performed. Axial and coronal T2-weighted images are shown.

A

There is a polypoid mass in the bladder. The grape-like appearance is characteristic of the botryoid type of rhabdomyosarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcomas are the most common malignant bladder masses in the pediatric population.

Paragangliomas of the bladder may have a similar appearance with a macrolobulated appearance and T2-hyperintense signal, but they are more often seen in patients ages 30 to 60. Hemangiomas are often seen in the setting of other vascular malformations and are similar in appearance to hemangiomas seen elsewhere. Cystitis glandularis may present as nodules on a background of diffuse bladder wall thickening. Bladder neurofibromas are rare and may demonstrate a target appearance on T2-weighted imaging, with central low signal and peripheral high signal.

50
Q
A
51
Q

DDH Beta angle

A
  • formed by the vertical cortex of the ilium and the triangular labral fibrocartilages (echogenic triangle).
  • The normal value is less than 77 degrees, but is only useful in assessing immature hips when combined with the alpha angle.
  • There is a great deal of variability in the beta angle (much more than the alpha angle), and as such, it is not universally used.
  • In some instances, the beta angle is necessary to determine the subtype of hip dysplasia (e.g. type Ia vs. Ib, or type IIc vs. type D - see the sonographic classification of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)). The cut off beta angle depends on type 3.
52
Q

Renal embryological Development

A
  • the kidney develops in 3 stages
    • pronephros (3rd week): tubules drain into an excretory duct that terminates in the cloaca
    • Mesonephros (4th week) serves as a precursor for
      • Male: vas deferens, seminal vesicles, ejaculatory duct
      • female: vestigial
    • Metanephros: 5th week:
      • ureteral bud develops from the mesonephric duct, the ureteral bud elongates, undergoes divisions and form real rubes while ascending along the posterior coelomic wall
      • at 12 weeks there are seven anterior and sever posterior renal lobes separated by a fibrous groove.
      • At 28 weeks the boundaries between renal lobes become indistinct
      • persistence of fibrous groove is evident after birth.
        *
53
Q

Common Pediatric Bone Tumors

A

Musculoskeletal System

Common Pediatric Bone Tumors

  • Primary
    • EG
    • Ewing sarcoma
    • OSA
    • Bone cysts
    • Unicameral bone cyst (UBC): single cavity, fallen fragment sign
    • Aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC): eccentric
  • Secondary
    • Neuroblastoma metastases
    • Lymphoma
    • Leukemia
54
Q

LCH:

  • definition and
  • Epidemiology, and
  • pathology
  • Types
A
  • INTRO:
    • Langerhance Cell Histiocytosis is a rare multisyustem disease with a wide and heterogenous clinical specturm and variable extent of involvement.
  • EPID:
    • Peak incidence of 1-3 years.
    • 5/1000000.
    • Male predilection.
  • CLINICAL PRESENTATION:
    • Any part of the body can be effected, therefore clinical presentation varries
    • can be rapidly progressive, or spontaneously regress.
  • Three types
    • Letterer-Siwe Disease
      • Disseminated multiorgan
      • Less the 1 year old
      • fulminant course with poor prognosis.
    • Hand schuller-christian disease
      • multiple lesions solitary organ or multi-organ involvement.
    • Eosinophilic Grnuloma
      • lesions confined to one organ system/solitary lesion
      • 70% bone
      • Best prognosis.
  • Easier Classification (non Eponymous)
    • multiple organ systems, multiple sites involved
    • Single organ system, multiple sites involved
    • single lesion. ​
  • PATHOLOGY
    • uncontrolled monoclonal proliferation of Langerhans cells (monocyte/macrophage lineage)
    • Should be considdered a malignancy. But behavious is variable.
    • Proliferation is accompanied by inflmmationand granuloma formation.
    • Electron microsopy may reveal Birbeck granules.
55
Q

Common mediastinal tumours 1/3 ANTERIOR

A

Thymic hyperplasia Tear to a Malignant lymphoma Cystic hygrometer Thyroid extension Thymomas are extremely rare

56
Q

Renal findings in TS

A
  • Aniogmyolipomas AMLs are an abnormal collection of vessels smooth muscle and fat cells seen in 55 to 75% if TS patients
    • Classically AMLs can be distinguished from other enhancing renal leison by macroscopic fat.
    • Additional renal manifestations include renal cysts renal cell carcinoma, renal oncocytomas and renal failure.
57
Q

What are the signs of VSD on CXR?

