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AIC Exam > OSHA > Flashcards

OSHA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. According to OSHA violations, what is the name of the violation where the firm or designated person is aware that a hazardous condition exists, knows that the condition violates a standard and makes no effort to eliminate the safety hazard?

A. Willful Violation
B. Serious Violation
C. De Minimis Violation
D. Other-Than-Serious Violation

A

A. Willful Violation

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an example of Due Diligence?

A. Reports violations to OSHA
B. Tells employees to be careful
C. Corrects the hazard(s) immediately
D. Screams and threatens the workers to comply

A

C. Corrects the hazard(s) immediately

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3
Q
  1. The compliance officer notices a potential hazard that is likely to cause serious physical harm but a regulation does not exist under which provision can the contractor be cited?

A. Federal Register
B. General Duty Clause
C. Construction Safety Act
D. Code of Federal Register

A

B. General Duty Clause

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4
Q
  1. What type of inspection is given top priority by OSHA?

A. Imminent Danger
B. Employee Complaints
C. Catastrophe or Fatal Accident
D. Programmed Inspections

A

A. Imminent Danger

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5
Q
  1. In construction, what is the minimum number of employees that an employer must have before they are required to maintain records of occupational injuries and illnesses?

A. 2
B. 11
C. 20
D. 100

A

B. 11

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6
Q
  1. What is the minimum number of days for posting the De Minimis Violation?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 15
D. 60

A

B. 3

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the definition of a work-related catastrophe?

A. The death of two or more workers
B. An injury or illness that requires first aid treatment
C. An injury or illness that requires medical treatment
D. An injury or illness that requires hospitalization of 3 or more workers

A

D. An injury or illness that requires hospitalization of 3 or more workers

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8
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of hours for reporting a Death or Catastrophe to OSHA?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 48

A

B. 8

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9
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of days that an employer has to contest any citations?

A. 1
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60

A

B. 15

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10
Q
  1. The Pipefitting Subcontractor is required to lay pipe in a trench that is 10 feet deep and 3 feet wide with vertical walls and no sloping or other protection. The trench was dug by the Excavator. The General Contractor supervised the work, but had no employees in the trench. The Concrete Sub told the General Contractor and Excavator that the trench needed to be sloped or shored before their employees could work in the trench. During the OSHA inspection, OSHA observed the General at the trench supervising the pipefitter in the trench. Which Contractor(s) would receive a citation for an unsafe trench?

A. Pipefitting Sub only
B. Pipefitting Sub and Excavator
C. Pipefitting Sub, Excavator, and General Contractor
D. Pipefitting Sub, Excavator, General Contractor, and Concrete Sub

A

C. Pipefitting Sub, Excavator, and General Contractor

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11
Q
  1. What is the correct name for the acronym OSHA?

A. Office of Safety and Health Administration
B. Occupational Safety and Health Association
C. Organizational Safety and Health Affiliation
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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12
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the OSHA law?

A. Protect companies from safety violations
B. Prohibit safety violations against individuals
C. Provide a place of employment free from safety hazards
D. Prohibit safety violations against individuals with disabilities

A

C. Provide a place of employment free from safety hazards

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13
Q
  1. The Safety Standards utilize the abbreviation 29 CFR Part 1926. What does the acronym CFR stand for?

A. Code of Federal Register
B. Code of Federal Regulations
C. Construction Federal Register
D. Construction Federal Regulations

A

B. Code of Federal Regulations

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14
Q
  1. Which document is utilized to keep the CFR up to date?

A. Federal Register
B. Federal Regulations
C. Federal Compliance Standards
D. Federal Safety and Health Violations

A

A. Federal Register

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15
Q
  1. Which Part of the OSHA Standards is designated for Recordkeeping?

A. 5(a)(1)
B. 1904
C. 1910
D. 1926

A

B. 1904

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16
Q
  1. Which Part of the OSHA Standards is designated for Inspections?

A. 5(a)(1)
B. 1903
C. 1910
D. 1926

A

B. 1903

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17
Q
  1. Which Part of the OSHA Standards is designated for General Industry?

A. 1903
B. 1904
C. 1910
D. 1926

A

C. 1910

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18
Q
  1. What does the safety acronym CPL stand for?

