CHEST IMAGING 4 (TUMOURS) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 locations of chest tumours?

A

General
Location
Chest neoplasms are best categorized by their primary location:

  • Lung tumors
  • Pleural tumors
  • Mediastinal tumors
  • Tumors of the airway
  • Chest wall tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 malignant pulmonary neoplasms

A

Malignant tumors
• Bronchogenic carcinoma
• Lymphoma
• Metastases
• Sarcomas, rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 Low Grade Pulmonary Neoplastic Low-grade malignancies (previously bronchial adenoma)

A

Low-grade malignancies (previously bronchial adenoma)
• Carcinoid, 90%
• Adenoid cystic carcinoma (previously cylindroma, resembles salivary gland tumor), 6%
• Mucoepidermoid carcinoma, 3%
• Pleomorphic carcinoma, 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

9 Benign Pulmonary Neoplasms

A

Benign tumors, rare
• Hamartoma
• Papilloma
• Leiomyoma
• Hemangioma
• Chemodectoma
• Pulmonary blastoma
• Chondroma
• Multiple pulmonary fibroleiomyomas
• Pseudolymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Contraindications to Percut Lung bx:

A
  • Severe COPD
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Coagulopathy
  • Contralateral pneumonectomy
  • Suspected echinococcal cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rate of Tumour Seeding in Percut Bx

A

Tumor seeding is extremely uncommon (1 in 20,000).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True positive rate of Percut Bx

A

90%–95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

False positive cause of Percut bx

A

poor needle placement, necrotic tissue, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the technique for Percut lung bx?

A

Technique
1. Fluoroscopic or CT localization of nodule
2. Pass needle over superior border of rib to avoid intercostal vessels
3. Avoid traversing pulmonary veins and crossing fissure
4. Coaxial needle system:
• 19-gauge introducer needle
• 20-gauge core biopsy needle with 1–2-cm needle throw
5. Cytopathologist should be present to determine if sample is adequate and diagnostic.
6. CXR after procedure to determine presence of pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the Complications of Percut lung bx?

A
  • Pneumothorax, 25%; 5%–10% of patients require a chest tube (i.e., pneumothorax >25% or if patient is symptomatic)
  • Hemoptysis
  • Systemic air embolism: extremely rare but most serious complication, approximately 0.02%–0.7%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Bronchogenic Carcinoma?

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma refers broadly to any carcinoma of the bronchus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common type of Bronchogenic Carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma (40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the classification of Lung adenocarcinoma?

A
  • Adenocarcinoma insitu
  • Minimally invasive Adenocarcinoma
  • Lepidic Predominant nonmucinous adenocarcinoma
  • Invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Atypical Adenomatous hyperplasia? What does it typically look like?

A

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia is one of the preinvasive lesions for adenocarcinoma of the lung:
• Typically a ground-glass nodule less than 5 mm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the different types of Bronchogenic Carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma 40%
• in situ
• Minimally Invasive
• Lepidic Pred. Nonmucinous
• Invasive mucinous (previously mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma)
Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
SCC, 30%:

• Spindle cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma, 15%:
• Oat cell
• Intermediate cell type
• Combined oat cell carcinoma
Large cell carcinoma, 1%:
• Giant cell carcinoma
• Clear cell carcinoma
Adenosquamous tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 risk factors for lung cancer?

A

Risk Factors for Bronchogenic Carcinoma

THE SHORT

  • Smoking:
  • Radiation, uranium mining
  • Asbestos exposure
  • Genetic predisposition (HLA-Bw44 associated?)

THE LONG

  • Smoking: 98% of male patients and 87% of female patients with lung cancer smoke; 10% of heavy smokers will develop lung cancer. The strongest relationship between smoking and cancer has been established for SCC, followed by adenocarcinoma.
  • Radiation, uranium mining
  • Asbestos exposure
  • Genetic predisposition (HLA-Bw44 associated?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the rad findings of Lung cancer?

