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AnaChem Part 1&2 - 2022 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the heaviest?
    A. proton
    B. neutron
    C. electron
    D. nucleus
A

D. nucleus

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
    A. density
    B. viscosity
    C. freezing point
    D. number of moles
A

D. number of moles

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2
Q
  1. Mothballs are used as deodorizers and as pesticides. Upon exposing them in the air for a
    few hours, they disappeared. Which of the following best explains the scenario?
    A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.
    B. The mothballs underwent melting then vaporization.
    C. The mothballs reacted with some component in the air.
    D. None of the above.
A

A. The mothballs underwent sublimation.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE for C-13 isotope?
    A. It has 6 neutron and 7 protons.
    B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.
    C. It has 6 neutron and 13 protons.
    D. It has 6 protons and 13 neutrons.
A

B. It has 6 protons and 7 neutrons.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is described as having components that CAN NOT be physically
    separated?
    A. mixture
    B. solution
    C. suspension
    D. pure substance
A

D. pure substance

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3
Q
  1. Chlorine (35.45 g/mol) has two major naturally occurring isotopes Cl-35 and Cl- 37. What
    is the abundance of the lighter isotope?
    A. 22.5
    B. 33.5
    C. 66.5
    D. 77.5
A

D. 77.5

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
    A. CO2
    B. SF4
    C. CCl4
    D. XeF4
A

B. SF4

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following atoms is the largest?
    A. Cs
    B. Sr
    C. Ga
    D. As
A

A. Cs

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a possible set of quantum numbers?
    A. n = 3 , l = 1, ml = -1 , ms -1/2
    B. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = 0, ms -1/2
    C. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = -1 , ms -1/2
    D. n = 3 , l = 1, ml = 0 , ms -1/2
A

C. n = 3 , l = 0, ml = -1 , ms -1/2

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3
Q
  1. What is the correct scientific notation for 0.0078 µg/mL of compound A?
    A. 7.8x10-1 µg/mL
    B. 7.8x10-2 µg/mL
    C. 7.8x10-3 µg/mL
    D 7.8x10-4 µg/mL
A

C. 7.8x10-3 µg/m

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3
Q
  1. Which is the correct arrangement for increasing affinity for electrons?
    A. K < Na < Cl < Ne
    B. Na < K < Cl < Ne
    C. Ne < K < Na < Cl
    D. Ne < Na < K < Cl
A

C. Ne < K < Na < Cl

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3
Q
  1. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
    A. 1 atm
    B. 760 mm Hg
    C. 760 torr
    D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

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3
Q
  1. Fluorine is capable of forming covalent bonds with which of the following element?
    A. Zinc
    B. Boron
    C. Lithium
    D. Calcium
A

B. Boron

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following corresponds to the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6?
    A. Na
    B. Na+
    C. Cl
    D. Cl-
A

B. Na+

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonpolar bond?
    A. It is a bond between similar nonmetals.
    B. It is a bond between different
    nonmetals.
    C. It has a dipole moment.
    D. All describes a nonpolar bond.
A

C. It has a dipole moment.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Double bonds are shorter than triple bonds.
    B. Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds.
    C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.
    D. None of the statements above is true.
A

C. Single bonds have lower energy than double bonds.

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4
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of plumbous oxide?
    A. PbO
    B. Pb2O2
    C. PbO2
    D. PbO4
A

A. PbO

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4
Q
  1. Which compound has the greatest intermolecular force of attraction?
    A. CO
    B. CH4
    C. CH3OH
    D. CH3OCH3
A

C. CH3OH

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4
Q
  1. What is the name of the compound PCl3?
    A. Phosphorus chloride
    B. Phosphorus trichloride
    C. Phosphorus chloride(lll)
    D Phosphorus trichloride(lll)
A

B. Phosphorus trichloride

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4
Q
  1. What is the percentage of carbon in C2H4?
    A. 10
    B. 33
    D. 43
    D. 86
A

D. 86

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4
Q
  1. What are the coefficients of HCI and ICI if the equation below is balanced?
    HIO3+FeI2+HCl —-> FeCl3+ICl +H20
    A. 5 and 4
    B. 13 and 21
    C. 25 and 13
    D. 21 and 25
A

C. 25 and 13

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following group is commonly used as components in pesticides? This group
    is also characterized as having seven valence electrons.
    A. Alkali metals
    B. Chalcogens
    C. Halogens
    D. Noble gases
A

C. Halogens

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4
Q
  1. Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of oxygen, how many grams of the excess reactant remained unreacted?