A. Compliance
B. Code Personnel
C. Competent Personnel
D. Construction Personnel

A

A. Compliance

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19
Q
  1. What does the safety acronym STD stand for?

A. Standard
B. Short Term Directive
C. Safety Training Directive
D. Safety Training and Development

A

A. Standard

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20
Q
  1. What is the purpose of an STD?

A. To provide a formal interpretation of an OSHA Regulation
B. To provide advice about an OSHA Regulation
C. To protect companies from safety violations
D. To prohibit companies from safety violations

A

A. To provide a formal interpretation of an OSHA Regulation

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21
Q
  1. What does the safety acronym MSDS stand for?

A. Master Safety Data Sheet
B. Material Safety Data Sheet
C. Material Standard Data Sheet
D. Management Safety Designated Standard

A

B. Material Safety Data Sheet

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22
Q

Which of the following activities is considered a Work Related Recordable?

A. A worker employed by you is on the premises to visit and gets injured
B. You get ill from the fumes while working in a certain area of the project
C. You are playing racquetball at the employer owned courts on your break with another employee and you are injured
D. You are coming to work and you get injured in the parking lot as you exit the car

A

B. You get ill from the fumes while working in a certain area of the project

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a Work-Related Recordable?

A. Employee loses consciousness
B. Treatment of first degree burn(s)
C. Application of bandage(s) during any visit to medical personnel
D. Application of antiseptics during first visit to medical personnel

A

A. Employee loses consciousness

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a Work-Related Recordable?

A. Removal of foreign bodies embedded in the eye
B. Removal of foreign bodies not embedded in the eye
C. Removal of foreign bodies from uncomplicated wound
D. Application of hot or cold compress(es) during first visit to medical personnel

A

A. Removal of foreign bodies embedded in the eye

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is described in STD 3-1.1 of an accident prevention program?

A. A log of all previous safety violations for the company
B. Written job safety analysis that must be available for OSHA inspector
C. Guidelines for the minimum elements of an accident prevention program
D. Evaluation of their accident program by a Certified Safety Professional (CSP)

A

C. Guidelines for the minimum elements of an accident prevention program

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the OSHA training regulations?

A. Employer must train all employees annually
B. Employer must maintain a record of training with date, time, and subject
C. Employer must train all employees regularly in safety recognition and avoidance
D. Employer must have an OSHA Approved Certified Trainer to teach employees

A

C. Employer must train all employees regularly in safety recognition and avoidance

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27
Q
  1. According to OSHA, which document must be filled out immediately after an accident by the supervisor describing the accident in detail?

A. Insurance forms
B. OSHA’s Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (OSHA’s 300A)
C. OSHA’s Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (OSHA’s Form 300)
D. OSHA’s Injury and Illness Incident Report (OSHA’s Form 301)

A

D. OSHA’s Injury and Illness Incident Report (OSHA’s Form 301)

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28
Q

According to OSHA, which information must be posted at the job site and easily accessible to all employees at all times?

A. Company Safety Policy, OSHA Common Violations, Injury Log
B. Variance Approval, Rights and Responsibilities Form, Citations
C. Worker Compensation rules, Compliance Sheet, Supplemental Record of Injury
D. Job Safety/ Health Regulations, Material Safety Data Sheet Notice, Emergency #

A

D. Job Safety/ Health Regulations, Material Safety Data Sheet Notice, Emergency #

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29
Q
  1. When and Where must the OSHA Summary (OSHA 300A) be posted?

A. All year long and easily accessible to all employees at the job site
B. All year long and in the Project Manager’s office in the main office
C. February 1 - April 1 and accessible to all employees at the jobsite
D. February 1 - April 1 and in the office employees’ break room in the main office

A

C. February 1 - April 1 and accessible to all employees at the jobsite

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30
Q
  1. The OSHA Act states that “each employer shall furnish to each employee a place of employment which is free from recognized hazards that are causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm to an employee.” Which section is this stated in?

A. 5(a)(1)
B. 1910.10 (a)
C. 1926.10(a)
D. 1903.10 (a)

A

A. 5(a)(1)

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31
Q
  1. What does the term Uprights from the timber shoring tables mean?