A
  • Radiographic Spectrum/Primary Signs of Malignancy ( Fig. 1.32 )
    • Mass (>6 cm) or nodule (<6 cm) with spiculated, irregular borders
    • Unilateral enlargement of hilum: mediastinal widening, hilar prominence
    • Cavitation
      • Most common in ULs or superior segments of LLs
      • Wall thickness is indicative of malignancy
        • < 4 mm: 95% of cavitated lesions are benign
        • >15 mm: 85% of cavitated lesions are malignant
      • Cavitation is most common in SCC
    • Certain tumors may present as chronic ASD:
      • adenocarcinoma,
      • lymphoma
    • Some air bronchograms are commonly seen by HRCT in adenocarcinoma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the secondary signs of Lung cancer?

A

Secondary Signs of Malignancy ( Fig. 1.33 )

  • Atelectasis (Golden inverted S sign in RUL, LUL collapse)
  • Obstructive pneumonia
  • Pleural effusion
  • Interstitial patterns: lymphangitic tumor spread
  • Hilar and mediastinal adenopathy
  • Metastases to ipsilateral, contralateral lung
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the typical locations of the following tumours?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the characteristic Appearance of:

  1. Adenocarcinoma
  2. Large cell
  3. SCC
  4. Small cell
A
  1. Adenocarcinoma -> Scar Carcinoma
  2. Large cell -> Large mass
  3. SCC -> Cavitatory
  4. Small cell -> Endocrine syndromes/activitiy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the 5 paraneoplastic Syndromes of Lung cancer

A
  • Metabolic
    • Cushing syndrome (ACTH)
    • Inappropriate antidiuresis (ADH)
    • Carcinoid syndrome (serotonin, other vasoactive substances)
    • Hypercalcemia (PTH, bone metastases)
    • Hypoglycemia (insulin-like factor)
  • Musculoskeletal
    • Neuromyopathies
    • Clubbing of fingers (HPO)
  • Other
    • Acanthosis nigricans
    • Thrombophlebitis
    • Anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the incidence of paraneoplastic syndromes in bronchogenic carcinoma

A

Incidence: 2% of bronchogenic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Radiation Pneumonitis

What is it?

When does it appear?

What is the min dose to get it?

A

Radiation Pneumonitis

  • Radiation pneumonitis is the acute phase of radiation damage and usually appears 3 weeks after treatment.
  • The minimum radiation dose to induce pneumonitis is 30 Gy.
  • The acute phase is typically asymptomatic but may be associated with fever and cough.
  • Fibrosis usually occurs after 6–12 months.

Radiographic Features

  • Diffuse opacities in radiation port
  • HRCT allows better assessment of extent than plain radiograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RE: Lung cancer (staging - IASLC 8th edition)

What is the T1 stage split up into?

A
  • Tx: primary tumour cannot be assessed or tumour proven by the presence of malignant cells in sputum or bronchial washings but not visualised by imaging or bronchoscopy
  • T0: no evidence of a primary tumour
  • Tis: carcinoma in situ - tumour measuring 3 cm or less and has no invasive component at histopathology
  • T1:
    • tumour measuring 3 cm or less in greatest dimension surrounded by lung or visceral pleura without bronchoscopic evidence of invasion more proximal than the lobar bronchus (i.e. not in the main bronchus)
      • T1a(mi):
        • minimally invasive adenocarcinoma
          • tumour has an invasive component measuring 5 mm or less at histopathology
      • T1a ss:
        • superficial spreading tumour in central airways
        • (spreading tumour of any size but confined to the tracheal or bronchial wall)
      • T1a:
        • tumour ≤1 cm in greatest dimension
      • T1b:
        • tumour >1 cm but ≤2 cm in greatest dimension
      • T1c:
        • tumour >2 cm but ≤3 cm in greatest dimension

https://radiologyassistant.nl/chest/lung-cancer/tnm-classification-8th-edition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the features of a T2 cancer

A
  • Tumor size >3cm to ≤5cm or
    • Tumor of any size that
    • invades the visceral pleura
    • involves main bronchus, but not the carina
    • shows an atelectasis or obstructive pneumonitis that extends to the hilum
  • T2a= >3 to 4cm
  • T2b= >4 to 5cm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the Features of a T3 tumour

A
  • T3: tumour >5 cm but ≤7 cm in greatest dimension or
  • Pancoast tumour that involves T1 and T2 nerve roots only
  • associated with separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe as the primary tumour or
  • directly invades any of the following structures:
    • chest wall (including the parietal pleura and superior sulcus)
    • phrenic nerve
    • parietal pericardium

https://radiologyassistant.nl/chest/lung-cancer/tnm-classification-8th-edition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the features of a T4 tumour:

A
  • Tumor size >7cm or
    • Pancoast tumor that involves:
      • C8 or higher nerve roots,
      • brachial plexus,
      • subclavian vessels or
      • spine
    • Tumor of any size that
      • invades mediastinal fat or mediastinal structures
      • invades the diaphragm
      • involves the carina
      • shows one or more satellite nodules in another lobe on the ipsilateral side

https://radiologyassistant.nl/chest/lung-cancer/tnm-classification-8th-edition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What Does Nx mean?