C6H12O6+O2 —–>
CO2 +H20
A. 8
B. 13
C. 17
D, 20

A

B. 13

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4
Q
  1. What volume of 4 M HCI is needed to prepare 1 L of a 0.5 M dilute solution?
    A. 0.0125 L
    B. 0.125 L
    C. 0.0875 L
    D. 0.875 L
A

B. 0.125 L

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4
Q
  1. What is the density of oxygen at 1 atm and 25oC?
    A. 1.31 g/mL
    B. 1.31 g/L
    C. 15.6 g/mL
    D. 15.6 g/L
A

B. 1.31 g/L

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5
Q
  1. What is the indicator that turns the solution into colors blue, green, and yellow if it
    becomes basic, neutral, and acidic, respectively?
    A. methyl orange
    B. phenolphthalein
    C. bromthymol blue
    D. Eriochrome black T
A

C. bromthymol blue

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct composition of aqua regia?
    A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCI
    B. 3 HNO3 :1 HCI
    C. 2 HNO3: 3HCl
    D. 3 HNO3: 2HCl
A

A. 1 HNO3: 3 HCI

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5
Q
  1. Sodium carbonate is also known as?
    A. baking soda
    B. soda ash
    C. caustic potash
    D. caustic soda
A

B. soda ash

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5
Q
  1. What are the conditions to achieve the non-ideality of gases?
    A. high T, low P
    B. high T, high P
    C. low T, low P
    D. low T, high P
A

A. high T, low P

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5
Q
  1. At 25oC a gas expands from 30 kPa and 5.0 L to 70oC and 10 kPa. Calculate its final
    volume
    A. 17 L
    B.24L
    D. 42 L
    D. 71 L
A

A. 17 L

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5
Q
  1. An analysis of a compound shows 62.04% C, 10.41% H, and 27.55% O. Which of the
    following is the most probably?
    A. C2H4O
    B. C2H4O2
    C. C3H6O
    D. C3H6O2
A

C. C3H6O

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5
Q
  1. What is the normality of a 5.0 M sulfuric acid?
    A. 2.5 N
    B. 5.0 N
    C. 7.5 N
    D. 10.0 N
A

D. 10.0 N

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5
Q
  1. A 2.4 L of HNO3 solution reacts with 63 mL of 1.9 N Ba(OH)2 to produce a neutral
    solution. What is the molar concentration of the original HNO3 solution?
    A. 0.05 M
    B. 0.12 M
    C. 0.24 M
    D. 0.50 M
A

A. 0.05 M

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5
Q
  1. Consider the complete combustion of glucose. If 25 g of glucose was burnt with 40 g of
    oxygen, how many grams of CO2 was formed?

C6H12O6+O2 —–>
CO2 +H20

A. 37
B. 42
C. 55
D, 61

A

A. 37

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5
Q
  1. How many grams of sodium persulfate (Na2S2O8) is required to prepare a 1 L solution with
    concentration of 10% (w/v)? This solution is used as oxidizing reagent for Total Organic
    Carbon analyzer (TOC).
    A. 100 g
    B. 101 g
    C. 102 g
    D. 99 g
A

A. 100 g

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5
Q
  1. Which is also equivalent to 0.01% percent by weight?
    A. 100 ppm
    B. 10 ppt
    C. 1 ppt
    D. 1 ppb
A

A. 100 ppm

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6
Q
  1. What is the oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7?
    A. +2
    B. +3
    C. +6
    D. 0
A