A. The vertical supports that separate the wales
B. The vertical sheet piles that restrain the soil
C. The studs or braces that support the vertical shoring system
D. The posts or shores that support the horizontal shoring system

A

B. The vertical sheet piles that restrain the soil

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32
Q
  1. What is the difference between the C series and D series Tables?

A. Table C is for Aluminum Hydraulic Shoring. and Table B is for Soil Type A
B. Table C is for Steel Sheeting and Table D is for Aluminum Hydraulic Shores
C. Table C is for Maximum Allowable Slopes and Table D is for Sloping
D. Table C is for Timber Shoring and Table D is for Aluminum Hydraulic

A

D. Table C is for Timber Shoring and Table D is for Aluminum Hydraulic

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33
Q
  1. What is the difference between Table C-1.1 and C-2.1?

A. Table C-1.1 is for Mixed Oak and Table C-2.1 is for Douglas Fir
B. Table C-1.1 is for Douglas Fir and Table C-2.1 is for Mixed Oak
C. Table C-1.1 is for Soil Type A and Table C-2.1 is for Soil Type B
D. Table C-1.1 is for Steel Sheeting and Table C-2.1 is for Aluminum Hydraulic

A

A. Table C-1.1 is for Mixed Oak and Table C-2.1 is for Douglas Fir

34
Q
  1. What is the maximum depth in feet that you can use shoring tables C and D?

A. 20
B. 60
C. 100
D. 125

A

A. 20

35
Q
  1. A trench is excavated in a Type A soil, 13 feet deep and 5 feet wide. The cross braces available are a 6” x 6” and the shoring available is a Mixed Oak. What is the horizontal and vertical spacing of the cross braces, the size and spacing of the wales and the size and spacing of the sheeting?

A. Cross braces are spaced 6 feet horizontally and 5 feet vertically. The wales are 8” x 8” spaced 5 feet vertically, and the uprights are 2” x 6” spaced 2 feet horizontally
B. Cross braces are spaced 8 feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically. The wales are 6” x 8” spaced 4 feet vertically, and the uprights are 4” x 6” spaced 4 feet horizontally
C. Cross braces are spaced 10 feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically. The wales are 8” x 10” spaced 4 feet vertically, and the uprights are 2” x 6” spaced 5 feet horizontally
D. Cross braces are spaced 10 feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically. The wales are 8” x 8” spaced 4 feet vertically, and the uprights are 4” x 8” spaced 5 feet horizontally

A

C. Cross braces are spaced 10 feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically. The wales are 8” x 10” spaced 4 feet vertically, and the uprights are 2” x 6” spaced 5 feet horizontally

36
Q
  1. You are Spot Welding. Which of the following types of Eye and Face Protection can be worn?

A. Welding Helmets
B. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Regular Ventilation
C. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation
D. Welding Goggles, Eyecup Type, Tinted Lenses

A

B. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Regular Ventilation

37
Q
  1. You are Chipping. Which of the following types of Eye and Face Protection can be worn?

A. Welding Helmets
B. Goggles, Cushion Fitting, Rigid Body
C. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation
D. Welding Goggles, Eyecup Type, Tinted Lenses

A

B. Goggles, Cushion Fitting, Rigid Body

38
Q
  1. You are Handling Chemicals considered severe exposure. Which of the following types of Eye and Face Protection can be worn?

A. Spectacles, Plastic Frame with Sideshields
B. Goggles, Cushion Fitting, Rigid Body
C. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation
D. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation with Face Shield

A

D. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation with Face Shield

39
Q
  1. You are performing light Grinding. Which of the following types of Eye and Face Protection can be worn?

A. Spectacles with Sideshields
B. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation
C. Welding Goggles, Coverspec Type, Clear Safety Lenses
D. Chipping Goggles, Coverspec Type, Clear Safety Lenses

A

A. Spectacles with Sideshields

40
Q
  1. You are performing Heavy Grinding considered a severe exposure. Which of the following types of Eye and Face Protection can be worn?

A. Spectacles with Sideshields
B. Goggles, Flexible Fitting, Hooded Ventilation
C. Chipping Goggles, Coverspec Type, Clear Safety Lenses
D. Chipping Goggles, Eyecup Type, Clear Safety Lenses with Face Shield

A

D. Chipping Goggles, Eyecup Type, Clear Safety Lenses with Face Shield

41
Q
  1. You need a Respirator for an Oxygen Deficient environment, Which of the following types of Respirators must be worn?