A

N: regional lymph node involvement

Nx: regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0: no regional lymph node metastasis

N1: metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary nodes, including involvement by direct extension

N2: metastasis in ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s)

N3: metastasis in contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph node(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does N0 Mean?

A

N: regional lymph node involvement

Nx: regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0: no regional lymph node metastasis

N1: metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary nodes, including involvement by direct extension

N2: metastasis in ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s)

N3: metastasis in contralateral mediastinal, contralateral hilar, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph node(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does N1 mean?

A

N1: metastasis in ipsilateral peribronchial and/or ipsilateral hilar lymph nodes and intrapulmonary nodes, including involvement by direct extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does N2 Mean?

A

N2: metastasis in ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal lymph node(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does N3 mean?

A

N3:

  • metastasis in:
    • contralateral mediastinal,
    • contralateral hilar,
    • ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or
    • supra-clavicular lymph node(s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is M1 disease?

A

M: distant metastasis

M0: no distant metastasis

M1: distant metastasis present

M1a: separate tumour nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe; tumour with pleural or pericardial nodule(s) or malignant pleural or pericardial effusions

M1b: single extrathoracic metastasis, involving a single organ or a single distant (nonregional) node

a single extrathoracic metastasis has a better survival and different treatment choices, which is why it has now been staged separately

M1c: multiple extrathoracic metastases in one or more organs

34
Q

What is M1a disease?

A

M1a:

  • separate tumour nodule(s) in a contralateral lobe;
  • tumour with pleural or pericardial nodule(s) or
  • malignant pleural or pericardial effusions
35
Q

What is M1b Disease?

A
  • M1b:
    • single extrathoracic metastasis,
      • involving a single organ or a single distant (nonregional) node
      • a single extrathoracic metastasis has a better survival and different treatment choices, which is why it has now been staged separately
36
Q

What is M1c Disease?

A

M1c: multiple extrathoracic metastases in one or more organs

37
Q

Describe Small Cell Lung Cancer Staging

A

Traditionally a two-stage system had been used for SCLC:

“limited” and “extensive.”

  • Limited disease:
    • is confined to one lung with
    • ipsilateral lymph node metastasis (can be encompassed by a single radiation port) and has
    • better prognosis.
  • Extensive stage
    • metastases to the contralateral lung and nodes or distant organs (including the pleura).
    • About two-thirds of patients with SCLC present at the extensive stage at the time of initial diagnosis.
  • The International Committee for the Study of Lung Cancer now recommends that SCLC be staged with the eighth edition of the American Joint Committee on Cancer’s TNM staging system.
38
Q

What is Small Cell lung cancer known for?

What percent of lung cancers is Small Cell?

A

Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) accounts for 15% of all lung cancers

Known for its:

  • rapid growth rate
  • its early dissemination to regional lymph nodes and distant sites.
39
Q

Lable this diagram with the correct LN stations:

