Overview Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cells which are myeloid origin?

A
  • thrombocyte
  • erythrocyte
  • mast cell
  • basophil
  • neutrophil
  • eosinophil
  • monocyte/macrophage
  • dendritic cells
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2
Q

What are the cells of lymphoid origin?

A
  • natural killer cells
  • T cell
  • B cell
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3
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

Circulate the blood then migrate into tissues to differentiate into macrophages

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4
Q

What is the function of macrophages?

A
  • phagocytes
  • antigen presenting
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5
Q

What type of macrophage is pro inflammatory?

A

M1

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6
Q

What type of macrophage is anti inflammatory?

A

M2

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7
Q

What is the function of mast cells?

A
  • granulocytes
  • granules release histamine
  • allergy role
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8
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A
  • most numerous immune cell
  • phagocytes
  • granulocytes
  • release antimicrobials and degradative enzymes
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9
Q

What is the most numerous immune cell?

A

Neutrophil

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10
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A
  • granulocytes
  • release antimicrobials and degradative enzymes
  • release histamine
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11
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A
  • phagocytes
  • larger than basophils and neutrophils
  • granulocytes
  • release antimicrobials and degradative enzymes
  • release histamine
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12
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A
  • antigen presenting
  • activate T and B cells
  • mature dendritic cells can prime naive T cells
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13
Q

What is the function of natural killer cells?

A
  • granulocytes
  • release lyric granules which kill infected cells
  • hold back infection until adaptive immunity kicks in
  • link innate and adaptive immunity
  • produce cytokines
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14
Q

What is the function of T cells?

A

Cellular immunity

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15
Q

Where are T cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

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16
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

Thymus

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17
Q

What are the CD4+ cell subsets?

A

TH1
TH2
TH17
TFH
Treg

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18
Q

What is the function of TH1?

A

Support macrophages

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19
Q

What is the function of TH2?

A

Supports humoral response

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20
Q

Function of TH17?

A

Supports innate immune response
Secrets IL-17,22

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21
Q

Function of TFH?

A

Supports humoral response

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22
Q

Function of Treg?

A

Suppress T cell activity and prevent autoimmunity

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23
Q

Function of B cells?

A

Humoral response

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24
Q

Describe innate immunity

A
  • first line of defence
  • non-specific
  • short lasting
  • immediate
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25
Q

Where are B cells produced?

A

Bone marrow

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26
Q

Where do B cells migrate to once they are produced?

A

Via the blood to the spleen or lymph nodes

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27
Q

What is the function of B cell receptors?

A

Bind to antigens

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28
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Foreign substance

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29
Q

What are the sequence of steps which occur following an antigen binding to a B cell receptor?

A
  • antigen engulfed into the B cell
  • B cell breaks down the antigen and the products are placed on the surface of the B cell in major histocompatibility complexes II (MHC II)
  • these allow CD4+ T helper cells to bind
  • this releases lymphokines
  • this causes B cells to differentiate into plasma cells which release antigens
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30
Q

What is the function of T helper cells (CD4)?

A

Bind to MHC II on B cells

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31
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T cells (CD8)?

A

Bind to MHC I on virally infected cells
- this secretes cytotoxins which induces apoptosis

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32
Q

What do all cells with a nucleus contain?

A

MHC I in their membrane

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33
Q

What is the function of memory T cells?

A

They can initiate a very rapid response if they have encountered the antigen before

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34
Q

Role of epithelium in innate immunity?

A
  • physical barrier
  • antimicrobials peptides
  • cytokines/chemokines
  • IgA
  • lactoferrin
  • lysosomes
  • cystains
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35
Q

What are examples of antimicrobial peptides?

A
  • B defence
  • HNPs
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36
Q

What is the function of antimicrobial peptides?

A
  • modulate immunity
  • destroy pathogens
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37
Q

What is IgA?

A
  • an immunoglobulin
  • produced at the mucosal surface
  • binds to bacterial cell flagella preventing motility
  • opsonisation
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38
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

Coating of microbes for host recognition

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39
Q

What is the function of chemokines?