A
58
Q

4 Paediatric Tumors With Fluid-Fluid Level

A

Tumors With Fluid-Fluid Level

  1. ABC
  2. Telangiectatic OSA
  3. Giant cell tumor
  4. Single cysts with pathologic fracture
59
Q

Causes of nephrocalcinosis

A

Cortical: “COAG”

  • Renal cortical necrosis
  • Oxalosis
  • Alport syndrome
  • (chronic) glomerulonephritis

Medullary:

  • deposition of calcium salts in the medulla of the kidney.
  • Causes “HAM HOP”
    • hyperparathyroidism
    • renal tubular Acidosis
    • Medullary sponge kidney
    • Hyper or hypo thyroidism
    • Oxalosis
    • papillary necrosis
    • Hypervitaminosis D.
    • Milk alkali syndrome
    • Sarcoid
60
Q

Causes of nephrocalcinosis

A

Cortical: “COAG”

  • Renal cortical necrosis
  • Oxalosis
  • Alport syndrome
  • (chronic) glomerulonephritis

Medullary:

  • deposition of calcium salts in the medulla of the kidney.
  • Causes “HAM HOP”
    • hyperparathyroidism
    • renal tubular Acidosis
    • Medullary sponge kidney
    • Hyper or hypo thyroidism
    • Oxalosis
    • papillary necrosis
    • Hypervitaminosis D.
    • Milk alkali syndrome
    • Sarcoid
61
Q

What are the differentials of a Widened Joint Space in paediatric patients?

A

Widened Joint Space ( Fig. 11.98 )

Widened joint spaces in pediatric patients are most commonly seen in hip joint or shoulders; other joints have strong capsules. Causes of widened joint space include:

  • Joint effusion
    • Septic arthritis
    • Hemarthrosis (intraarticular fracture, hemophiliac)
    • Transient toxic synovitis (viral)
    • JRA
  • Synovial thickening without articular cartilage destruction
    • JRA
    • Hemophiliac arthropathy
62
Q

Congenital Lobar emphysema

What are the causes?

What is an association?

A
  • Idiopathic (50%)
  • Obstruction of airway with valve mechanism (50%)
    • Bronchial cartilage deficiency or immaturity
    • mucus
    • web
    • stenosis
    • Extrinisic compression
  • Progressive overdistention of one or more pulmonary lobes but usually not the entire lung.
  • 10% of patients have CHD (patent ductus arteriosus [PDA] and ventricular septal defect [VSD]).
63
Q

Right Isomerism

A
  • Asplenia
  • Bilat RMB
  • Midline liver
64
Q

CPAM: radiographic features

A

Multiple cystic pulmonary lesions of variable size. Air fluid levels in cysts. Vasriable thickness of cyst wall.

65
Q

ant mediastinal masses

A

4Ts

  • Teratoma
  • Thymoma
  • Thyroid
  • Terrible Lymphoma

Thymus -> The great mimick

Lobulated Contour

66
Q
  • Intrinsic and extrinsic causes of lower air way obstruction
A
    • 1st step in workup is an AP and lateral xray to ix wheeze (when asthma thought unlikely). Xray is to exclude cause of upper airway obstruction, evaluate for other processes that can cause wheezing(ie cardiac disease) and to help categorize the abnormality as being more likely to be an intrinsic or an extrinsic airway process.
  • Look for
    • evidence of tracheal narrowing,
    • position of the aortic arch
    • asymmetric lung aeration
    • radiopaque foreign body
    • consolidation
  • Intrinsic:
    • Bronchial foreign body
    • Tracheomalacia
    • Intrinsic masses
    • if it is one of these - > bronchoscopy
  • Extrinsic:
    • extrinsic mass
    • vascular ring
    • if it is one of these -> Crossesctional imaging.
      *
67
Q