A

Regional Lymph Node Classification System

  • Lymph node staging is done according to the American Thoracic Society mapping scheme.
  • Supraclavicular nodes
      1. Low cervical, supraclavicular and sternal notch nodes
  • Superior mediastinal nodes
      1. Upper Paratracheal: above the aortic arch, but below the clavicles.
    • 3A. Pre-vascular: nodes not adjacent to the trachea like the nodes in station 2, but anterior to the vessels.
    • 3P. Pre-vertebral: nodes not adjacent to the trachea, but behind the esophagus, which is prevertebral (3P).
  • Inferior Mediastinal nodes
      1. Lower Paratracheal (including Azygos Nodes): below upper margin of aortic arch down to level of main bronchus.
  • Aortic nodes
      1. Subaortic (A-P window): nodes lateral to ligamentum arteriosum. These nodes are not located between the aorta and the pulmonary trunk, but lateral to these vessels.
      1. Para-aortic (ascending aorta or phrenic): nodes lying anterior and lateral to the ascending aorta and the aortic arch.
  • Subcarinal nodes
      1. Subcarinal.
  • Inferior Mediastinal nodes
      1. Paraesophageal (below carina).
      1. Pulmonary Ligament: nodes lying within the pulmonary ligaments.
  • Pulmonary nodes
    • 10-14. N1-nodes: these are located outside of the mediastinum.
  • The boundary between level 10 and level 4 is on the right the lower border of the azygos vein and on the left the upper border of the pulmonary artery (N1 vs. N2).
  • There is an important separation to be made between level 1 and level 2/3 nodes, because it is N3-stage versus N2.
  • The lower border of level 1 is the clavicles bilaterally and, in the midline, the upper border of the manubrium.
  • The boundary between level 4R and 4L is the left lateral border of the trachea, and not the anatomic midline.
  • Paracardial, internal mammarian, diaphragmatic, axillary and intercostal lymph nodes are not described in the IALSC lymph node map.
  • Occasionally these can be present.
  • It is proposed to regard these non-regional nodes as metastastic disease [2].
  • CT is unrealiable in staging lymph nodes in patients with NSCLC regardless of the threshold size that is chosen.
  • PET-CT is much more reliable in determining the N-status.
  • False-positives occur in patients with sarcoid, tuberculosis and other infections.
  • Because of the high negative predictive value, PET scanning should be performed in all patients considered for surgery.
40
Q

What are the N1 Nodes?

A

Fig 1Lymph node stations in the N1 region (A, right side; B, left side). The location of each station is defined in relation to the bronchial structure as main bronchial (No. 10), interlobar (No. 11), lobar (No. 12), segmental bronchial (No. 13), and intrapulmonary (No. 14), regardless of the pleural reflection. For the right side, No. 11s(superior, between the upper and intermediate bronchi) and No. 11i (inferior, between the middle and lower bronchi) are distinguished.

The boundary between level 10 and level 4 is on the right the lower border of the azygos vein and on the left the upper border of the pulmonary artery (N1 vs. N2).

https://www.annalsthoracicsurgery.org/article/S0003-4975(00)01817-8/fulltext

41
Q

What is the CT Criterion for Abnormal Nodes?

What is the % accuracy?

A

CT Criterion for Abnormal Nodes

  • Short-axis lymph node diameter >1 cm
  • (60%–70% accuracy for differentiating between malignant and benign adenopathy)
42
Q

What are the signs and accuracy of Chest wall invasion?

A

Chest Wall Invasion

Accuracy for detection of chest wall invasion by CT is 40%–60%.

Radiographic Features ( Fig. 1.37 )

  • Reliable signs
    • Soft tissue mass in chest wall
    • Bone destruction
  • Unreliable signs
    • Obtuse angles at contact between tumor and pleura
    • >3 cm of contact between tumor and pleura
    • Pleural thickening
    • Increased density of extrapleural fat
43
Q

What are the signs and implications of mediastinal invasion?

A

Mediastinal Invasion

  • Contiguous invasion of mediastinal organs, heart, great vessels, aerodigestive tract, and vertebra indicates nonresectability.

Radiographic Features

  • Diaphragmatic paralysis (phrenic nerve involvement)
  • Mediastinal mass with encasement of mediastinal structures
  • MRI may be useful to detect vascular invasion.
44
Q

What does the prescence of a malignant pleural effusion imply?

What are the rates of malignant pleural effusion for:

Bronchogenic ca?

Mets

Lymphoma?

A
  • Malignant Pleural Effusion
    • Development of pleural effusions usually indicates a poor prognosis.
    • Presence of a documented malignant pleural effusion makes a tumor unresectable (M1).
  • Incidence of pleural effusion:
    • Bronchogenic carcinoma, 50%
    • Metastases, 50%
    • Lymphoma, 15%
45
Q

What are the signs of malignant involvement of the pericardium?

What test is best?

A

Pericardial Metastasis

Pericardial effusion with enhanced nodules is highly suggestive of malignant involvement of the pericardium.

CT and MRI findings are inconclusive for determination of benign versus malignant pleural and pericardial disease. Fluorodeoxyglucose positron emission tomography (FDG PET) has been shown to have high sensitivity in detecting pleural malignancy.

