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OrgChem Part 3 - 2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Solvent extraction is more effective when the extraction is repeated with
    A. extra solvent
    B. large solvent
    C. small solvent
    D. no solvent
A

C. small solvent

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2
Q
  1. The insoluble impurities during recrystallization are removed by
    A. hot gravity filtration
    B. vacuum filtration
    C. cooling
    D. drying
A

A. hot gravity filtration

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3
Q
  1. The temperature at which solid and liquid coexist in equilibrium is the
    A. melting point of liquid
    B. freezing point of liquid
    C. freezing point of solid
    D. all of the mentioned
A

B. freezing point of liquid

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3
Q
  1. During recrystallization, 0.85 g of crude aspirin was dissolved in a suitable solvent and after
    filtration and drying, 0.68 g of crystals were recovered. Calculate the % recovery.
    A. 20%
    B. 50%
    C. 65%
    D. 80%
A

D. 80%

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT separated using distillation?
    A. acetone and water
    B. aniline and chloroform
    C. impurities in sea water
    D. milk and water
A

D. milk and water

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5
Q
  1. Steam baths are often used to heat volatile, non-aqueous, flammable solvents because of the
    following EXCEPT
    A. Can only heat up to 100’C so no overheating occurs in the compounds of the sample
    B. Flash fires are unlikely in most solvents
    C. Overheating is possible
    D. Provides instant heat
A

C. Overheating is possible

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5
Q
  1. What is the advantage of steam distillation?
    A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
    B. Reduces decomposition of inorganic compounds
    C. Increases the decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds
    D. Increases the decomposition of inorganic compounds
A

A. Reduces decomposition of temperature-sensitive compounds

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6
Q
  1. Fractional distillation is a process of separation of which of the following?
    A. two immiscible liquids
    B. one miscible and one immiscible liquid
    C. two miscible liquids
    D. none of the above
A

C. two miscible liquids

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6
Q
  1. The beads in a fractional column are for
    A. vapors to condense
    B. vapors to evaporate
    C. vapors to generate
    D. all of the mentioned
A

A. vapors to condense

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about steam distillation?
    A. very long extraction times
    B. very short extraction times
    C. high energy consumption
    D. no need for subsequent separation steps
A

B. very short extraction times

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct way to determine the boiling point of an unknown
    compound?
    A. Heating a compound to boiling and measuring the temperature of the hot plate.
    B. Heating a compound to near boiling and placing the thermometer in the liquid.
    C. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.
    D. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the boiling liquid.
A

C. Boiling a compound and placing the thermometer in the refluxing vapor.

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8
Q
  1. Karl Fischer titration, which determines trace amounts of water in a sample, uses which
    electrochemical method?
    A. Potentiometry
    B. Coulometry
    C. Voltammetry
    D. Iodometry
A

B. Coulometry

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common method used for purification?
    A. Electrolysis
    B. Sublimation
    C. Crystallization
    D. Chromatography
A

A. Electrolysis

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9
Q
  1. The principle of TLC is that
    A. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to different degrees.
    B. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.
    C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.
    D. Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to same degrees.
A

C. Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different degrees.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about visualization during TLC is TRUE?
    A. Spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes.
    B. Spots can be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light.
    C. Spots can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar containing iodine crystals.
    D. All Of the above.
A

D. All Of the above.

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10
Q
  1. In the decomposition and dissolution of solids during sample preparation, which of the
    following is expensive and often the last resort?
    A. fusion technique
    B. simple dissolution
    C. acid treatment using oxidation
    D. dissolution using ultrasound and appropriate solvent
A

A. fusion technique

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10
Q
  1. Amino acids can be detected by spraying the stationary phase with ninhydrin solution. This
    can be done in
    A. gas chromatography
    B. paper chromatography
    C. liquid chromatography
    D. column chromatography
A

B. paper chromatography

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10
Q
  1. In handling acid wastes, what type of protective gloves should be used?
    A. cloth gloves
    B. rubber gloves
    C. surgical gloves
    D. disposal plastic gloves
A

B. rubber gloves

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10
Q
  1. The following are the minimum requirements for hazardous waste storage facilities EXCEPT
    A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.
    B. Properly secured and not easily accessed by unauthorized persons.
    C. Accessible in cases of emergency and for purposes of inspection and monitoring.
    D. Equipped with floors that are impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals, not
    slippery, and constructed to retain spillages.
A