A

Cell recruitment and chemotaxis

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40
Q

What is the function of cytokines?

A

Cell activation

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41
Q

What are the main type of T cell receptor?

A

Toll like receptors

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42
Q

What are the main receptors in periodontitis?

A

TLR2 and TLR4

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43
Q

What type of microbe can enter the cell?

A

Viruses

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44
Q

What do dentin and glucagon receptors recognise?

A

Fungi

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45
Q

What do NOD like receptors recognise?

A

Bacteria

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46
Q

PRR PAMP

A

Pattern recognition receptors recognise pathogen associated molecular patterns

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47
Q

What do PARs recognise?

A

Microbial and allergens

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48
Q

What is the function of lactoferrin?

A

Antimicrobial and transports iron ions

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49
Q

What is the function of lysozymes?

A

Attacks bacterial cell walls

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50
Q

What is the function of cystains~?

A

Anti-protease activity

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51
Q

What are the sequence of steps in phagocytosis?

A
  • chemotaxis transport phagocytes to microbe
  • adherence
  • phagocyte ingests the microbe
  • phagosome formed
  • phagolysosome formed
  • enzymes digest the microbe
  • waste is discharged
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52
Q

What are examples of professional antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

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53
Q

What are examples of phagocytes?

A
  • neutrophils
  • dendritic cells
  • mast cells
  • macrophages
  • eosinophils
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54
Q

What are the three types of cell adhesion molecules?

A
  • selectins
  • integrins
  • immunoglobulins
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55
Q

What are examples of granulocytes?

A
  • mast cells
  • natural killer cells
  • monocytes
  • macrophages
  • neutrophils
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56
Q

What are the 4 main roles of the innate immune system?

A
  • recognise pathogens
  • engulf and destroy pathogens
  • alarm other immune cells to fight pathogens
  • coordinate with the adaptive immune component
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57
Q

How are pathogens recognised by the innate immune cells?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns are recognised by pattern recognition receptors

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58
Q

Describe adaptive immunity

A
  • specific
  • acquired
  • not immediate
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59
Q

When does adaptive immunity kick in?

A

When the threshold level of antigen is reached

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60
Q

What type of chains feature on T cell receptors?

A

Alpha and beta mainly

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61
Q

What is the process in which T cell receptors are rearranged?

A

Somatic recombination

62
Q

What enzyme drives somatic recombination?

A

RAG

63
Q

What is the function of somatic recombination?

A

Leads to different receptor structures which are able to recognise different antigens

64
Q

Where is thymic education carried out?

A

In the thymus

65
Q

How do the T cells get from the bone marrow to the thymus?

A

The thymus secretes chemokines which draws the T persecutor cells towards the thymus (chemotaxis)

66
Q

What is the thymus?

A

Primary lymphoid organ gland

67
Q

What happens to the T cell persecutors in the thymus?

A
  • ## T cell receptors and recombination presented on surfaces, both CD8 and CD4 proteins on surface
68
Q

What does MHC stand for?

A

Major histocompatilbilty complex

69
Q

What is positive selection?

A

When MCHs recognise CD4/CD8 effectively

70
Q

What happens if during positive selection, the MHCs don’t recognise the CD4/CD8?

A

Apoptosis

71
Q

What is the step after positive selection?

A

Negative selection

72
Q

What is negative selection?

A
  • MHCs have self peptides displayed
  • if TCRs recognise the self peptides then apoptosis is induced
  • prevents autoimmunity
73
Q

What happens after negative selection?

A

The T persecutor cell with either react with the MHC I or MHC II molecule

74
Q

What is the name for a T cell which reacts with MHC II?

A

T helper cell (CD4)

75
Q

What is the name for a T cell which reacts with MHC I?

A

Cytotoxic T cell (CD8)

76
Q

How are T regulatory cells produced?

A
  • some T helper cells and Cytotoxic cells can become T regulatory cells
  • AT THIS STAGE THE T CELLS ARE STILL NAIVE
77
Q

What are the signals required for T cell activation?

A
  • TCR interaction with MHC of antigen presenting cell
  • costimulation
  • cytokine production
78
Q

What are B cell receptors?