46
Q

What is the pathogenesis of malignant pleural effusions?

A

Pathogenesis of Malignant Effusions

  • Pleural invasion increases capillary permeability.
  • Lymphatic or venous obstruction decreases clearance of pleural fluid.
  • Bronchial obstruction → atelectasis → decrease in intrapleural pressure.
47
Q

What are the signs of central bronchial involvement?

What Makes it T4?

A

Central Bronchial Involvement

Tumors that involve a central bronchus usually cause lung collapse or consolidation.

These tumors are considered unresectable (T4 tumors) only if they involve the carina.

48
Q

What are common sites of metastases to other organs?

A
  • Metastases to Other Organs
    • Lung tumors most frequently metastasize to:
      • Liver (common)
      • Adrenal glands (common)
      • 30% of adrenal masses in patients with adenocarcinoma are adenomas.
      • Most adrenal masses in patients with small cell carcinomas are metastases.
      • Tumor may be present in a morphologically normal-appearing gland.
  • Other sites (especially small and large cell tumors)
    • Brain (common)
    • Bones
    • Kidney
49
Q

What is the most frequent genetic mutation in Adenocarcinoma?

What are the typical presenting features?

A

Adenocarcinoma

  • Now the most frequent primary lung cancer
  • Typically presents as a multilobulated, peripheral mass
  • May arise in scar tissue: scar carcinoma
  • KRAS mutation is the most frequent genetic mutation.
50
Q

What is bronchoalveolar carcinoma a subtype of?

What is the most common morphology of the tumour?

Is there adenopathy?

A

Bronchioloalveolar Carcinoma

  • Subtype of adenocarcinoma; slow growth.
  • The characteristic radiographic presentations are:
    • Morphologic type
      • Small peripheral nodule (solitary form), 25% (most common)
      • Multiple nodules
      • Chronic ASD
    • Air bronchogram
    • Absent adenopathy
    • Cavitation may be seen by HRCT (Cheerio sign)
51
Q

What is this sign?

What is the underlying pathogenesis?

What are the causes?

A

The Cheerio sign was defined as the CT finding of a nodule with a hypodense centre, resembling the ring-shaped Cheerios breakfast cereal.1

Pathologically, it is caused by peribronchiolar cellular proliferation around a patent airway.2

Common causes for Cheerio sign include:

  • pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis,
  • lung adenocarcinoma, and

occasionally cavitary lesions of the lung, such as

  • fungal infections,
  • metastatic lung cancers,
  • lymphoma,
  • rheumatoid nodules and
  • granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

It is commonly associated with invasive lepidic-predominant adenocarcinoma, as alveolar structures and bronchial patency are usually maintained in this cancer subtype.1

https://thorax.bmj.com/content/73/10/994

52
Q

Re SCC What is the most common cause?

What is the prognosis?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

SCC is most directly linked with smoking.

SCC carries the most favorable prognosis.

53
Q

What are the characteristic radiographic appearances of SCC?

A

The most characteristic radiographic appearances are:

  • Cavitating lung mass, 30%
  • Peripheral nodule, 30%
  • Central obstructing lesion causing lobar collapse
  • Chest wall invasion
    *
54
Q

What is the most common mutation in SCC??

A

What is the most common mutation?

FGFR1 amplification is the most common mutation.

One potential molecular target in squamous cell lung cancer is FGFR1. Amplification at 8p12 was observed in multiple studies of squamous cell lung cancer [16–18], and FGFR1 has been identified as a potential candidate gene in this region. FGFR1 is a member of the FGFR family of receptor tyrosine kinases; activation leads to downstream signaling via the PI3K/AKT and RAS/MAPK pathways which are central to growth, survival migration and angiogenesis in many cancers. Dysregulation of FGFR family signaling has been described in multiple cancers, with amplification, translocation, and point mutations being described in a broad range of tumor types, including breast, prostate, myeloma, sarcoma, bladder, and endometrial cancers, among others [19–23].

In lung cancer, FGFR1 amplification is found in approximately 20% of squamous cell cancers, but rarely in adenocarcinoma [17]. Inhibition of FGFR1 in amplified cell lines and in mouse models with FGFR1 amplified engrafted tumors showed growth inhibition and induced apoptosis [17]. Multiple FGFR inhibitors are in development; many of these are multitargeted tyrosine kinase inhibitors with activity against other targets in addition to FGFR1.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3500511/

55
Q

What are the typical characteristics of Large cell carcinoma?