C. +6

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7
Q
  1. What is the overall cell potential for a voltaic cell that uses the half-reactions below?
    A. -0.46 v
    B. -1.14 v
    C. 0.46 V
    D. 1.14V
A

C. 0.46 V

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary standard for use in standardizing bases?
    A. Ammonium hydroxide
    B. Sulfuric acid
    C. Acetic acid
    D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate
A

D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

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7
Q
  1. Consider the endothermic reaction A (g) ⇋ B (g) + C (g), which will cause a backward
    shift?
    A. removal of B
    B. increasing the volume
    C. addition of catalyst
    D. decreasing the temperature
A

D. decreasing the temperature

8
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most accurate apparatus in measuring 8.55 mL of liquid?
    A. 1 mL graduated cylinder
    B. 100 mL graduated cylinder
    C. 10 mL pipet
    D. 50 mL beaker
A

C. 10 mL pipet

9
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a proper laboratory practice?
    A. wearing of masks and gloves
    B. drying of glassware after washing
    C. tying or braiding long hairs
    D. adding water to strong acid
A

D. adding water to strong acid

10
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most appropriate container for hexane?
    A. glass bottle
    B. amber bottle
    C. plastic bottle
    D. none of these
A

B. amber bottle

10
Q
  1. How many significant figures does the universal gas constant (R=0.0821 L-atm/mol-K)?
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 5
    D. infinite
A

D. infinite

10
Q
  1. A graphical representation of measuring signal as a function of quantity of analyte.
    A. Calibration curve
    B. Quality Control Chart
    C. Absorbance Chart
    D. None of the above
A

A. Calibration curve

10
Q
  1. A blank that contains the solvent plus all the reagents used in sample preparation.
    A. field blank
    B. method blank
    C. solvent blank
    D. reagent blank
A

D. reagent blank

10
Q
  1. A solution has a pH of 3.72 with an absolute certainty of ±0.03. Determine the H+
    concentration of the solution and its corresponding absolute certainty.
    A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M
    B. 1.90 ((±0.13) x 10-4 M
    C. 1.91 (±0.10) x 10-4 M
    D. 1.91 (±0.13) x 10-4 M
A

A. 1.9 (±0.1) x 10-4 M

10
Q
  1. Which of the following shows the correct path of light travel in a spectrophotometer?
    A. monochromator — source-sample — detector
    B. source — monochromator — sample — detector
    C. monochromator — source — detector — sample
    D. source — monochromator — detector — sample
A

B. source — monochromator — sample — detector

10
Q
  1. Cuvettes made of this material are required when working at a wavelength below 300 nm
    where other materials show a significant absorption.
    A. quartz
    B. plastic
    C. sodium chloride
    D. potassium bromide
A

A. quartz

11
Q
  1. HOW many electrons can fit in the fourth main shell?
    A. 4
    B. 8
    C. 16
    D. 32
A

D. 32

11
Q
  1. Which does not correspond to the electron configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
    A. Potassium ion
    B. Chloride ion
    C. Sulfide ion
    D. None of the above.
A

D. None of the above.

11
Q
  1. Which of the following elements has greater electron affinity than oxygen?
    A. sulfur
    B. carbon
    C. neon
    D. fluorine
A

D. fluorine

12
Q
  1. Which molecular geometry has the greatest bond angle?
    A. linear
    B. tetrahedral
    C. octahedral
    D. trigonal bipyramidal
A

A. linear

13
Q
  1. What is the name of the compound indicated below?
    Pb(ClO)4
    A. plumbous perchlorate
    B. plumbic perchlorate
    C. plumbous hypochlorite
    D. plumbic hypochlorite
A

D. plumbic hypochlorite

14
Q
  1. What is the chemical formula of nitrous acid?
    A. HN3
    B. HNO2
    C. HNO3
    D. H2NO3
A

B. HNO2

15
Q
  1. Alcohols and carboxylic acids have —OH groups. What type of chemical bonding occurs
    between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms?
    A. ionic
    B. polar covalent
    C. hydrogen
    D. non-polar covalent
A