Perkin LIne

A

perpendicular to the hilgenreiner line, intersecting the lateral most aspect of the acetabuylar roof. The upper femoral epiphysis should be seen in the inferomedial quadrant.

68
Q

What are the main characteristics of the different Chiari Malformations?

What is an association of each type of chiari?

A

The SHORT Overview of Chiari Malformations

  • Chiari I =
    • downward displacement of cerebellar tonsils below foramen magnum (>5 mm);
    • unrelated to Chiari II malformation
  • Chiari II =
    • abnormal neurulation leads to a small posterior fossa,
    • caudal displacement of brainstem and
    • herniation of tonsils and vermis through the foramen magnum;
    • myelomeningocele
  • Chiari III =
    • encephalocele and
    • Chiari II findings (rare)
  • https://www.drawittoknowit.com/course/pathology/neurological-pathologies/developmental-disorders/1418/hindbrain-malformations

THE LONG

Chiari 1

  • Intermittent compression of the brainstem:
    • Nerve palsies
    • Atypical facial pain
    • Respiratory depression
    • Long tract signs
  • Associations
    • Syringohydromyelia, 50%;
      • weakness of hands, arms, loss of tendon reflexes
    • Hydrocephalus, 25%
    • Basilar invagination, 30%
    • Klippel-Feil anomaly: fusion of 2 or more cervical vertebrae, 10%
    • Atlantooccipital fusion, 5%
  • Imaging Features
    • Tonsillar herniation (ectopia is 3–5 mm, herniation is >5 mm) is age dependent.
    • Syringohydromyelia
    • No brain anomalies

CHIARI 2

  • Most common in newborns
  • Associations
    • Myelomeningocele, 90%
    • Obstructive hydrocephalus, 90%
    • Dysgenesis of corpus callosum
    • Syringohydromyelia, 50%
    • Abnormal cortical gyration
    • Chiari II is not associated with Klippel-Feil anomaly or Chiari I.
  • Imaging Features ( Fig. 6.73 )
    • Posterior fossa
      • Small posterior fossa
      • Cerebellar vermis herniated through foramen (verminal peg)
      • Upward herniation of cerebellum through widened incisure (towering cerebellum)
      • Cerebellum wraps around pons (heart shape).
      • Low, widened tentorium
      • Obliterated CPA cistern and cisterna magna
      • Nonvisualization or very small fourth ventricle
    • Supratentorium ( Fig. 6.74 )
      • Hypoplastic or fenestrated falx causes interdigitation of gyri (gyral interlocking).
      • Small, crowded gyri (stenogyria), 50%
      • Hydrocephalus almost always present before shunting.
      • Bat wing configuration of frontal horns (caused by impressions by caudate nucleus), enlarged atria and occipital horns (colpocephaly)
      • Small, biconcave third ventricle (hourglass shape because of large massa intermedia)
      • Beaked tectum
  • Osseous abnormalities
    • Lückenschädel skull (present at birth, disappears later)
    • Scalloped clivus and petrous ridge (pressure effect)
    • Enlarged foramen magnum
  • Spinal cord
    • Myelomeningocele, 90%
    • Cervicomedullary kink at foramen magnum (pressure effect)
    • Syringohydromyelia and diastematomyelia
69
Q

USD CXR

A
70
Q

What is this??

What are the different types?

What can be useful on CT to determine the different types?

A

Choanal Atresia

  • Membranous or bony obstruction of the nasal passage in the newborn.
  • If bilateral, respiratory distress at birth as newborns are obligate nasal breathers.
  • Failure to pass small catheter through nasal cavity.