A

Immunoglobulins

79
Q

What type of chais do B cells have?

A

Heavy and light

80
Q

What type of selection do B cells undergo and where?

A

Negative selection in the bone marrow

81
Q

What happens in B cell negative selection?

A
  • if a B cell reacts with a self antigen it is retained in the bone marrow and phagocytosed by macrophages
  • if a B cell doesn’t react with a self antigen it moves into the blood and expresses IgD and IgM
82
Q

What is the most numerous immunoglobin?

A

IgG

83
Q

Which immnoglobin has 10 binding sites?

A

IgM

84
Q

Which imunoglobins have high affinity?

A

IgG and IgE

85
Q

What is the function of IgE?

A

Allergy

86
Q

What are immunoglobins?

A

Antibodies

87
Q

What are three functions of antibodies to prevent microbial activity?

A
  • neutralisation
  • opsonisation
  • initiation of the classical pathway of complement
88
Q

Where are B cells activated?

A

In lymph nodes

89
Q

What are the two types of B cell activation?

A
  • thymus dependant
  • thymus independent
90
Q

Which type of B cell activation produces memory B cells?

A

Thymus dependant

91
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

92
Q

Describe the process of B cell activation

A
  • B cell is triggered when encountering its matching antigen
  • B cell engulfs the antigen and digests it
  • B cell displays the antigen fragments bound to its MHCs
  • this MHC- antigen complex attracts a matching mature T cell
  • cytokines are secreted by the T cell which help the B cell to multiply and differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells or B memory cells
    -in plasma cells these antibodies are released into the blood in order to lock onto matching antigens which are cleared from the body
93
Q

What is the different in life length of plasma cells and memory B cells?

A
  • memory B cella can live for decades
  • plasma cells are short lived
94
Q

What is the function of memory B cells?

A

If a memory B cell encounters a previously encountered enticed it will divide rapidly and make plasma cells which results in a large number of antibodies to destroy the pathogen

95
Q

What does clinal selection produce?

A

B memory cells and plasma cells

96
Q

How many chains are antibodies made up of?

A

4 (2 heavy 2 light)

97
Q

Where do B cells and T cells communicate?

A

Germinal centres

98
Q

What is the function of immunological tolerance?

A

Safeguard mechanism to prevent the production of auto reactive cells

99
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  • redness
  • heat
  • swelling
  • pain
  • loss of function
100
Q

What are the stages of inflammation?

A
  • initiation
  • progression
  • amplification
  • resolution (acute)
  • no resolution (chronic)
101
Q

What is the vascular response to acute inflammation?

A
  • dilation of small BV
  • leaky vessels (exudation) to increase vascular permeability leading to an influx of inflammatory infiltrate (oedema)
102
Q

Describe the complement system?

A
  • activated by one of three pathways
  • classical/alternative/lectin
  • all activate C3
  • C3 convertase produces C3a and C3b
  • C3b is responsible for opsonisation
  • C3a is responsible for the production of anaphylatoxins
  • C5a attracts macrophages and neutrophils
103
Q

What is the classical pathway triggered by?

A

Antibody attaching to microbe

104
Q

What is the alternative pathway triggered by?

A

Microbial cell wall

105
Q

What is the lectin pathway triggered by?

A

Carbohydrates on the pathogens surface

106
Q

What is the role of anaphylatoxins?

A
  • smooth muscle contraction
  • leaky capillaries to increase inflammatory infiltration
107
Q

What are common causes of inflammation?

A
  • infection
  • hypersensitivity
  • physical/chemical agents
  • tissue necrosis
108
Q

What cells release histamine?

A
  • mast cells
  • basophils
  • platelets
109
Q

Sequence of steps in acute inflammation

A

blood flow changes
- constriction to control blood loss
- dilation to increase blood flow to tissue
- histamine release increases permeability and formation of an exudate
- circulation is slowed
Exudation of fluid- plasma proteins to site
- starlings law
Cellular phase
- neutrophils (C5a)- remove pathogens

110
Q

Describe the kin in system

A
  • activated by hageman factor
  • activated kallikrein which converted kininogens to kinins eg bradykinin
  • kinins cause:
    Vasodilation
    Activate complement
    Chemotaxis for neutrophils
    Increase blood vessel permeability
111
Q

What’s an example of a kinin?