B. polar covalent

16
Q
  1. It is a result of instantaneous dipole in a non-polar molecule?
    A. London Dispersion Force
    B. Dipole-dipole Interaction
    C. Ion-Dipole Interaction
    D. Hydrogen Bonding
A

A. London Dispersion Force

16
Q
  1. What is the pressure (atm) of hydrogen if it has 0.412 mol at 16oC in a 3.25 L?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

C. 3

16
Q
  1. What is the other name for oil of vitriol?
    A. paraffin
    B. olefin
    C. sulfuric acid
    D. wax
A

C. sulfuric acid

16
Q
  1. Which among the following compounds has the lowest boiling point?
    A. decanol
    B. lauric acid
    C. toluene
    D. benzene
A

D. benzene

17
Q
  1. A cylinder containing a gas is compressed to half its original volume. What will happen to its
    pressure at constant temperature?
    A. doubled
    B. halved
    C. no effect
    D. cannot be determined
A

A. doubled

17
Q
  1. A white powder is analyzed and found to contain 43.64% phosphorus and 56.36% oxygen by
    mass. The compound has a molar mass of 283.88 g. What is the molecular formula of the
    compound?
    A. P2O5
    B. P4O10
    C. P1.0O1.3
    D. P1.4O3.
A

B. P4O10

18
Q

For numbers 18-19.
Nitrogen gas can be prepared by passing gaseous ammonia over solid copper (Il) oxide at high temperatures. The other products of the reaction are solid copper and water vapor as shown in
the reaction below:
NH3(g) + CuO(s) → N2(g) + Cu(s) + H2O(g)

  1. If 30.5 g of NH3 is reacted with 99.7 g of CuO, how much excess reactant will remain?
    A. 16.3 g
    B. 14.2 g
    C. 7.9 g
    D.9.1 g
A

A. 16.3 g

18
Q
  1. What IMFA is/are present in the compound HC3(CH2)3CHO
    A. LDF only
    B. DDI only
    C. LDF and DDI
    D. LDF, DDI, and HB
A

C. LDF and DDI

18
Q
  1. Balance the following chemical reaction:
    H2O+MnO4+Fe —->
    Fe+Mn+OH

A. 4,1,3,3,1,8
B. 6,2,4,4,2,12
C. 12,3,7,7,3,24
D. 8,1,6,6,1,16

A

C. 12,3,7,7,3,24

18
Q
  1. A stock solution containing Mn2+ ions was prepared by dissolving 2.686 g of pure manganese
    metal in nitric acid and diluting to a final volume of 500 mL From this stock solution, a volume of
    10.00 mL was obtained and diluted to 250.0 mL. What is the molar concentration of the final
    solution?
    A. 4.889 x 10-2 M
    B. 9.778 x 10-2 M
    C. 1.956 X 10-3 M
    D. 3.911 x 10-3 M
A

D. 3.911 x 10-3 M

18
Q
  1. Based on the previous problem, how many grams of water vapor will be formed?
    A. 48.4 g
    B. 22.6 g
    C. 32.3 g
    D. 21.4 g
A

B. 22.6 g

18
Q
  1. A 30-L gas initially has 110 kPa and 147oC. If its volume become 40 L and the pressure
    increased to 120 kPa, what is the new temperature (oC)?
    A. 65
    B. 214
    C. 338
    D. 611
A

C. 338

18
Q
  1. Potash alum is a common household substance that can be used as deodorant, aftershave treatment or styptic for minor bleeding from shaving. It is widely used as potassium sulfate
    dodecahydrate (KAl(SO4)2 12H2O). How many potassium atoms are there in 100 grams of
    potash alum?
    A. 2.33 x 1023
    B. 4.96 x 1024
    C. 1.27 x 1023
    D. 9.12 x 1024
A

C. 1.27 x 1023

18
Q
  1. The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is an exothermic reaction. Which of
    the following will favor the formation of ammonia?
    A. Decrease in temperature
    B. Increase in temperature
    C. Removal of nitrogen
    D. Addition of ammonia
A