A

Large Cell Carcinoma

  • large (>70% are >4 cm at initial diagnosis)
  • peripheral mass lesions.
  • Overall uncommon tumor.

Case courtesy of Assoc Prof Frank Gaillard, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 8570

56
Q

What type of tumor is this?

What are the clinical Findings?

What type of tumour are they histologically? (most commonly)

A

Pancoast Tumor (Superior Sulcus Tumor)

  • Tumor located in the lung apex that has extended into the adjacent chest wall.
  • Histologically, Pancoast tumors are often SCCs.
  • Clinical Findings
    • Horner syndrome
    • Pain radiating into arm
      • (invasion of pleura,
      • bone,
      • brachial plexus, or
      • subclavian vessels)​

Case courtesy of Dr Bruno Di Muzio, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 29403

57
Q

What are the radiographic features of Pancoast tumours?

A

Apical mass

Chest wall invasion

Involvement of subclavian vessels

Brachial plexus involvement

Bone involvement: rib, vertebral body

58
Q

What is the most Aggressive lung tumour with the poorest prognosis?

What are the typical findings at diagnosis?

A

Small Cell Carcinoma (SCC) (Neuroendocrine Tumor, Type 3)

  • Most aggressive lung tumor with poorest prognosis.
  • At diagnosis, two-thirds of patients already have extrathoracic spread:
    • Typical initial presentation: massive bilateral lymphadenopathy
    • With or without lobar collapse
    • Brain metastases
59
Q

What is the 10 year survival rate of Carcinoid?

What % of x grade malignancy are they?

A

Carcinoid (Neuroendocrine Tumor, Types 1 and 2)

Represent 90% of low-grade malignancy tumors of the lung.

The 10-year survival rate with surgical treatment is 85%.

60
Q

Carcinoid Commonly or rarely results in carcinoid syndrome

By the production of which hormone?

Carcinoid syndrome is usually accompanied by what?

A

Rarely results in carcinoid syndrome caused by the production of 5-hydroxytryptamine with flushing, diarrhea, nausea, and wheezing; carcinoid syndrome usually accompanied by liver metastases.

61
Q

What are the types of Carcinoid tumour?

A

Types

  • Typical carcinoid:
    • local tumor (type 1)
  • Atypical carcinoid (10%–20%):
    • metastasizes to regional lymph nodes (type 2);
    • liver metastases are very rare
62
Q

What are the typical Rad Features of carcinoid tumours?

A

Radiographic Features

  • PET negative
  • 80% centrally located within main, lobar, segmental bronchi
  • Segmental or lobar collapse (most common finding)
  • Periodic exacerbation of atelectasis
  • Endobronchial mass
  • Very rarely located within the trachea (1%)
  • Peripherally located carcinoid, 20%
  • Pulmonary nodule
  • May be enhanced with contrast medium

Case courtesy of Dr Chris O’Donnell, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 17594

63
Q

OF the following which has the highers Mitosis per 10 high powered field?

Typical Carcinoid

Atypical Carcinoid

Large cell NET

Small Cell

A

Typical Carcinoid <2

Atypical Carcinoid 2-10

Large cell NET 10

Small Cell >50

64
Q

Oout of the following which is usually peripheral and which is central?

Typical Carcinoid

Atypical Carcinoid

Large cell NET

Small Cell

A

Typical Carcinoid (central)

Atypical Carcinoid (central)

Large cell NET (PERIPHERAL)

Small Cell (+++ Central)

65
Q

Which tumours are FDG avid?

Typical Carcinoid

Atypical Carcinoid

Large cell NET

Small Cell

A

Typical Carcinoid

Atypical Carcinoid

Large cell NET

Small Cell

66
Q

What is this?

What percent are calcified?

What Cell origin are they?

Who are they more common in?

What are they composed of?

A
  • Hamartomas are mesenchymal tumors
  • most common benign tumors of the lung
  • composed of:
    • cartilage (predominantly),
    • connective tissue,
    • muscle,
    • fat, and
    • epithelial tissue.
  • 85% are identified as solitary pulmonary nodules,
  • 5%–15% are endobronchial.
  • They typically occur in individuals older than 50 years and are more common in men.