A. Air-purifying Respirator
B. Supplied-air Respirator (SAR)
C. Powered air-purifying Respirator (PAPR)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA

42
Q
  1. You need a Respirator for a combination gas ,vapor, and particulate contaminants not immediately dangerous to life, Which of the following types of Respirators must be worn?

A. Air-purifying Respirator
B. Supplied-air Respirator (SAR)
C. Powered air-purifying Respirator (PAPR)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

A

A. Air-purifying Respirator

43
Q
  1. Which type of fire extinguisher Letter, Old Symbol, Color and New Symbol would be used for extinguishing a fire caused by a combustible metal such as aluminum?

A. The old extinguishers can be identified by a Green Triangle around the letter A. The New Extinguisher pictograph is of a trash can and wood fire
B. This extinguisher can be identified by a Red Square around the letter B. The New Extinguisher can be identified by a gas can pictograph
C. This extinguisher can be identified by a Blue Circle around the letter C. The New extinguisher pictograph is an electrical plug and receptacle pictograph
D. This extinguisher can be identified by a Yellow Five-pointed Star around letter D

A

D. This extinguisher can be identified by a Yellow Five-pointed Star around letter D

44
Q
  1. Which type of fire extinguisher Letter, Old Symbol, Color and the New Symbol would be used for extinguishing a fire caused by a flammable liquid?

A. The old extinguishers can be identified by a Green Triangle around the letter A The New Extinguisher pictograph is of a trash can and wood fire
B. This extinguisher can be identified by a Red Square around the letter B. The NewExtinguisher can be identified by a gas can pictograph
C. This extinguisher can be identified by a Blue Circle around the letter C. The New extinguisher pictograph is an electrical plug and receptacle pictograph
D. This extinguisher can be identified by a Yellow Five-pointed Star around letter D

A

B. This extinguisher can be identified by a Red Square around the letter B. The NewExtinguisher can be identified by a gas can pictograph

45
Q
  1. Which type of fire extinguisher Letter, Old Symbol, Color and the New Symbol would be used for extinguishing a fire caused by electrical wiring?

A. The old extinguishers can be identified by a Green Triangle around the letter A The New Extinguisher pictograph is of a trash can and wood fire
B. This extinguisher can be identified by a Red Square around the letter B. The New Extinguisher can be identified by a gas can pictograph
C. This extinguisher can be identified by a Blue Circle around the letter C. The New extinguisher pictograph is an electrical plug and receptacle pictograph
D. This extinguisher can be identified by a Yellow Five-pointed Star around letter D

A

C. This extinguisher can be identified by a Blue Circle around the letter C. The New extinguisher pictograph is an electrical plug and receptacle pictograph

46
Q
  1. On the new fire extinguishers, what are the Color and Pictograph Symbol used displayed on the fire extinguisher to indicate that a specific class of fire is prohibited?

A. The background is Green and a Slash is shown in Black
B. The background is Bright Red and a Slash is shown in Black
C. The background is Black and a Slash is shown in Bright Red
D. The background is White and a Slash is shown in Bright Red