A. Enclosed and should not be ventilated.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a good practice in storing chemicals?
    A. Store peroxidizable materials away from heat and light.
    B. Maintain a clearance Of at least 18 in. from the sprinkler heads to allow proper functioning of
    the sprinkler system.
    C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.
    D. Do not store materials on top of high cabinets where they will be hard to see or reach.
A

C. Store chemicals directly on the floor.

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10
Q
  1. A substance is analyzed by paper chromatography, giving the chromatogram shown. What is
    the Rf value of the substance represented by the spot at 8.0 cm?
    A. 0.80
    B. 0.75
    C. 0.67
    D. 0.60
A

B. 0.75

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11
Q
  1. Hazardous waste should be kept separate from other waste because
    A. costs are different.
    B. different treatments.
    C. others can be recycled.
    D. all of the above.
A

D. all of the above.

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11
Q
  1. Sample preparation technique used prior to instrumental analysis of metals.
    A. sieving
    B. clean-up
    C. acid digestion
    D. liquid-liquid extraction
A

C. acid digestion

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11
Q
  1. Method of passing the sample through a metal or plastic mesh of a uniform cross-sectional
    area to separate particles into uniform sizes.
    A. sieving
    B. milling
    C. pulverizing
    D. macerating
A

A. sieving

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11
Q
  1. When handling concentrated acids except hydrofluoric acid, which of the following PPE
    must be worn?
    A. gloves
    B. lab gown and safety boots
    C. masks with respirators
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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11
Q
  1. According to NFPA, what color refers to flammability.
    A. blue
    B. yellow
    C. red
    D. white
A

C. red

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following should be done when handling flammable and combustible liquids?
    A. Keep away from potential ignition sources.
    B. Use and store in adequately ventilated areas.
    C. Keep container closed except when dispensing.
    D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

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12
Q
  1. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include?
    A. Volume of Waste
    B. Generator ID Number
    C. HW class and Number
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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12
Q
  1. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to wastes that have the potential to
    contaminate groundwater if improperly disposed of. These materials are regulated as hazardous
    waste due to their potential to leach out specific toxic substances in a landfill.
    A. ignitability
    B. reactivity
    C. toxicity
    D. corrosivity
A

C. toxicity

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12
Q
  1. What should you do when a waste container has a minor leak?
    A. Patch up the container.
    B. Transfer to another container.
    C. Call your PCO to report in a regulatory body.
    D. Put the container with leak in a bigger container.
A

B. Transfer to another container.

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12
Q
  1. An institution that handles chemicals relies on the to make the initial determination of
    whether a waste is hazardous and to label the waste accordingly?
    A. Laboratory safety manager
    B. Department of Environmental and
    Natural Resources
    C. Principal Investigator
    D. Plant Safety Officer
A

B. Department of Environmental and
Natural Resources

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12
Q
  1. Organic peroxides are dangerous when
    A. heated
    B. concentrated
    C. you let ether, p-dioxane, THF, among others to vaporize
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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12
Q
  1. The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT
    A. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
    B. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
    C. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.
    D. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.
A

D. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

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12
Q
  1. When using a fume hood, all of the following must be done EXCEPT
    A. Making sure that the exhaust is operating.
    B. Keeping the hood closed, except during apparatus set-up or when working within the hood.
    C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
    available.
    D. Removing contaminated items with odors and hazardous materials only after decontamination
    or if placed in a closed container to avoid release of contaminants into the air.
A

C. Using the hood as a storage area for volatile chemicals when appropriate storage cabinet is not
available.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following can be disposed down the drain?
    A. 1 g/L PCl5
    B. 0.1 M H2SO4
    C. 200 g/L PCl5
    D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

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13
Q
  1. According to the GHS, which of the following is NOT under the pictogram “Gas
    Cylinder”?
    A. compressed gas
    B. dissolved gas
    C. liquefied gas
    D. explosive gas
A

D. explosive gas

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13
Q
  1. When working with chemicals that has splash hazards, what is the most appropriate PPE to
    use?
    A. Prescription glasses
    B. goggles
    C. face shield only
    D. safety glasses
A

B. goggles

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
    A. Wearing of masks and gloves
    B. Drying of glassware after washing
    C. Adding water to strong acid
    D. Tying or braiding long hairs
A