CT: findings of enlarged vomer and medial bowing of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity are useful to distinguish bony atresia from membranous.

Axial Ct widening of the vomer (long arrow), bowing of the posteromedial maxilla (short arrow), and narrowing of the choana anterior to the pterygoid.

https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Axial-Ct-widening-of-the-vomer-long-arrow-bowing-of-the-posteromedial-maxilla-short_fig7_51505685

71
Q

Intro

Incidence

Arises from?

Clinical findings?

% metastatic at presentation?

A
  • Most common abdominal malignancy in the newborn;
  • rare tumor (incidence 1 : 30,000).
  • Arises in neural crest tissue (adrenal medulla, sympathetic neural system, Zuckerkandl).
  • Age: 2 years, better prognosis <1 year
  • Clinical Findings
    • Elevated vanillymandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA)
    • May cause paraneoplastic syndrome
  • Radiographic Features
    • Solid tumor
    • Hyperechoic by US
    • Calcification in 85%
    • Readily extends across midline
    • Frequently encases vessels
  • 65% are metastatic at initial presentation;
  • common extensions include:
    • Bone
    • Neural foramina (evaluate)
    • Lymph nodes
    • Liver, lung (uncommon)
  • Case courtesy of Rad_doc, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 47939
72
Q

What is this?

What is the underlying pathology?

What is the most common location?

A
  • Results from abnormal budding of the tracheobronchial tree.
  • Cysts contain respiratory epithelium.
  • Location
      • mediastinum (85%
        • Posterior>
        • middle >
        • anterior)
      • lung (15%)
  • Case courtesy of Assoc Prof Frank Gaillard, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 6313
73
Q

Ddx low bowel obstruction term neonate

A
  • Anorectal malformations
  • Hirschprungs
  • ileal atresia
  • meconium ileus
  • meconium plug
  • colonic atresia
74
Q

Tracheal stenosis

A

Three types: - diffuse Hypoplasia (30%) - Focal ring like stenosis (50%) - Funnel like stenosis (20%)

75
Q

Right Isomerism

A
  • Asplenia
  • Bilat RMB
  • Midline liver
76
Q

Gonadal tumours

A
  • Germ cell tumours
    • originate from reproductive cells, cancerous or noncancerous. Gonadal or extragonadal
      • Seminoma
        • most common testicular tumours and account forr 45% of all primary testicular tumours. Can occur in the anterior mediastinal
        • risk factors:
          • undescended testes 10-40x increased risk
          • previous tumour in other testes
          • Fhx
          • Testicular microlithiasis
          • HIV, Mumps, orchitis, trauma, organ transplan immunosuppression.
        • painless testicular mass.
        • 15% have elevated hcg
      • non-seminomatous
        • Tumour of totipotential cells
          • Embryonal carcinoma
            • Extra embryonic
              • Trophoblast
                • Choriocarcinoma
                  • rare and carries worst prognosis
              • yolk sac
                • yold sac carcinoma
            • embryonic (teratoma)
              • Contains Ecto, Meso and endoderm
              • Mature
              • Immature
              • Teratoma with malignant transformation
          • Mixed GCT
            • is the most common type of NSGCT
            • 40 of all germ cell tumours
            • most common combo is teratoma and embryonal cell carcinoma.
  • Not actually GCT but similar
    • Epidermoid cyst (ectoderm only)
    • dermoid cyst (ecto and meso)
    • Fetus in fetu (fetiform teratoma)
    • Struma ovarii tumour
      • subtype of ovairan teratoma
      • entirly or predominantly of thyroid tissue with variable sized follicles with colloid material.
77
Q

Neuronal migrational abnormalities

A
78
Q
A
79
Q

Umbilical arterial Catheter

A

Thru the umbilicus, travel inferiorly thru the umbilical artery, then int hte anterior division of the internal iliac artery, into the common iliac artery and then into the aorta. Tip position should either be: 1/ high at the T6 - T10 level or in the 2/low position L3/L5. Intermediate positions are generally undersirable due to potential associated throboosies of major aortic branches between T10 to L3.