A

C. The background is Black and a Slash is shown in Bright Red

47
Q
  1. What is the maximum horizontal travel distance to retrieve a fire extinguisher in a Building Area?

A. 10 Feet
B. 25 Feet.
C. 75 Feet
D. 100 Feet.

A

D. 100 Feet.

48
Q
  1. What is the maximum horizontal travel distance to retrieve a fire extinguisher in a Fuel Service Area?

A. 10 Feet
B. 25 Feet.
C. 75 Feet
D. 100 Feet.

A

C. 75 Feet

49
Q
  1. What is the location of a Fire Extinguisher on a Multistory building?

A. On an Inside Wall
B. On an outside Wall
C. In the tool gang box
D. Adjacent to Stairway

A

D. Adjacent to Stairway

50
Q
  1. How often does a sling have to be inspected?

A. Yearly
B. Monthly
C. Once per day at the beginning of the shift
D. Each day before sling use and during sling use

A

D. Each day before sling use and during sling use

51
Q
  1. A wire rope is designated as a 1-3/4 inch, 6 x 37 - IWRC. What does the 6 indicate?

A. Strands
B. Diameter
C. Rated Capacity
D. The number of wires per strand

A

A. Strands

52
Q
  1. A wire rope is designated as a 3/4 inch, 6 x 19 - IWRC. What does the 19 indicate?

A. Strands
B. Diameter
C. Rated Capacity
D. The number of wires per strand

A

D. The number of wires per strand

53
Q
  1. A wire rope is designated as a 3/4 inch, 6 x 19 - IWRC. What does the IWRC mean?

A. Improved Wire Rope Core
B. Improved Wide Rope Core
C. Independent Wire Rope Core
D. Independent Wide Rope Core

A

C. Independent Wire Rope Core

54
Q
  1. Which type of material is suitable for a chain sling?

A. Carbon Steel 160
B. Structural Steel Grade 60
C. Improved Plow Steel Grade
D. Alloy Steel and identified by a letter “A” or the number “8” or a combination

A

D. Alloy Steel and identified by a letter “A” or the number “8” or a combination

55
Q
  1. Which type of sling material cannot be used where fumes, vapors, sprays, mists or liquids of acids or phenolics are present?

A. Chain Sling
B. Wire Rope Sling
C. Nylon Web Sling
D. Natural Rope and Synthetic Fiber

A

C. Nylon Web Sling

56
Q
  1. Which type of sling material is best for abrasion and high temperature resistance?

A. Chain Sling
B. Wire Rope Sling
C. Nylon Web Sling
D. Natural Rope and Synthetic Fiber

A

A. Chain Sling

57
Q
  1. Which type of sling material may be used in a temperature range from minus 20 degrees Fahrenheit to 180 degrees Fahrenheit?

A. Chain Sling
B. Wire Rope Sling
C. Nylon Web Sling
D. Natural Rope and Synthetic Fiber

A

D. Natural Rope and Synthetic Fiber

58
Q
  1. Which type of sling configuration is better suited for handling loose bundles of pipe or rebar?

A. Bridle Hitch
B. Single Basket Hitch
C. Single Choker Hitch
D. Double Choker Hitch

A

D. Double Choker Hitch

59
Q
  1. What is the Rated Load Capacity for a hook that is ½ off center?

A. 70%
B. 80%
C. 86%
D. 100%

A

B. 80%

60
Q
  1. Assume you are lifting 1000 pounds. What is the load in Pounds on each leg of two legged sling if the horizontal sling angle is 45 degrees?

A. 500
B. 577
C. 707
D. 1000

A

C. 707

61
Q
  1. Given a load of 7500 pounds, you will lift using a Wire Rope Sling in a 2-legged Bridle Hitch in a 60 degree horizontal angle using a 6 x 19 Improved Plow Steel Grade Rope with Fiber Core, Hand Tucked. What is the minimum Wire Rope Diameter in Inches?

A. 3/8.
B. 7/16
C. 1/2
D. 9/16

A

D. 9/16

62
Q
  1. Given a 3-legged Bridle Hitch in a 30 degree horizontal angle using a 3/4 inch 6 x 19 Construction Improved Plow Steel Grade Rope with an Independent Wire Rope Core (IWRC) and connected using a Hand Tucked, what is the Lifting capacity in Tons?

A. 5.8
B. 6.3
C. 6.6
D. 6.8
E. 7.3
F. 10.0
G. 11.0
H. 13.0

A

B. 6.3

63
Q
  1. A scaffold must be capable of supporting its own weight and what is the minimum factor or multiplier that must be applied to the maximum intended load to determine the capacity?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

A

D. 4

64
Q
  1. OSHA has grouped all scaffolds into two groups and has established certain criteria for each group. What are the two groups of scaffolds?