C. Adding water to strong acid

14
Q
  1. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
    A. calibration curve
    B. absorbance chart
    C. quality control chart
    D. none of the above
A

A. calibration curve

15
Q
  1. A technical document, which is GHS compliant, that contains all the information related to
    the health hazard, storage, precautionary measures, emergency procedures, etc. when handling
    chemicals.
    A. Safety Data Sheet
    B. Chemical Data Sheet
    C. Material Safety Data Sheet
    D. Chemical Safety Data Sheet
A

A. Safety Data Sheet

15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about spectroscopic methods is correct?
    A. Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than classical methods.
    B. Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than classical methods.
    C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods.
    D. Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than classical methods.
A

C. Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than classical methods.

15
Q
  1. Which of the following demonstrates proper drying of cuvette?
    A. dry using a desiccator
    B. place in an oven to dry overnight
    C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry
    D. none of the above
A

C. blot on absorbing towel or tissue paper and allow to air dry

15
Q
  1. It has the highest temperature characteristics of any glass. Its maximum continuous use
    temperature is approximately 9000C. It has a near zero thermal expansion and so is extremely
    thermal shock resistant. It is also chemically inert to most substances except for a few substances
    including hydrofluoric acid and hot potassium hydroxide.
    A. lime glass
    B. lead glass
    C. borosilicate
    D. fused quartz
A

D. fused quartz

16
Q
  1. What is the correct increasing order of stretching frequencies for C≡C, C=C and C-C?
    A. C-C > C=C > C≡C
    B. C≡C > C=C > C-C
    c. C-C > C=C < C≡C
    D. C≡C < C-C > C=C
A

B. C≡C > C=C > C-C

16
Q
  1. The absorbance of potassium permanganate standard solutions were determined through UV
    Vis spectroscopy. The Quality Control sample for this run gave an average absorbance reading
    of 0.486. The theoretical concentration of the QC sample is 44.4 ppm. What is the relative error
    of this QC run?
    A. 4.95%
    B. 15.0%
    c. 40.5%
    D 95.4%
16
Q
  1. In the past, IR spectra had to be acquired one wavelength at a time, which took a long time.
    Today spectra can be acquired faster due to the
    A. light is faster today that it used to be
    B. absence of broad spectrum of wavelength
    C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once
    D. none of the above
A

C. Fourier Transfer algorithm which allows to scan all frequencies at once

16
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of Beer-Lambert’s law?
    A. Light must be of a narrow wavelength range and preferably monochromatic.
    B. Presence of fluorescent molecule in solution may interfere in the final absorbance of solution.
    C. At high concentration, molecules may polymerize and thereby affecting absorption of
    solution.
    D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption
    spectroscopy.
A

D. Beer-Lambert’s law does not form the quantitative basis for all types of absorption
spectroscopy.

16
Q
  1. Which species of the following is used to bombard with the sample for which mass
    spectroscopy has been performed?
    A. alpha particles
    B. neutrons
    C. electrons
    D. protons
A

C. electrons

17
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules will NOT show an infrared spectrum?
    A. HCl
    B. H2O
    c. CO2
    D. CH4
17
Q
  1. What compound is possibly shown in an infrared spectrum with peaks of 3000 and 1650 cm-1 ?
    A. cyclohexane
    B. cyclohexene
    C. benzene
    D. acetone
A

B. cyclohexene

17
Q
  1. In the IR spectrum of compound, there is a strong absorption at 1718 cm-I in addition to
    bands at 2978 and 2940 cm-1 and bands below 1500 cm-1. The 1 H NMR spectrum shows two
    signals: a quartet and a triplet with relative integrals of 2:3. Determine the molecular formula of
    compound X.
    A. CH3CH2CO2H
    B. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
    C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3
    D. CH3CH2OH
A

C. CH3CH2COCH2CH3

17
Q
  1. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the ______ and spatial positions of ____
    A. Electrons, Protons
    B. Neutrons, electrons
    C. Nuclei, electrons
    D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei
A

D. Nuclei, neighboring nuclei

17
Q
  1. Chromatography is used to
    A. Separate two or more compounds based on their polarities.
    B. Separate two or more compounds based on their masses.
    C. Separate two or more compounds based on how strongly they interact with other compounds.
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