A. Decrease in temperature

19
Q
  1. HOW many grams of potassium dichromate is required to prepare 250 mL of 0.1 M solution
    of potassium dichromate? This is solution is an oxidizing agent used in organic chemistry.
    A. 1.18g
    B. 7.35g
    C. 6.38g
    D. 2.94g
A

B. 7.35g

19
Q
  1. A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a
    nonpolar solvent. This is
    A. the solubility rule
    B. the “like dissolves like” rule
    C. Henry’s law
    D. Hund’s rule
A

B. the “like dissolves like” rule

20
Q
  1. Under the Brønsted-Lowry concept of acids and bases, a base is a/an
    A. proton donor
    B. proton acceptor
    C. electron pair donor
    D. electron pair acceptor
A

B. proton acceptor

20
Q
  1. Determine the concentration of H+ ions in apple cider vinegar if the PH was measured to
    3.57.
    A. 2.7 x 10-4 M
    B. 3.7 x 10-3 M
    C. 5.5 x 10-1 M
    D. 1.3 x 10-1 M
A

A. 2.7 x 10-4 M

21
Q
  1. Buffer solutions are solutions that can neutralize small amounts of added acids and bases to maintain relatively stable pH values. Which of the following can be used to prepare a buffer
    solution?
    A. NaHCOO, HCOOH
    B. NaSO4, H2SO4
    C. NaCH3COO
    D. HCI, NaOH
A

A. NaHCOO, HCOOH

22
Q
  1. Determine the products of the acid-base reaction below:
    H2𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 → _________
    A. Ca2SO4 + H4O
    B. Ca2SO4 + H2O
    c. CaSO4 + H4O
    D. CaSO4 + H2O
A

D. CaSO4 + H2O

22
Q
  1. A type of analysis in terms of sample size that can resolve fine-scale variations in chemical
    elements, as well as determine the presence and distribution of different phases in materials.
    A. Macro
    B. Semi-macro
    C. Micro
    D Ultra-micro
A

C. Micro

22
Q
  1. This type of method consists of a set of instructions about how to carry out a method issued
    by a national standards body and legislated by the national government to become mandatory.
    A. Standard method
    B. Regulatory method
    C. Reference method
    D. Validated method
A

B. Regulatory method

22
Q
  1. An analyst determines that the analytical balance he used in a given analytical test is wrongly
    calibrated. Determine what type of error is represented.
    A. Systematic error
    B. Random error
    C. Gross error
    D. Cannot be determined
A

A. Systematic error

23
Q
  1. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.02 M CH3COOH and 0.01 M NaCH3COO? Ka of
    CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10-5
    A. 4.75
    B. 5.25
    c. 5.05
    D. 4.44
A

D. 4.44

23
Q
  1. It is a written program developed and implemented by the employer which sets forth
    procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that are capable of protecting employees from the health hazard presented by hazardous chemicals used in the workplace.
    A. Safety Manual
    B. Chemical Hygiene Plan
    C. Safety Rules and Policies
    D. Safety Plan
A

B. Chemical Hygiene Plan

24
Q
  1. What is the molarity of 37% w/w hydrochloric acid? The density of 37% w/w HCI is 1.18
    g/mL.
    A. 10 M
    B. 37 M
    C. 12 M
    D. 8 M
A

C. 12 M

24
Q
  1. In starting-up laboratory operations, the following should be observed except.
    A. Turning on the hoods, vents, and exhaust fans.
    B. Turning the equipment and instruments on.
    C. Performing analysis immediately.
    D. Monitoring operating parameters.
A

C. Performing analysis immediately.

25
Q
  1. The following groups are known to be peroxide-forming compounds EXCEPT
    A. Ethers with primary and/or secondary alkyl groups.
    B. Hydrocarbons with allylic, benzylic, or propargylic hydrogens.
    C. Conjugated dienes, eneynes, and diynes.
    D. All are peroxide-formers.
A