80
Q

Five types of radiographic patterns of viral pneumonia

A
  1. Bronchiolits - normal chest X-ray, overaeration is only diagnostic clue. Commonly caused by RSV 2. Bronchiolitis + Parahilar, peribronchial opacities (most common) dirty perihilar regions caused by peribronchial cuffing. HIlar adenopathy. 3. Bronchiolitis + atelectasis (common). Disordered pattern with atelectasis. Areas of hyperaeration. Parahilar and peribronchial opacities 4. Reticulonodular interstitial (rare). Interstitial pattern. 5. Hazy lungs. Rare. Diffuse increase in density.
81
Q

NEC

A
  • Pneumatosis Soap bubble/linear
  • PV gas
  • extra Luminal gas
  • distended
82
Q

Osteochondroma Pathology

A

condroid neoplasm, primarily part of the growth plate which separates and continues growing independantly, without an associated epiphysis, usually away from the nearby joint. The medullary cavity is continuous with the parent bone and hyaline cartilage caps them. Osteochonromas can be congenital or occur as a result of previous tranuma to the growth plate, including previous irratiation. Lower limb 50%.Upper limb 10-20%. spine (posteiror elements of the spine)

83
Q

fibromatosis Coli

A
  • benign fibrous mass of the SCM
  • AKA: SCM pseudotumour of infancy
  • focal thickening of the SCM A/w
  • Increased Vascularity
  • Iso/hypoechoic ill defined
  • clinically toritcollosis
  • R>L unilater
  • Rx with Phsyo/sontaneous regression
84
Q

HIE

A

Post IC

CC
Pre and post central sulcus

Term neonate.

Hypoxia at birth

85
Q

LCH:

  • definition and
  • Epidemiology, and
  • pathology
  • Types
A
  • INTRO:
    • Langerhance Cell Histiocytosis is a rare multisyustem disease with a wide and heterogenous clinical specturm and variable extent of involvement.
  • EPID:
    • Peak incidence of 1-3 years.
    • 5/1000000.
    • Male predilection.
  • CLINICAL PRESENTATION:
    • Any part of the body can be effected, therefore clinical presentation varries
    • can be rapidly progressive, or spontaneously regress.
  • Three types
    • Letterer-Siwe Disease
      • Disseminated multiorgan
      • Less the 1 year old
      • fulminant course with poor prognosis.
    • Hand schuller-christian disease
      • multiple lesions solitary organ or multi-organ involvement.
    • Eosinophilic Grnuloma
      • lesions confined to one organ system/solitary lesion
      • 70% bone
      • Best prognosis.
  • Easier Classification (non Eponymous)
    • multiple organ systems, multiple sites involved
    • Single organ system, multiple sites involved
    • single lesion. ​
  • PATHOLOGY
    • uncontrolled monoclonal proliferation of Langerhans cells (monocyte/macrophage lineage)
    • Should be considdered a malignancy. But behavious is variable.
    • Proliferation is accompanied by inflmmationand granuloma formation.
    • Electron microsopy may reveal Birbeck granules.
86
Q

cloaca

A
  • Divided into cloacal (urorectal) septum into:
    • a dorsal portion (rectum)
    • a ventral portion (allantois)
      • atrophies as umbilical ligament, bladder, urogenital sinus (pelvic and phallic portions)
    • Wolffian and Mullerian ducts drain into the ventral portion of the cloaca
87
Q

Bronchogenic Cyst: radiographic features

A

Well defined round mass, in sub cardinal/parabolas region. Pulmonary cysts commonly located in medial third of lung. Initially no communication with the tracheobronchial tree Cysts are thin walled Can be fluid or air filled.