18
Q
  1. Which type of chromatography is used for structural analysis?
    A. Affinity chromatography
    B. Partition chromatography
    C. Column chromatography
    D. Paper chromatography
A

D. Paper chromatography

19
Q
  1. Ion exchange particles carry fixed positive or negative charges. A sulfonic acid type resin has
    S03-H+ groups were H+ can be exchanged for
    A. cations
    B. anions
    C. small cations and large anions
    D. small anions and large cations
A

A. cations

20
Q
  1. Which of the following can be separated using column chromatography?
    A. sugar derivatives
    B. hydrolyzed peptides
    C. inorganic complex ions
    D. chlorophylls and carotenoids
A

D. chlorophylls and carotenoids

21
Q
  1. Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of
    A. starch
    B. tyrosinase
    C. antibodies
    D. all of the mentioned
A

D. all of the mentioned

22
Q
  1. A graph showing the detector’s response as a function of elution time, band’s shapes,
    position, and resolution.
    A. monitor display
    B. quality control chart
    C. calibration curve
    D. chromatogram
A

D. chromatogram

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an application of high performance liquid chromatography?
    A. Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
    B. Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
    C. Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
    D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
A

D. Elimination of undesirable substances from blood

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is useful for the separation of low molecular weight gases?
    A. Gas-solid chromatography
    B. Gas-liquid chromatography
    C. Liquid-liquid chromatography
    D. Thin layer chromatography
A

A. Gas-solid chromatography

22
Q
  1. What is the relationship of the two compounds below?
    CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
    CH3CH2CH2CH(CH3)CH3
    A. identical
    B. stereoisomers
    C. geometric isomers
    D. structural isomers
A

D. structural isomers

23
Q
  1. The analysis and separation of industrial products like soap and synthetic detergents is done
    using
    A. Thin layer chromatography
    B. Gas chromatography
    C. Partition chromatography
    D. Ion exchange chromatography
A

B. Gas chromatography

24
Q
  1. In which species are all the carbon atoms sp2 hybridized?
    A. C2H2
    B. C2H4
    C. C3H8
    D. C4H1O
24
Q
  1. For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?
    A. C6H5COOH
    B. C6H4(COOH)2
    C. HOOCCOOH
    D. CH3COOH
A

A. C6H5COOH

24
Q
  1. A technique for separating mixtures into their components in order to analyze, identify,
    purify, and/or quantify the mixture or components.
    A. spectroscopy
    B. chromatography
    C. gravimetry
    D. titrimetry
A

B. chromatography

24
Q
  1. Quantitative analysis can be done using
    A. Gas chromatography
    B. Liquid chromatography
    C. Thin layer chromatography
    D. Ion exchange chromatography
A

A. Gas chromatography

24
Q
  1. How many different structural isomers exist for dichloropropane, C3H6Cl2?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
24
Q
  1. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkanes.
    A. They have sp3 hybridized carbons.
    B. They have tetrahedral bond angles.
    C. Their stability varies directly with their respective size.
    D. They undergo reactions similar to that of alkanes.
A

B. They have tetrahedral bond angles.

24
Q
  1. How many different alcohols (not including stereoisomers) have the molecular formula
    C4H10O?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
24
Q
  1. Select the incorrect statement regarding alkenes.
    A. In alkenes, the carbons are connected by bonds.
    B. Alkenes have almost same physical properties as that of the alkanes.
    C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.
    D. Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction.
A

C. Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes.

24
Q
  1. All of the formulas below correspond to stable compounds EXCEPT
    A. CH20
    B. CH30
    C. CH202
    D.CH40
24
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a reagent for hydrogenation of an alkyne?
    A. H2/Pd
    B. Na/NH3
    C. H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
    D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH
A

D. BH3/H2O2, NaOH

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is(are) polar?
    I. CO
    ll. COCl2
    Ill. CH2Cl2
    A. I only
    B. I and Il only
    C. I and Ill only
    D. Il and Ill only
26
Q
  1. When ethyne is subjected to ozonolysis, what is the end product?
    A. formic acid
    B. acetic acid
    C. oxalic acid
    D. glucose
A

A. formic acid

27
Q
  1. Which of the compounds below will react readily with chlorine by addition?
    I. C2H2 (ethyne)
    ll. C2H4 (ethene)
    Ill. C6H6 (benzene)
    A. I only
    B. I and Il only
    C. Il and Ill only
    D. l, Il, and Ill
A