Case courtesy of Dr Ahmed Abdrabou, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 42249

67
Q

What are the radiographic features of this tumour?

A
  • Pulmonary hamartoma
  • Radiographic Features
    • Well-circumscribed, often lobulated pulmonary nodule
    • Calcification identified in only 10% of hamartomas <3 cm but seen in approximately 75% of hamartomas ≥5 cm in size
    • Popcorn” calcification classically associated with hamartomas, but may also show stippled pattern
    • Slow growth: 0.5–5 mm/year
    • HRCT can show intralesional fat (65%)

Case courtesy of Assoc Prof Craig Hacking, Radiopaedia.org, rID: 35749

68
Q

What is the Carney Triad?

Who does it tend to occur in?

A

Carney Triad

Predominant in Young Women (<30 Years Old)

  • Gastric smooth muscle tumors (epithelioid leiomyosarcoma)
  • Functioning extra-adrenal paraganglioma
  • Pulmonary chondromas

Carney triad is a rare syndrome defined by the coexistence of three tumours:

extra-adrenal paraganglioma

initially, only functioning extra-adrenal paragangliomas were included, but subsequent work includes non-functioning extra-adrenal paragangliomas 1

gastric gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GIST)

pulmonary chondroma

In most cases, only 2 of the 3 tumours are present at the time of diagnosis, with the most common combination being GIST and pulmonary chondromas. Although not considered part of the triad, there is an increased incidence of adrenocortical adenoma. It typically affects young people. No underlying genetic mutation has been identified.

69
Q

What is this condition?

What is a complication?

A

Tracheobronchial Papillomatosis

Radiographic Features

  • Multiple, well-demarcated nodules that can grow
  • Cavitate with 2–3-mm-thick walls
  • Air fluid levels may develop
  • Risk of SCC 15 years after diagnosis

https://radiopaedia.org/cases/pulmonary-spread-of-tracheobronchial-papillomatosis

Multiple cavitating nodules and masses bilaterally with posterior and basal predilection. Numerous endoluminal tracheal soft-tissue lesions obstructing upper airways. Tracheostomy tube in place.

Findings are suggestive of pulmonary spread of tracheobronchial papillomatosis.

Case Discussion

Tracheobronchial papillomatosis is caused by human papilloma virus types 6 and 11. Less than 1% of patients with tracheobronchial papillomatosis have parenchymal extension. Juvenile onset type usually have a worse prognosis with higher incidence of pulmonary spread. Proposed mechanism of spread is associated with aerial dissemination of papilloma fragments facilitated by laryngeal and tracheal interventions.

70
Q

What cell origin do pulmonary blastomas arise from?

What are the classifications?

Who are they predominate in?

A
  • (primer) Pulmonary Blastoma
    • Predominant in males, poor prognosis
  • Radiographic Features
    • Large peripheral mass that is well circumscribed
    • May show pleural invasion and may metastasize

(Radiopedia) Pulmonary blastomas (PBs) comprise a rare group of lung tumours principally consisting of immature mesenchymal and epithelial structures that structurally mimic the embryonic lung.

Traditionally they were classified as

  1. well-differentiated fetal adenocarcinoma (WDFA) of lung - now considered removed from this category 4
  2. classic / biphasic pulmonary blastoma (CBPB)
  3. pleuropulmonary blastoma (PPB) - sometimes regarded as a separate entity,

https: //radiopaedia.org/articles/pulmonary-blastoma
https: //www.hindawi.com/journals/crim/2012/471613/

71
Q

What are the pathways of metastatic spread from a primary extrathoracic malignancy?

A

Lung Metastases From Other Primary Lesions

General

  • Pathways of metastatic spread from a primary extrathoracic site to lungs (in order of frequency):
    • Spread via pulmonary arteries (PAs)
    • Lymphatic spread
      • (celiac nodes →
      • posterior mediastinal nodes +
      • paraesophageal nodes) and in
      • lung parenchyma
  • Direct extension
    • Endobronchial spread
    • Follow the invasion-metastasis cascade:
      • invade locally,
      • intravasate into blood,
      • survive circulation,
      • lodge in distant organ,
      • merge into parenchyma,
      • survive the foreign organ, and
      • reinitiate growth.
72
Q

Which 5 tumours have a rich vascular supple and drain into the systemic venous system?