A. Horizontal Scaffolds and Vertical Scaffolds
B. Supported Scaffolds and Suspended Scaffolds
C. Mandatory Scaffolds and Non-Mandatory Scaffolds
D. Required Scaffold Criteria and Not Required Scaffolds Criteria

A

B. Supported Scaffolds and Suspended Scaffolds

65
Q
  1. On scaffolds where platforms are overlapped to create a long platform, the lap shall occur only over supports. What is the minimum lap in inches if they are not nailed?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

A

D. 12

66
Q
  1. What is the minimum height to base ratio which requires guying, tying, bracing?
    A. 1:1
    B. 2:1
    C. 3:1
    D. 4:1
A

D. 4:1

67
Q
  1. What is the maximum vertical tie-in distance range in feet for scaffolds that exceed the height to base ratio?

A. 20 - 26
B. 30 - 36
C. 40 - 46
D. 50 - 56

A

A. 20 - 26

68
Q
  1. What is the maximum horizontal tie-in distance in feet for scaffolds that exceed the height to base ratio?

A. 30
B. 35
C. 50
D. 75

A

A. 30

69
Q
  1. What of the following scaffold descriptions describes an independent pole scaffolding?

A. A supported scaffolding consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers supported by ledgers and a double row of uprights without any support from any structure
B. A supported or suspended scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported by tubing, erected by coupler devices connecting uprights, braces, bearers, & runners
C. A supported scaffolding of a platform resting on thrustouts projecting beyond the wall or face of the building or structure, the inboard ends secured to inside the building or structure
D. A supported scaffolding consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers, the outside bearers ends supported on runners secured to a single row of uprights, and the inner bearer ends supported on or in a structure or building wall

A

A. A supported scaffolding consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers supported by ledgers and a double row of uprights without any support from any structure

70
Q
  1. At each end of a platform, what is the maximum extension range in inches for extending the platform beyond its support?

A. 12 - 18
B. 19 - 24
C. 25 - 31
D. 32 - 36

A

A. 12 - 18

71
Q
  1. What is the rated load capacity for a Medium-duty scaffold?

A. 25 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area
B. 50 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area
C. 75 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area
D. 250 pounds placed 18 inches to the left and right of the center of the span

A

B. 50 pounds per square foot applied uniformly over the entire span area

72
Q
  1. What is the minimum ladder extension in feet above the point of contact?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

A

C. 3

73
Q
  1. What is the maximum height in feet before a Pole scaffold must be designed by a Registered Professional Engineer?

A. 20
B. 50
C. 60
D. 125

A

C. 60

74
Q
  1. What is the maximum height in feet before a Tube and Coupler scaffold must be designed by a Registered Professional Engineer?

A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 125

A

D. 125

75
Q
  1. What is the maximum height in feet before a Fabricated Frame scaffold must be designed by a Registered Professional Engineer?

A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 125

A

D. 125

76
Q
  1. Given the following information concerning a Swing Stage Scaffold, the Load (L) is = 600 pounds, the load line to the fulcrum distance (X) = 2.5 feet, and the length of the outrigger from the counterweight to the fulcrum point (Y) is 16 feet. What is the weight
    (W) of the counter weight in pounds?

A. 94
B. 375
C. 500
D. 600

A

B. 375

77
Q
  1. What is the maximum height in feet of a ladder jack platform?

A. 20
B. 30
C. 60

A

A. 20

78
Q
  1. When free-standing Mobile (manual rolling scaffolding) scaffold towers are used, the height shall not exceed how many times the minimum base dimension?

A. 2
B. 9
C. 45
D. 60

A

A. 2

79
Q
  1. A Manual Rolling scaffolding has a base of 7’ x 9’. What is the maximum height in feet?

A. 14 Feet
B. 30 Feet
C. 60 Feet
D. 125 Feet

A

A. 14 Feet

80
Q
  1. Using the Non-Mandatory Appendix A in Subpart L, and the Allowable Spans table, what is the minimum nominal size planking in inches that can be used for scaffold planks?

A. 2 x 6
B. 2 x 8
C. 2 x 10
D. 2 x 12

A

C. 2 x 10

81
Q
  1. Using a maximum loading for a medium duty scaffold, what is the maximum permissible span in feet for a nominal plank 2 x 12?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

A

B. 6

82
Q
  1. The point of contact for your ladder is 16’ above the ground. What is the proper horizontal distance in feet from the wall?

A. 03.33 Feet
B. 04.00 Feet
C. 12.00 Feet
D. 16.00 Feet

A

B. 04.00 Feet

AIC Exam (19 decks)

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