B. I and Il only

28
Q
  1. What is the order of reactivity of the following compounds in EAS?
    l. benzene
    ll. toluene
    Ill. phenol
    IV. benzoic acid
    A. IV< I < II < III
    B. I < IV < II < III
    C. III < II < I < IV
    D. II < III < IV < I
A

A. IV< I < II < III

29
Q
  1. What are the reagents needed in bromination of benzene via EAS?
    A. Bromine in H20
    B. Bromine in CH3Cl
    C. Bromine in CH2Cl2
    D. Bromine and FeBr3
A

D. Bromine and FeBr3

30
Q
  1. What occurs during an electrophilic aromatic substitution?
    A. [1] addition [2] hydrolysis
    B. [1] elimination [2] addition
    C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation
    D. [1] substitution [2] rearrangement
A

C. [1] addition [2] deprotonation

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true for SN1 reactions?
    A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.
    B. They are favored by polar protic solvents.
    C. Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this mechanism.
    D. Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the rate of such reactions.
A

A. They occur through a single step concerted reaction.

31
Q
  1. A low concentration of nucleophile favors
    A. SN1
    B. SN2
    C. Both SN1 and SN2
    D. Neither SN1 nor SN2
A

D. Neither SN1 nor SN2

32
Q
  1. Which statement(s) about substitution reactions are correct?
    l. The reaction between NaOH and I-chloropentane predominantly follows an SN2 mechanism.
    ll. The reaction between NaOH and 2-chloro-2-methylbutane predominantly follows an SN2
    mechanism.
    Ill. The reaction between NaOH with I-chloropentane occurs at a slower rate than with I
    bromopentane.
    A. land Il
    B. I and Ill
    C. Il and Ill
    D. I, Il and Ill
A

B. I and Ill

33
Q
  1. Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble in water?
    A. Propanol
    B. Hexanol
    C. Pentanol
    D. Butanol
A

A. Propanol

34
Q
  1. What is the correct order of reactivity of the following towards nucleophilic addition?
    A. methanal > ethanal > acetone
    B. acetone > ethanal > methanal
    C. methanal > acetone > ethanal
    D. ethanal > methanal > acetone
A

A. methanal > ethanal > acetone

34
Q
  1. What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO?
    A. pentanal
    B. I-pentanol
    C. I-pentanone
    D. pentanoic acid
A

A. pentanal

34
Q
  1. The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is
    A. it is a better proton donor.
    B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance.
    C. the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion
    formed in the reaction.
    D. the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which destabilizes the anion
    formed in the reaction.
A

B. the pi electrons stabilize the phenoxide ion by resonance.

34
Q
  1. Calculate the percent yield when 0.5 mol of acetic acid reacts with 1 mol of
    alcohol produces 0.25 mol of ethyl acetate.
    A. 25%
    B. 50%
    C. 75%
    D. 100%
34
Q
  1. When aldehydes and ketones react via nucleophilic addition, they are converted to
    A. alkanes
    B. alkenes
    C. ethers
    D. alcohols
A

D. alcohols

34
Q
  1. Which family of compounds is most frequently used as flavoring agents?
    A. acids
    B. alkenes
    C. esters
    D. ethers
35
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds are basic?
    A. alkenes
    B. alkynes
    C. amines
    D. alcohols
35
Q
  1. Which of these compounds contain a carboxy group?
    A. propanol
    B. propanal
    C. propanone
    D. propanoic acid
A

D. propanoic acid

35
Q
  1. The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound?
    A. C4H8O2
    B. C4H10O
    C. C5H10O2
    D. C5H12O
36
Q
  1. The most notable difference between a saturated and an unsaturated fat containing the same
    number of carbon atoms is that the saturated fat
    A. melts at a higher temperature.
    B. melts at a lower temperature.
    C. releases much more energy when metabolized.
    D. releases much less energy when metabolized.
A

A. melts at a higher temperature.

37
Q
  1. When proteins are broken down, they are converted to
    A. fatty acids
    B. amino acids
    C. nucleic acids
    D. sulfonic acids
A

B. amino acids

38
Q
  1. Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because
    A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules.
    B. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body.
    C. pressure is increased inside the body.
    D. pressure inside the body is different outside of it.
A

A. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules

asd (9 decks)

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