88
Q

CHARGE SYNDROME

A
  • Coloboma
  • Heart defects
  • choanal Atresia/Cranial nerve defects (facial nerve palsy), Dysphagia.
  • Retardation of growth and development
  • Gential +/- urinary abnormalities
  • Ear abnormalities

Dx:

  • Definate CHARGE:
    • 4 major characteristics
    • 3 major + 3 minors.
  • POSSIBLE CHARGE:
    • 1 or 2 major characteristics and several minor characteristics
  • https://radiopaedia.org/articles/charge-syndrome
89
Q
A
90
Q

Osteochondroma Presentation

A

mechanical effects of the lesion, frature or malignant transformation. Impingement, lump, bursal formation or bursitis.

91
Q

CMV

A

Can be just generalised WM abnormal signal.

More typically periventricular calc.

92
Q

Splenomegally

rule

paeds

A

Max splenic size (cm)

  • 1/2 Pts age +6
93
Q

MEC Plug Syndrome

A

Meconium Plug Sydrome

  • functional obst 2° retention of mech plugs neonates of m° w diabetes
  • Enema for dx & rx
94
Q

Subglottic stenosis

A
  • Fixed narrowing at the level of the cricoid. - Failure of laryngeal recanalisation in utero
95
Q

Neuro tumours

A
  • Gliomas
    • astrocytomas
    • ependymomas
  • Medulloblastoma
  • Retinoblastoma
    • heritable form
    • Non-heritable (unilateral)
    • There is a lobulated mass within the right globe that is T1-hyperintense and heterogeneously T2-hypointense relative to vitreous fluid, and which displays restricted diffusion and contrast enhancement. There is retinal detachment with associated hemorrhage, resulting in a fluid/fluid level in the right globe seen on the T2-weighted images.

Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular childhood malignancy, with a median presentation of 12 months. It can be sporadic (approximately 60% of cases), which requires two spontaneous mutations of the retinoblastoma protein tumor suppressor gene (RB), or it can be familial, due to a single spontaneous mutation in combination with an inherited germline mutation.

Retinoblastomas appear as mixed calcified and noncalcified soft-tissue intraocular masses. CT and ultrasound are good for depicting intralesional calcifications. On MRI, they will appear as a T1-hyperintense, T2-hypointense mass relative to vitreous fluid. Retinoblastomas will restrict on diffusion imaging given that they have a high cellular content as they fall within the class of small blue round cell tumors. The contralateral globe, pineal region, and suprasellar regions need to be carefully evaluated for the presence of additional sites of disease.

Coats disease is characterized by progressive retinal detachment by exudative sub retinal collections and is not typically associated with enhancement, restricted diffusion or calcification.

A coloboma is congenital malformation characterize by failure of closure of the choroidal fissure and is seen as a small globe with a posterior defect with vitreous herniation.

Astrocytic hamartomas are benign retinal tumors associated with tuberous sclerosis.

Retinopathy of prematurity is found in premature infants and seen as vascular proliferation with asymmetrically small globes.

  • DNET
    • dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumour
96
Q

A 4-year-old female with a history of seizures presents with altered mental status. A noncontrast-enhanced CT scan of the head was performed. Axial image is shown

A

CT demonstrates extensive periventricular calcifications. Periventricular calcifications are most characteristic of CMV, which is the most common TORCH infection. Polymicrogyria also may occur.

Toxoplasmosis calcifications of the basal ganglia with hydrocephalus.

Rubella demonstrates ischemia with high T2 signal on MRI.

HSV may result in hemorrhagic infarct, with resulting encephalomalacia.

HIV also results in atrophy, predominantly in a frontal distribution.

97
Q

Toddlers fracture

A

Minimally or undisplaced spiral fracture, usually of the tibia. Does not include spiral femoral fracutes, which should raise suspicion of NAI. Typically occur between 9months and 3 years, result of new stress placed on the bone dure to recent and increasing ambulation.