D. All are peroxide-formers.

25
Q
  1. It is a plot of an instrument’s readout vs. concentration, the data for which are the results of measuring a series of standard solutions prepared for the experiment.
    A. Linear range
    B. Calibration curve
    C. Dynamic range
    D. Linear dynamic range
A

B. Calibration curve

25
Q
  1. It describes the policies and procedures the laboratory has to manage in relation to quality, or
    references where those procedures can be found. An essential requirement of ISO 9000 series of
    standards and ISO 17025.
    A. Quality Assurance
    B. Quality Control
    C. Quality Manual
    D. Documentation
A

C. Quality Manual

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are TRUE about the laboratory chemical hood?
    I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 in.) from the front edge of the hood.
    ll. Before each work, be sure that the hood exhaust system is functioning properly.
    Ill. Store hazardous chemicals inside the chemical hood to protect personnel from toxic fumes
    exposure.
    IV. The performance of laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.
    A. I and II
    B. II, III and IV
    C. I, II, and III
    D. I, II, and IV
A

D. I, II, and IV

27
Q
  1. What hazards are represented by a GHS pictogram with a flame over circle symbol?
    A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
    B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
    C. Carcinogens
    D. Explosives
A

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

28
Q
  1. It is a hazardous waste characteristic which applies to waste liquids with a flash point less
    than 1400C or solids capable of spontaneous combustion under normal temperature and pressure.
    A. Ignitability
    B. Reactivity
    C. Corrosivity
    D. Toxicity
A

A. Ignitability

29
Q
  1. What is the pH of an acidic waste?
    A. pH ≤ 2
    B. pH ≤ 3
    C. pH ≥ 12.5
    D. pH = 7
A

A. pH ≤ 2

29
Q
  1. This refers to a person who produces hazardous wastes, through any institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities.
    A. Waste generator
    B. Waste treater
    C. Waste transporter
    D. Pollution Control Officer
A

A. Waste generator

30
Q
  1. The correct hierarchy of control principle (decreasing priority) from a chemical exposure
    perspective is
    I. PPE
    ll. Engineering controls
    Ill. Administrative controls
    IV. Elimination
    V. Substitution
    A. I > II > III > IV > V
    B. I > III > II > IV > V
    C. V > IV > II > III > I
    D. IV > V > II > III > I
A

D. IV > V > II > III > I

31
Q
  1. An exposure limit that indicates the maximum average concentration to which workers can
    safely be exposed for a normal 8-hr workday or 48-hr workweek.
    A. Time weighted average (TWA)
    B. Short-term exposure limit (STEL)
    C. Ceiling (C)
    D. Immediately dangerous to life or health
    (IDLH)
A

A. Time weighted average (TWA)

32
Q
  1. This refers to a single sample or measurement taken at specific time or over a short period as
    feasible.
    A. Grab sample
    B. Composite sample
    C. Laboratory sample
    D. None of the above
A

A. Grab sample

33
Q
  1. The following are good sampling practices EXCEPT
    A. Take several increments and composite them to form the sample.
    B. If possible, mix the material before getting the sample.
    C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.
    D. Sample frequently enough to allow for the identification of process cycles.
A

C. Collect the sample in a container made of material that will chemically react with the sample.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following are TRUE about uncertainty?
    I. It is a difference between a single measurement or result and its true value.
    II. The range of possible values for a measurement.
    III. A measure of bias in a result or measurement.
    IV. It accounts for all errors (both determinate and indeterminate).
    A. I and II
    B. I and IV
    C. II and III
    D. II and IV
A

D. II and IV

35
Q
  1. It is a graph showing the time-dependent change in the results of an analysis that is used to
    monitor whether an analysis is in a state of statistical control.
    A. Calibration curve
    B. Standard Curve
    C. QC chart
    D. Monitoring chart
A

C. QC chart

36
Q
  1. A clean sample (e.g. distilled water) processed through the instrumental steps or the
    measurement process to determine instrument contamination.
    A. Method blank
    B. Instrumental blank
    C. Surrogate
    D. Reagent blank
A

B. Instrumental blank

asd (9 decks)

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