A

Bradykinin

112
Q

What are the three coagulation pathways?

A
  • extrinsic
  • intrinsic
  • common thrombin
113
Q

What triggers the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

A

Damaged blood vessels

114
Q

What triggers the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

A

Blood coming into contact with sub-endothelial connective tissue

115
Q

What triggers the common thrombin coagulation system?

A

Production of thrombin

116
Q

What is haemophilia?

A

When blood doesn’t clot properly

117
Q

What is the function of the fibrinolytic system?

A

To prevent excess blood clotting

118
Q

Describe the fibrinolytic system

A
  • kallikrein converts plasminogen to plasmin
  • plasmin converts fibrin to fibrin degradation products
119
Q

Which two organs cannot repair?

A

The heart and liver

120
Q

What is suppuration?

A

Formation of an abscess
- up sis a collection of dead bacteria and dying neutrophils

121
Q

What are the ways in which chronic inflammation can arise?

A
  • take over from acute inflammation
  • de novo eg autoimmune
  • develop alongside acute inflammation
122
Q

What are the hallmarks of chronic inflammation?

A
  • neutrophils are replaced with macrophages and lymphocytes
  • tissue destruction
  • healing
123
Q

What is an example of non-specific chronic inflammation?

A

Periodontitis

124
Q

What is an example of specific chronic inflammation?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

125
Q

What causes cloudy swelling?

A

Influx of sodium and water

126
Q

What causes fatty change?

A

Accumulation of lipid vacuoles in th cytoplasm

127
Q

What are four types of tissue necrosis?

A
  • co-agulation
  • liquefactive
  • caseous
  • fibrinoid
128
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Deficient oxygen delivery to tissue

129
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

Deficient blood flow to tissue

130
Q

What are the stages in healing?

A
  • coagulation
  • inflammation
  • proliferation
  • maturation
131
Q

What is repair vs regeneration of tissue?

A
  • repair is done during chronic inflammation
  • regeneration is rebuilding up the tissue done in acute inflammation
132
Q

What are liable cells and an example?

A

Rapid regeneration cells eg epithelial cells

133
Q

What are stable cells and an example?

A

Regenerating cells eg liver and kidney cells

134
Q

What are permanent cells and examples?

A

Permanent cells eg heart and muscle cells

135
Q

What occurs during the proliferation stage of tissue healing?

A
  • formation of granulation tissue (vascular and fibrous)
  • angiogenesis
136
Q

What occurs in the maturation stage of tissue healing?

A

Tissue remodelling

137
Q

What are the stages in fracture healing?

A
  • inflammation
  • repairing
  • remodelling
138
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

State of altered reactivity where the body reacts with an exaggerated immune response to a foreign agent

139
Q

What is the most common type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1

140
Q

What is the most rapid type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1

141
Q

What is type 1 hypersensitivity to do with?

A

Allergy

142
Q

What is an example of type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Anaphylaxis

143
Q

What is type II hypersensitivity?

A

Cytotoxic

144
Q

What is an example of type II hypersensitivity?

A

Acute transfusion reaction

145
Q

What is type III hypersensitivity?

A

Inflammatory response- complement system activated

146
Q

What is an example of type III hypersensitivity?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

147
Q

What is type IV hypersensitivity?

A
  • cell mediated
148
Q

What is an example of type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Contact dermatitis

149
Q

Benign vs malignant neoplasia

A

Benign
- encapsulated therefore growth is localised
- resembling tissue of origin
Malignant
- no capsule therefore metastasis
- many mitoses

150
Q

Treatment of benign neoplasia?

A

Local excision

151
Q

Treatment of malignant neoplasia?

A
  • local excision
  • radio therapy
  • chemo therapy
152
Q

Suffixes meaning malignancy?

A

-carcinoma
-sarcoma