A

Neoplasms with rich vascular supply draining into systemic venous system:

  • Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
  • Sarcomas
  • Trophoblastic tumors
  • Testis
  • Thyroid
73
Q

Which 5 neoplasms have lymphatic Dissemination to the lungs??

A

Neoplasms with lymphatic dissemination:

  • Breast (usually unilateral)
  • Stomach (usually bilateral)
  • Pancreas
  • Larynx
  • Cervix
74
Q

3 neoplasms with high propensity to localise in the lung

A

Other neoplasms with high propensity to localize in lung:

Colon

Melanoma

Sarcoma

75
Q

Are mets usually peripheral or central?

A

Radiographic Features

  • Multiple lesions, 95%; solitary lesions, 5%
  • Lung bases > apices (related to blood flow)
  • Peripheral, 90%; central, 10%
  • Metastases typically have sharp margins.
  • Fuzzy margins can result from peritumoral hemorrhage (choriocarcinoma, chemotherapy).
  • Cavitations are common in SCCs from head and neck primary lesions.
76
Q

Where do mets ususally go?

Apices or Bases? Why?

A

Radiographic Features

  • Multiple lesions, 95%; solitary lesions, 5%
  • Lung bases > apices (related to blood flow)
  • Peripheral, 90%; central, 10%
  • Metastases typically have sharp margins.
  • Fuzzy margins can result from peritumoral hemorrhage (choriocarcinoma, chemotherapy).
  • Cavitations are common in SCCs from head and neck primary lesions.
77
Q

MEts typically have sharp margins. What may cause fuzzy margins? which tumour types?

A

Radiographic Features

  • Multiple lesions, 95%; solitary lesions, 5%
  • Lung bases > apices (related to blood flow)
  • Peripheral, 90%; central, 10%
  • Metastases typically have sharp margins.
  • Fuzzy margins can result from peritumoral hemorrhage (choriocarcinoma, chemotherapy).
  • Cavitations are common in SCCs from head and neck primary lesions.
78
Q

What are the 8 causes of Calcified metastases?

A

Calcified Metastases

Calcifications in lung metastases are observed in:

  • Bone tumor metastases
    • Osteosarcoma
    • Chondrosarcoma
  • Mucinous tumors
    • Ovarian
    • Thyroid
    • Pancreas
    • Colon
    • Stomach
  • Metastases after chemotherapy
79
Q

What are the causes of GIANT/cannon ball mets

A

Giant Metastases (“Cannon Ball” Metastases) in Asymptomatic Patients

  • Head and neck cancer
  • Testicular and ovarian cancer
  • Soft tissue cancer
  • Breast cancer
  • Renal cancer
  • Colon cancer
80
Q

What are sterile Metastases?

A

Sterile metastases refers to pulmonary metastases under treatment that contain no viable tumor. Nodules typically consist of necrotic and/or fibrous tissue.

Sterilized Metastasis

When a metastatic nodule persists after adequate chemotherapy with its size unchanged or slightly diminished, it is occasionally discovered at surgical resection to be only necrotic nodules with or without fibrosis and without viable tumor cells (,5),(,7),(,47). Except for the stable appearance of their size, these “sterilized” nodules are radiologically indistinguishable from a residual viable tumor. Metastases from a choriocarcinoma, testicular cancer, after chemotherapy are common causes of sterilized metastases (,47),(,48). When biologic markers such as β–human chorionic gonadotropin and α-fetoprotein are available, this additional information may help determine the viability or sterility of a pulmonary nodule. Histologic confirmation is necessary when such a problems arises (,7). After treatment, positron emission tomography, with its capability to help evaluate biologic activity, may help differentiate between a sterilized metastasis and a viable residual tumor.

Some germ cell tumors convert to a benign mature teratoma after chemotherapy and result in persistence of the masses (,49). In patients with nonseminomatous germ cell tumors, enlargement of the masses with negative serum tumor markers after chemotherapy usually represents mature teratomas rather than residual malignancies (,50). In some cases of pulmonary metastases from germ cell tumors treated with chemotherapy, thin-walled cavities that arise at the sites of the pulmonary metastases, so-called pulmonary lacunae, persist for years without change (,51).

https://pubs.rsna.org/doi/10.1148/radiographics.21.2.g01mr17403

81
Q
A